Year 2 Histology Qs (keep adding when you review own notes - mostly from pje) Flashcards

1
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma of lung usually occurs at which areas of the lung? [1]

A

Main bronchi

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2
Q

What type of cancer is this depicted?

Squamous cell cancer
Non-small cell lung carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Large cell carcinoma
Small cell carcinoma

A

What type of cancer is this depicted?

Squamous cell cancer
Non-small cell lung carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Large cell carcinoma
Small cell carcinoma

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3
Q

How would you describe cell types found in small cell lung carcinoma? [1]

A
  • Small, ovoid, densely packed and darkly stained tumor cells
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4
Q

What pathology does this image depict?

Squamous cell cancer
Non-small cell lung carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Large cell carcinoma
Small cell carcinoma

A

Squamous cell cancer
Non-small cell lung carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Large cell carcinoma
Small cell carcinoma

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5
Q

Which of the following can be distinguished by keratinisation of cells

Squamous cell cancer
Non-small cell lung carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Large cell carcinoma
Small cell carcinoma

A

Which of the following can be distinguished by keratinisation of cells

Squamous cell cancer
Non-small cell lung carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Large cell carcinoma
Small cell carcinoma

Numerous keratin pearls will be noted which are areas of central keratinization surrounded by concentric layers of abnormal squamous cells

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6
Q

What type of cancer causes the tumour depicted on the right?

Squamous cell cancer
Non-small cell lung carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Large cell carcinoma
Small cell carcinoma

A

What type of cancer causes the tumour depicted on the right?

Squamous cell cancer
Non-small cell lung carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Large cell carcinoma
Small cell carcinoma

Hyaline cartilage is resistant to invasion

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7
Q

Label M, CN and L on this histological slide [3]

What pathology is indicated? [1]

A

Pulmonary tunerculosis

M: macrophage
L: langhan cell
CN: caseous necrosis

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8
Q

Which cell type walls of tubercle in TB ptx to create a caseous necrosis? [1]

A

Fibroblasts: lay down collagen to wall of tubercle (F)

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9
Q

Which of the following is primary, secondary and miliary TB? [3]

A

A: Secondary TB
B: Miliary TB
C: Primary TB

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10
Q

Assmans focus is associated with:

Primary TB
Secondary TB
Miliary TB

A

Assmans focus is associated with:

Primary TB
Secondary TB
Miliary TB

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11
Q

Ranke complex in primary pulmonary TB is caused by which two components? [2]

A

a Ghon lesion that has undergone calcification
an ipsilateral calcified mediastinal node

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12
Q

What is the likely lung diagnosis? [1]

A

Bronchopneumonia: neutrophil found in alveolar spaces

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13
Q

What is the likely diagnosis of this histological slide?

NB: The Ptx is well nourished and has an enlarged, tender liver

Hypothyroidism
Folic acid deficiency
Haemoglobinopathy
B12 Deficiency
Alcoholic liver disease

A

What is the likely diagnosis of this histological slide?

NB: The Ptx is well nourished and has an enlarged, tender liver

Hypothyroidism
Folic acid deficiency
Haemoglobinopathy
B12 Deficiency
Alcoholic liver disease

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14
Q

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

A

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

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15
Q

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

A

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

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16
Q

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

A

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

Eosiniphil infiltratin

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17
Q

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

A

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency (From chronic renal failure)
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

Can see Burr cells and spicules

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18
Q

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

A

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency + eating fava beans
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

Non-spherocytic haemolytic anaemia

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19
Q

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

A

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

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20
Q

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited? [1]

Explain why [2]

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

Spherolytic haemolytic anaemia. Bone marrow infiltration by lymphocytes that leads to none marrow fialure and development of anaemia

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21
Q

What is the diagnosis ? [1]

A

Acute myeloid leukaemia

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22
Q

Label A-C of hepatic histology

A

A: branch of bile duct
B: branch of hepatic artery
C: branch of portal vein

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23
Q

Label A-C

A

A: Parafollicular cells
B: Colloid
C: Follicular cell

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24
Q

Which of the folllowing secretes calcitonin?

A
B
C

A

Which of the folllowing secretes calcitonin?

A: parafollicular cells Lowers Ca++ levels
B
C

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25
Q

Where is the following an adenoma from? [1]

A

Pituitary adenoma

See loss of supporting reticular network

left is pathology, right is normal
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26
Q

This photograph shows a histopathological specimen of the pitutiary gland. ID the tissues labelled A-C

A

A: Pituitary adenoma
B: posterior lobe of pit gland
C: anterior lobe of pit gland

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27
Q

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

A

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

G6PD leads to non-spherocytic haemolytic anaemia.

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28
Q

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

A

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

Chronic renal failure leads to a deficiency in EPO.
Normocytic anaemia occurs.
Red cells fragments are commonly seen with renal vascular disease.
Anisocytosis and Poikilocytosis will therefore be present as well.
Burr cells may be visible (acanthocytes).

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29
Q

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

A

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

Hay fever does not affect RBCS.

Eosinophil levels will be increased as a response to allergies (eosinophilia).

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30
Q

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

A

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

  • Patients appear jaundiced due to increased RBC breakdown.
  • Reticulocytosis occurs to try to raised Hb concentration levels (polychromasia).
  • Spherocytes will be visible to highlight RBC damage.
  • This disease can be autoimmune.
  • Neutrophilia may be present.
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31
Q

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

A

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

RBCs present as normocytic

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32
Q

What causes this pathology? [1]

A

Alcoholic Liver Disease

Alcohol is the most frequent cause of macrocytic RBCs in the absence of anaemia.

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33
Q

What causes this pathology? [1]

A

IDA: Microcytic, hypochromic cells present.

Blood loss such as a large bowel carcinoma may be responsible for iron deficiency.

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34
Q

What causes this pathology? [1]

A

B12/Folate Deficiency:

Macrocytic cells. & Hypersegmented neutrophil.

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34
Q

What causes this pathology? [1]

A

B12/Folate Deficiency:

Macrocytic cells. & Hypersegmented neutrophil.

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35
Q

This is a histological slide from the pituitary gland. What pathology is indicated and how can you tell? [2]

A

Hashimotos: Colloid not conspicuous

Hashimoto’s disease is an autoimmune disorder that can cause hypothyroidism, or underactive thyroid

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36
Q

Hypothyroidism can be indicated by [2]

A

Puffiness
Coarse skin

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37
Q

Which pathology is indicated by this slide?

Graves
Addisons
Hashimotos
Cushings syndrome

A

Which pathology is indicated by this slide?

Graves
Addisons
Hashimotos
Cushings syndrome

(Left is normal)

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38
Q

Cushing syndrome is most commonly caused by [1]

2nd most common cause? [2]

A

Most common: Iatrogenic: from administration of exogenous glucorticoids

70% on non-iatrogenic causes are Pituitary ACTH secreting adenoma

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39
Q

3 symptoms of Cushings? [3]

A

Central obesity
Abdominal striae
Moon faces

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40
Q

What are the three liver zones and where are they in relation to each other?

A

1: most central
* 2: intermediate
3: furthest from distributing vessels

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41
Q

What are roles of liver zone 1 and 3? [2]

A
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42
Q

What is hepatocyte death: bridgeing?

A

Bridgeing = within zone 3 of acinus, severe Hep

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43
Q

Which is the major cell involved in liver fibrosis?

A

stellate cells [1]

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44
Q

Label A-C of Thyroid gland

What is secreted by C?

A

A: follicular cells
B: colloid
C: parafollicular cells - secretes calcitonin

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45
Q

Which of the following is from Graves and which is Hashimotos?

A

A: Graves
B: Hashimotos (lymphocyte infiltration)

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46
Q

Which pathology is indicated by this slide?

Graves
Addisons
Hashimotos
Cushings syndrome

A

Which pathology is indicated by this slide?

Graves
Addisons
Hashimotos
Cushings syndrome

  • plump follicular cells with increased amounts of eosinophilic cytoplasm
  • hyperplastic follicles with papillary epithelial infoldings
  • evidence of colloid reabsorption, including ‘scalloping’ at the apical membrane and variable follicle collapse and exhaustion
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47
Q

Which pathology is indicated by this slide?

Graves
Addisons
Hashimotos
Cushings syndrome

A

Which pathology is indicated by this slide?

Graves
Addisons
Hashimotos : lymphocyte infilatration
Cushings syndrome

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48
Q

Label A-B of atheroma plaque

A

A: Tunica media
B: atherosclerotic plaque

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49
Q

Whay histopathology is ocurring here?

Pneumonia
Squamous cell carcinoma
Tuberculosis
Adenoma cell carcinoma

A

Whay histopathology is ocurring here?

Pneumonia
Squamous cell carcinoma
Tuberculosis
Adenoma cell carcinoma

Successful macrophage lymphocyte—> fibroblast–>defensive reaction occurs

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50
Q

Which cell types secrete calcitonin

Follicular cells
Parafollicular cells
Hepatocytes
Colloid

A

Which cell types secrete calcitonin

Follicoluar cells
Parafollicular cells
Hepatocytes
Colloid

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51
Q

Which pathology is indicated by this slide?

Graves
Addisons
Hashimotos
Cushings syndrome

A

Which pathology is indicated by this slide?

Graves
Addisons
Hashimotos
Cushings syndrome

Colloid not conspicuous & lymphocyte infiltration

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52
Q

Which pathology is indicated by this slide?

Graves
Addisons
Hashimotos
Cushings syndrome

A

Which pathology is indicated by this slide?

Graves
Addisons
Hashimotos
Cushings syndrome

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53
Q

Which of the following of A-C pictures of adrenal gland shows:

Cortical adenoma
Normal
Cortial hyperplasia

A

Which of the following of A-C pictures of adrenal gland shows:

A = Normal

B = Cortical adenoma

C = Cortial hyperplasia

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54
Q

What is the most common cause of Cushings syndrome? [1]

What is the second most common cause of Cushings syndrome? [1]

A

Most common: iatrogenic - adminstration of exogenous glucoscorticoids

Second most common: piutary ACTHsecreting adenoma

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55
Q

What s this patint most likely to bes suffering from?

Graves
Addisons
Hashimotos
Cushings syndrome

A

What s this patint most likely to bes suffering from?

Graves
Addisons
Hashimotos
Cushings syndrome

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56
Q

What is the pathology occurring in this liver slide?

Chronic viral hep C
Hepatitis
Acute hepatisis
Cirrhosis
Hepatocellular carcinoma

A

What is the pathology occurring in this liver slide?

Chronic viral hep C
Hepatitis
Acute hepatisis
Cirrhosis
Hepatocellular carcinoma

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57
Q

What is the pathology occurring in this liver slide?

Chronic viral hep C
Hepatitis
Acute hepatisis
Cirrhosis
Hepatocellular carcinoma

A

What is the pathology occurring in this liver slide?

Chronic viral hep C
Hepatitis
Acute hepatisis
Cirrhosis
Hepatocellular carcinoma

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58
Q

What is the pathology occurring in this liver slide?

Chronic viral hep C
Hepatitis
Acute hepatisis
Cirrhosis
Hepatocellular carcinoma

A

What is the pathology occurring in this liver slide?

Chronic viral hep C
Hepatitis
Acute hepatisis
Cirrhosis
Hepatocellular carcinoma

Disruption lobular architecture, Hepatocyte apoptosis, snusoids inflam

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59
Q

Which pathology is depicted here?

A
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60
Q

Liver cancer most malignant are metastases from primary tumour in []

A
  • Most malignant are metastases from primary tumour in another
    organ
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61
Q

Label A-C of hepatocellular slide

A

A: glandular arragne of adenocarcinoma cells

B: fibrous stroma with blood vessels and inflammatory cells

C: hepatocytes

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62
Q

The glomerular filtration barrier is made up of which three layers [3]

A
  1. podocytes barrier
  2. glomerular BM
  3. Fenestrated endothelium of capillary
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63
Q

Which renal pathology is depcited here?

Nephrotic syndrome
Nephritic syndrome
Minimal change disease
Membranous glomerulopathy
Diabetic glomerulonephropathy

A

Which renal pathology is depcited here?

Nephrotic syndrome
Nephritic syndrome
Minimal change disease
Membranous glomerulopathy
Diabetic glomerulonephropathy

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64
Q

Whats the basic difference between nephritic syndrome vs nerphrotic syndrome?

A

Nephritic syndrome: is a condition involving haematuria, mild to moderate proteinuria (typically less than 3.5g/L/day), hypertension, oliguria and red cell casts in the urine.

Nephrotic syndrome: is a condition involving the loss of significant volumes of protein via the kidneys (proteinuria) which results in hypoalbuminaemia. The definition of nephrotic syndrome includes both massive proteinuria (≥3.5 g/day) and hypoalbuminaemia (serum albumin ≤30 g/L). 1

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65
Q

Which renal pathology is depcited here?

Nephrotic syndrome
Nephritic syndrome
Minimal change disease
Membranous glomerulopathy
Diabetic glomerulonephropathy

A

Which renal pathology is depcited here?

Nephrotic syndrome
Nephritic syndrome
Minimal change disease
Membranous glomerulopathy
Diabetic glomerulonephropathy

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66
Q

Which renal pathology is depcited here?

Nephrotic syndrome
Nephritic syndrome
Minimal change disease
Membranous glomerulopathy
Diabetic glomerulonephropathy

A

Which renal pathology is depcited here?

Nephrotic syndrome
Nephritic syndrome
Minimal change disease
Membranous glomerulopathy
Diabetic glomerulonephropathy

Damage to the glomeruli allows proteins, such as albumin, to pass through into the nephron tubules and be lost in urine, giving rise to three clinical features that define NS:

Proteinuria (defined as loss of >3.5g of protein in urine over 24 hours);
Hypoalbuminaemia (<30g/L of albumin in the blood);
Peripheral oedema​[3]​.

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67
Q

Which renal pathology is depcited here?

Nephrotic syndrome
Nephritic syndrome
Minimal change disease
Membranous glomerulopathy
Diabetic glomerulonephropathy

A
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68
Q

Label A-C of the kidney

A

A: Capillary lumen
B: Mesengial cell
C: Capillary lumen

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69
Q

Label A-C of the kidney

A

A: Capillary lumen
B: Mesengial cell
C: Capillary lumen

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70
Q

Which of the following best describes the outline below:

Usually occursin chidlren under 6 years old after a respiratory infection or immunisation

Nephrotic syndrome
Nephritic syndrome
Minimal change disease
Membranous glomerulopathy
Diabetic glomerulonephropathy

A

Which of the following best describes the outline below:

Usually occursin chidlren under 6 years old after a respiratory infection or immunisation

Nephrotic syndrome
Nephritic syndrome
Minimal change disease
Membranous glomerulopathy
Diabetic glomerulonephropathy

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71
Q

Which renal pathology is depcited here?

Nephrotic syndrome
Nephritic syndrome
Minimal change disease
Membranous glomerulopathy
Diabetic glomerulonephropathy

A

Which renal pathology is depcited here?

Nephrotic syndrome
Nephritic syndrome
Minimal change disease
Membranous glomerulopathy
Diabetic glomerulonephropathy

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72
Q

Desrcibe the epithelial cell injury that occurs in minimal change disease [2]

A
  1. Process effacement: podocyte cell process flatten onto BM
  2. Results in leaky glomerular filtratration barrrier
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73
Q

Renal cell carcinoma often are derived from which cells within the kidney? [1]

A

Renal epithelial cells

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74
Q

What is the most common maligant bladder tumour? [1]

A

Transitional cell carcinoma

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75
Q

Name three specialisations of transitional cell epithelium [3]

A
  • thick plasma membrane + plaques
  • hinge like portions that allow rounding and flattening of the cells depending on distension
  • tight junctions between cells prohibit passage of water or other materials between cells
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76
Q

Label A-C of normal renal histology

A

A: collecting duct
B: thick descending limb
C: thick ascending limb

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77
Q

Label A-C of normal renal histology

A

A: collecting duct
B: thick descending limb
C: thick ascending limb

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78
Q

Label A-D of normal kidney histology

A

A: Bowmans space
B: Proximal tubules
C: Distal tubules
D: Glomerulus

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79
Q

Label A & B of normal kidney

A

A: distal tubules
B: collecting tubule

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80
Q

Which of the following is the PCT

A
B
C
D

A

Which of the following is the PCT

A
B: simple cuboidal with microvilli
C
D

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81
Q

Which of the following is the DCT

A
B
C
D

A

Which of the following is the DCT

A
B
C
D

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82
Q

Describe the histopatholigical changes seen in MI from:

Less than 1 day [1]
Less than 7 days [1]
1-3 week [1]
3-6 weeks [1]

A

Dsecribe the histopatholigical changes seen in MI from:

Less than 1 day [1]: coagulative necrosis

Less than 7 days [1]: acute inflammation

1-3 week [1]: granulatin

3-6 weeks [1]: scarring

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83
Q

How long after MI is the following slide depicted?

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

A

How long after MI is the following slide depicted?

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week granulation occuring
3-6 weeks

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84
Q

How long after MI is the following slide depicted?

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

A

How long after MI is the following slide depicted?

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks: scarring

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85
Q

MI Histological changes:

Coagulative necrosis occurs in about:

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

A

MI Histological changes:

Coagulative necrosis occurs in about:

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

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86
Q

MI Histological changes:

Myofibers begin to disintegrate; dying neutrophil; macrophages phagocytose necrotic cells

occurs in about:

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

A

MI Histological changes:

Myofibers begin to disintegrate; dying neutrophil; macrophages phagocytose necrotic cells

occurs in about:

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

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87
Q

MI Histological changes:

Increased collagen deposition and decreased cellularity

occurs in about:

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

A

MI Histological changes:

Increased collagen deposition and decreased cellularity

occurs in about:

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

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88
Q

MI Histologica changes:

Well-formed granulation tissue with neovascularization and collagen deposit

Occurs in about:
Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

A

MI Histologica changes:

Well-formed granulation tissue with neovascularization and collagen deposit

Occurs in about:

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

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89
Q

marked by a shift from pro-inflammatory cells to apoptotic neutrophils and phagocytic macrophages &
Macrophages phagocytose the dying neutrophils as well as the necrotic tissue debris

A
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90
Q

How many days post-infarct does the following occur:

  • marked by a shift from pro-inflammatory cells to apoptotic neutrophils and phagocytic macrophages
  • Macrophages phagocytose the dying neutrophils as well as the necrotic tissue debris

Occurs in about:

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

A

How many days post-infarct does the following occur:

  • marked by a shift from pro-inflammatory cells to apoptotic neutrophils and phagocytic macrophages
  • Macrophages phagocytose the dying neutrophils as well as the necrotic tissue debris

Occurs in about:

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

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91
Q

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

A

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

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92
Q

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

A

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day coagulative necrosis
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

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93
Q

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

A

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week granulation occurring
3-6 weeks

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94
Q

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

A

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks scarring occurring

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95
Q

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

A

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days 1-2 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

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96
Q

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

A

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

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97
Q

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

A

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week granulation
3-6 weeks

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98
Q

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

A

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

** Less than 1 day** coagualtive necrosis
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

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99
Q

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

A

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days accute inflam
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

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100
Q

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

A

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks scarring

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101
Q

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

A

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week granulation
3-6 weeks

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102
Q

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

A

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day coagulative necrosis
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

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103
Q

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

A

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

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104
Q

Summary of MI histology?

A
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105
Q

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

A

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

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106
Q

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

A

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day (12 hours)
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

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107
Q

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

A

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

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108
Q

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

A

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

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109
Q

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

A

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks scarring

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110
Q

Which pathology usually occurs after pharyngeal A streptococcal infection? [1]

A

Rheumatic fever

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111
Q

Rheumatic fever is histologically identifiable which structures? [1]

A

Aschoffs bodies

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112
Q

Which of the following of A-C are:

Rheumatic mitral stenosis
Normal
Ashoff bodies

A

A: Normal
B: Ashoff bodies
C: Rheumatic mitral stenosis

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113
Q

Descibe what aschoff bodies are [2] and where they are found [1]

A

Aschoff are nodular inflammatory lesions found in the CT of the myocardium.
Aschoff bodies are areas of necrosis and large distinctive macrophages

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114
Q

Aschoff bodies may collect at the [] valve toc cause rheumatic [] stenosis.

A

Aschoff bodies may collect at the mitral valve toc cause rheumatic mitral stenosis.

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115
Q

Which substance is synthesised in the middle of theses structures?

A

Thyroglobulin (stores and secretes T3 & T4)

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116
Q

Which thyroid disease is depicted here? [1]

A

Hashimoto Thyroiditis

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117
Q

Label A-B of the parathyroid gland

A

A: Chief cells
B: oxyphil cells

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118
Q

Label A-D of the adrenal gland

A

A = zona glomerulosa, B = zona fasciculata, C = zona reticularis.
D = Medulla.

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119
Q

What is this depcited in pancreas?

A

Islet of Langerhans

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120
Q

Which cells have been stained in the islet of langerhans

Alpha cells
Beta cells
Delta cells
PP cells

A

Which cells have been stained in the islet of langerhans

Alpha cells
Beta cells : most abundant
Delta cells
PP cells

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121
Q

Which of the following are the majority of the endcorine cells in islet of langerhans?

Alpha cells
Beta cells
Delta cells
PP cells

A

Which of the following are the majority of the endcorine cells in islet of langerhans?

Alpha cells
Beta cells
Delta cells
PP cells

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122
Q

Which thyroid disease is depicted here? [1]

A

Graves

Follicular cells are taller and have larger nuclei.
Increased colloid use to produce T4 causes scalloping (S on right image).
Increased collide use also reduces the size of follicles.

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123
Q

Label A-F of the kidney

A
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124
Q

What do the arrows [1] and asterixes [1] depict of the kidney

A

Arrows: Renal corpsucles
*: collecting ducts

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125
Q

Label A & B of renal parenchyma

A

A: podocytes
B: basement membrane

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126
Q

Which of the following is the DCT and PCT? [2]

A

A: DCT
B: PCT

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127
Q

Which of the following is the DCT and PCT? [2]

A

Arrows: PCT
Arrowheads: DCT

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128
Q

Which is the loop of henle and which is the collecting duct?

A

C = CD
B: LoH

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129
Q

Label A-D of the ureter

A

A: transitional epithelium
B: LP
C: muscualris mucosa
D: adventitia

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130
Q

Label A-C of ureter

A

A: transitional epithelium
B: LP
C: muscularis

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131
Q

Label A-D of liver

A
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132
Q

What type of liver cancer is depicted here?

Metastatic adenocarcinoma
Hepatic carcinoma

A

What type of liver cancer is depicted here?

Metastatic adenocarcinoma
Hepatic carcinoma

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133
Q

What type of liver cancer is depicted here?

Metastatic adenocarcinoma
Hepatic carcinoma

A

What type of liver cancer is depicted here?

Metastatic adenocarcinoma
Hepatic carcinoma

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134
Q

What type of liver cancer is depicted here?

Metastatic adenocarcinoma
Hepatic carcinoma

A

What type of liver cancer is depicted here?

Metastatic adenocarcinoma
Hepatic carcinoma

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135
Q

Glial cells in the pituitary stalk are called WHAT? [1]

A

Pituicytes

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136
Q

A 35-year-old is noted to be pale and bruise easily. A blood test is organised by the GP.

WBC 6.0 x 109/L
Neutrophils 0.9 x 109/L

Which of the following leukaemias is most commonly associated with this blood finding?

Acute lymphocytic leukaemia
Acute myeloid leukaemia
Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
Chronic myeloid leukaemia
Hairy cell leukaemia

A

A 35-year-old is noted to be pale and bruise easily. A blood test is organised by the GP.

WBC 6.0 x 109/L
Neutrophils 0.9 x 109/L

Which of the following leukaemias is most commonly associated with this blood finding?

Acute lymphocytic leukaemia
Acute myeloid leukaemia
Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
Chronic myeloid leukaemia
Hairy cell leukaemia

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137
Q

Which of the following is the PCT?

A
B
C
D
E

A

Which of the following is the PCT?

A
B
C
D
E

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138
Q

Which of the following is the mesengial cell?

A
B
C
D
E

A

Which of the following is the PCT?

A
B
C
D
E

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139
Q

Which of the following is the podocyte?

A
B
C
D
E

A

Which of the following is the podocyte?

A
B
C
D
E

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140
Q

Which of the following is the bowmans space?

A
B
C
D
E

A

Which of the following is the bowmans space?

A
B
C
D
E

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141
Q

The endothelial cells in renal corpsucle are:

continuous
discontinuous
fenestrated

A

The endothelial cells in renal corpsucle are:

continuous
discontinuous
fenestrated

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142
Q

Label A-E of renal corpsucle

A

A: podocyte
B: Bowmans space
C: Foot process (of podocytes)
D: basement membrane
E: endothelial cell

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143
Q

Label A-C

A

A: PCT
B: thin limb
C: thick ascending

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144
Q

Label A&B

A

A: PCT
B: DCT

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145
Q

Label A&B

A

A: DCT
B: PCT

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146
Q

Label A-C

A

A: PCT
B: mesengial cells
C: DCT

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147
Q
A
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148
Q
A
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149
Q
A
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150
Q

Label A&B

A

A: DCT
B: PCT

151
Q
A

Proximal convoluted tubule

Note the darker-stained cytoplasm and that fewer nuclei are visible. Also, microvilli in the lumen give the shaggy appearance on apical surface of the epithelial cells. Primary function is reabsorption of water, salts and small organic molecules (sugars, amino acids, etc.).

152
Q
A

Contract logitudinally

153
Q
A

Transitional

154
Q
A

Smooth muscle. Contracts to expel urine from the bladder. Smooth muscle layers are arranged in multiple directions in the bladder whereas the layers in the ureter have more defined orientations.

155
Q
A

Smooth muscle. Contracts to expel urine from the bladder. Smooth muscle layers are arranged in multiple directions in the bladder whereas the layers in the ureter have more defined orientations.

156
Q
A

PCT

157
Q
A

PCT

158
Q

Identify the structure indicated by the black arrow.

An interlobar artery
An interlobar vein
An arcuate artery
An arcuate vein
An interlobular artery
An interlobular vein

A

Identify the structure indicated by the black arrow.

An interlobar artery
An interlobar vein
An arcuate artery
An arcuate vein
An interlobular artery
An interlobular vein

159
Q
A
160
Q
  1. Which of the indicated tubules is generally the MOST permeable to water?

A
B
C
D
E

A

A
B
C
D
E
Answer
Correct answer 5. (E) Proximal convoluted tubules are lined by epithelial cells that constitutively express aquaporin channels and are therefore generally the MOST permeable to water. “A” is a proximal straight tubule. “B” is a distal straight tubule. “C” is a cortical collecting duct, which, under the influence of ADH, can become water permeable, but not to the same extent as a proximal convoluted tubule (A, B, and C are all in a medullary ray). “D” is a distal convoluted tubule.

161
Q
  1. Which statement(s) is/are correct about transitional epithelium?

It is found only in the ureters and bladder.
It is freely permeable to water.
It is freely permeable to salt ions.
ALL of the above statements are correct.
NONE of the above statements are correct.

A
  1. Which statement(s) is/are correct about transitional epithelium?

It is found only in the ureters and bladder.
It is freely permeable to water.
It is freely permeable to salt ions.
ALL of the above statements are correct.
NONE of the above statements are correct.

Correct answer E. NONE OF THE ABOVE. Transitional epithelium is also found in the calyxes of the kidney and the superior urethra. It is completely impermeable to water and salt.

162
Q
  1. Which of the labeled ultrastructural features most significantly impedes the passage of negatively charged molecules?

A
B
C
D

A
  1. Which of the labeled ultrastructural features most significantly impedes the passage of negatively charged molecules?

A
B
C
D

Correct answer 4. (D). The lamina rara interna and externa contain an extensive amount of negatively charged proteoglycans which therefore REPELS negatively charged molecules and impede their passage into the urine filtrate.

163
Q
  1. Which of the labeled ultrastructural features most significantly impedes the passage of negatively charged molecules?

A
B
C
D

A
  1. Which of the labeled ultrastructural features most significantly impedes the passage of negatively charged molecules?

A
B
C
D

Correct answer 4. (D). The lamina rara interna and externa contain an extensive amount of negatively charged proteoglycans which therefore REPELS negatively charged molecules and impede their passage into the urine filtrate.

164
Q

What typpe of infection causes this histopathology? [1]

A

Cytomegalovirus

165
Q

Which fetal pathology is depcited here?

Explain the pathology

A

Hyaline membrane disease

Clinically manifests as neonatal respiratory
distress syndrome (RDS)

Formation of membranes in the peripheral
airways (fibrin & cellular debris)

Deficiency of pulmonary surfactant

166
Q
A

Serosal Petechiae
Focal lung haemorrhage
Acute stress in thymus
Extramedullary haemopoiesis
Mild URTI.

167
Q

Which causative agent most likely caused this pneumonia? [1]

Cytomegalovirus
Parainfluenza virus
Respiratory syncytial virus
Adenovirus

A

Which causative agent most likely caused this pneumonia? [1]

Cytomegalovirus
Parainfluenza virus
Respiratory syncytial virus - Multinucleated giant cells can be seen within the bronchial epithelium and neighboring alveoli.
Adenovirus

168
Q

What type of virus caused this lung infection? [1]

A

RSV

. Multinucleated giant cell (MNGC) of respiratory syncytial virus infection
demonstrating a large intracytoplasmic inclusion (arrow); (H&E, 1000 ). MNGCs
are more commonly seen within alveoli than within bronchioles.

169
Q

What is the most common type of breast cancer? [1]

A

Invasive ductal carcinoma

170
Q

Desribe pathophysiology of invasive ductal carcinoma [1]

A

when BM breached and malignant cells try to create small ducts - get sheets of cells penetrating the SMC & stroma

171
Q

Describe the pathology of invasive lobular carcinoma [1]

A

get sheets of cells penetrating the SMC & stroma
Malignant cells form single file lines or single cells
Often show vacuoles within cytoplasm

172
Q

What is the structure highlighted? [1]

Describe the cells surrounding it [2]

A

Lactiferous Duct - each lobe is drained by a single lactiferous duct that opens into the nipple. It is lined by a double layer of cuboidal or columnar cells surrounded by a sheath of connective tissue with myoid cells.

173
Q

Difference between lactating and non-lactating mammory glands histoligically

A

R: Lactating

174
Q

What type of breast cancer is depicted? [1]

A

classic invasive lobular carcinoma

175
Q

What type of breast cancer is depicted? [1]

A

ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)

176
Q

What type of breast cancer is depicted? [1]

A

DCIS

177
Q

What alteration to the breast tissue has occured? [1]

A

Figure 2 – Histology showing ductal carcinoma in-situ (DCIS), demonstrating the malignant cells confined to the mammary ducts

178
Q

What type of pathology is depicted in this breast tissue?

Invasive ductal carcinoma
DCIS
Invasive lobular carnicoma

A

What type of pathology is depicted in this breast tissue?

Invasive ductal carcinoma
DCIS
Invasive lobular carnicoma

179
Q

What type of pathology is depicted in this breast tissue?

Invasive ductal carcinoma
DCIS
Invasive lobular carnicoma

A

What type of pathology is depicted in this breast tissue?

Invasive ductal carcinoma
DCIS
Invasive lobular carnicoma

180
Q

Which change to breast tissue is depicted here

Cysts
DCIS
Fibroadenoma
Sclerosing adenosis
Apocrine metaplasia

A

Which change to breast tissue is depicted here

Cysts
DCIS
Fibroadenoma
Sclerosing adenosis
Apocrine metaplasia

Apocrine metaplasia with eosinophilic cytoplasm and apical snouts involving dilated cysts. Notice the transition from single to multiple layered epithelium to true papillary configuration in the same cystic space.

181
Q

Which change to breast tissue is depicted here

Cysts
DCIS
Fibroadenoma
Sclerosing adenosis
Apocrine metaplasia

A

Which change to breast tissue is depicted here

Cysts
DCIS
Fibroadenoma
Sclerosing adenosis
Apocrine metaplasia - abundant eosinophilic granular cytoplasm, prominent nucleolus and apocrine snouts.

182
Q

What change to breast tissue is depicted here? [1]

A

Microcalcifications tend to be less common in fibrocystic change than in carcinoma. They tend to be coarse and irregular.

183
Q

Which change to breast tissue is depicted here

Cysts
DCIS
Fibroadenoma
Sclerosing adenosis
Apocrine metaplasia

A

Which change to breast tissue is depicted here

Cysts
DCIS
Fibroadenoma
Sclerosing adenosis
Apocrine metaplasia

Some of the larger cysts in fibrocystic change may have a bluish appearance from outside (blue-domed cysts). The cyst lining is flattened or absent in some cases. In the center of this image, cysts are lined by apocrine epithelium. Note the focus of adenosis above it.

184
Q

Which change to breast tissue is depicted here

Cysts
DCIS
Fibroadenoma
Sclerosing adenosis
Apocrine metaplasia

A

Which change to breast tissue is depicted here

Cysts
DCIS
Fibroadenoma
Sclerosing adenosis
Apocrine metaplasia

Sclerosing adenosis is a benign hyperplastic process that may be mistaken for carcinoma. The average age at presentation is about 30 yrs. The lesion retains is lobular configuration and is more cellular centrally.

185
Q

Which change to breast tissue is depicted here

Cysts
DCIS
Fibroadenoma
Sclerosing adenosis
Apocrine metaplasia

A

Which change to breast tissue is depicted here

Cysts
DCIS
Fibroadenoma
Sclerosing adenosis
Apocrine metaplasia

The proliferating tubules may be elongated and have attenuated lumens. There is preferential preservation of myoepithelial cells in the tubules and epithelial cells are less conspicuous. Some degree of lobular fibrosis is usually present.

186
Q

Which change to breast tissue is depicted here

Cysts
DCIS
Fibroadenoma
Sclerosing adenosis
Apocrine metaplasia

A

Which change to breast tissue is depicted here

Cysts
DCIS
Fibroadenoma
The tubules and glands in a fibroadenoma are lined by cuboidal or low columnar epithelium with uniform nuclei and surrounded by a myoepithelial layer. The stroma is made up of loose connective tissue. If the stroma is hypercellular, the diagnosis of phyllodes tumor should be excluded.

Sclerosing adenosis
Apocrine metaplasia

187
Q

Which change to breast tissue is depicted here

Cysts
DCIS
Fibroadenoma
Sclerosing adenosis
Apocrine metaplasia

A

Which change to breast tissue is depicted here

Cysts
DCIS
Fibroadenoma
Sclerosing adenosis
Apocrine metaplasia

Higher magnification view of intracanalicular pattern in a fibroadenoma. The stromal connective tissue invaginates into the glandular epithelium and appears to be contained within it.

188
Q

Which breast pathology is depicted here? [1]

A

Lobular carcinoma-in-situ (LCIS) is a non-palpable lesion which is usually an incidental finding in breasts removed for other reasons. It is multicentric in 70% of cases and bilateral in 30% to 40% of cases. The lobules are distended with uniform round or oval, medium sized cells. The nuclei are uniform and normochromatic. This image shows LCIS involving several lobules. A few uninvolved lobules can be seen on the right.

189
Q

What is this breast pathology depicted? [1]

A

Ductal carcinoma in situ

The tumor cells with high nuclear grade nearly fill the lumen in this example of DCIS. The cytoplasmic borders are sharply demarcated.

190
Q

What breast pathology is depicted here [1]

A

High power view of cribriform DCIS showing microcalcifications.

191
Q

What breast pathology is depicted here? [1]

A

This case of high-grade invasive ductal carcinoma was composed mostly of solid areas, showed no evidence of tubule formation and was assigned score of 3 for tubule formation.

192
Q

Which of the these photos is invasive ductal or invasive lobular breast cancer? [2]

A

L: invasive ductal carcinoma showed tubule formation
R: Invasive lobular carcinoma The tumor cells are arranged in slender linear strands one to two cells across

193
Q

Which of the these photos is invasive ductal or invasive lobular breast cancer? [2]

A

R: invasive ductal carcinoma showed tubule formation
L: Invasive lobular carcinoma

194
Q

Which pathology is depicted using immunohistocomplex staining?

IgA nephropathy
Membranous change disease
DIabetic nephropathy
Glomerulosclerosis

A

Which pathology is depicted using immunohistocomplex staining?

IgA nephropathy
Membranous change disease
DIabetic nephropathy
Glomerulosclerosis

195
Q

Which pathology is depicted using immunohistocomplex staining?

IgA nephropathy
Membranous change disease
DIabetic nephropathy
Glomerulosclerosis

A

Which pathology is depicted using immunohistocomplex staining?

IgA nephropathy Proliferation and hypercellularity of the mesangium is seen in the glomerulus
Membranous change disease
DIabetic nephropathy
Glomerulosclerosis

196
Q

Which pathology is depicted in this histology slide?

IgA nephropathy
Membranous change disease
DIabetic nephropathy
Glomerulosclerosis

A

Which pathology is depicted using immunohistocomplex staining?

IgA nephropathy
Membranous change disease
DIabetic nephropathy Staining of the lipohyaline caps with periodic acid Schiff stain. Note the subendothelial location of the deposits filling the capillary lumina.

197
Q

Which pathology is depicted in this histology slide?

IgA nephropathy
Membranous change disease
DIabetic nephropathy
Glomerulosclerosis

A

Which pathology is depicted using immunohistocomplex staining?

IgA nephropathy
Membranous change disease
DIabetic nephropathy - note the Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules
Glomerulosclerosis

198
Q

Which pathology is depicted in this histology slide ?

IgA nephropathy
Membranous change disease
DIabetic nephropathy
Glomerulosclerosis

A

Which pathology is depicted using immunohistocomplex staining?

IgA nephropathy - mesengial hypercellulairty
Membranous change disease
DIabetic nephropathy
Glomerulosclerosis

199
Q

Which pathology is depicted using slide?

IgA nephropathy
Membranous change disease
DIabetic nephropathy
Glomerulosclerosis

A

Which pathology is depicted using immunohistocomplex staining?

IgA nephropathy
Membranous change disease
DIabetic nephropathy
Glomerulosclerosis

200
Q

Which part is AP and PP? [2]

A
201
Q

Which AP cells are which on the masson trichrome? [2]

A
202
Q

Posterior Pit:

A
203
Q

Label A of PP

A

Herring Bodies

204
Q
A

Identify the clusters of chief cells (CC), which secrete PTH. Also, identify oxyphil cells (OC), which are larger and paler staining than the chief cells.

205
Q

Label A-C of the liver

A
206
Q

Which liver pathology is occurring here? [1]

A

cholestasis

207
Q

What is this adrenal histopathology depicted? [1]

A

Pheochromocytoma

208
Q

Label A-C

A
209
Q

Label A-C

A
210
Q

Label A-C

A
211
Q
A
212
Q

The gap between the endothelium and the hepatocytes is called WHAT? [1]

A

The gap between the endothelium and the hepatocytes = space of Disse

213
Q
A
214
Q

Canaliculi are joined by which type of junctions between adjacent hepatocytes?

Gap junctions
Desmosomes
Fascia Adherens
Tight junctions

A

Canaliculi are joined by which type of junctions between adjacent hepatocytes?

Gap junctions
Desmosomes
Fascia Adherens
Tight junctions

215
Q

Label A&B

A
216
Q

Name this liver disease [1]

A

steatosis

217
Q

A 60 year old man was admitted with massive hematemesis and hypovolemic shock. He failed to respond to resuscitation. Postmortem examination revealed a liver shown as above. What is the most likely cause of his massive gastrointestinal bleeding?

Acute gastritis
Aortoesophageal fistula
Esophageal varices
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Peptic ulcer

A

A 60 year old man was admitted with massive hematemesis and hypovolemic shock. He failed to respond to resuscitation. Postmortem examination revealed a liver shown as above. What is the most likely cause of his massive gastrointestinal bleeding?

Acute gastritis
Aortoesophageal fistula
Esophageal varices
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Peptic ulcer

218
Q

What is this liver pathology? [1]

A

cirrhosis

219
Q

What is this liver pathology? [1]

A
220
Q

What is this liver pathology?

A

Chronic cholecystitis characterized by gallbladder wall thickening secondary to muscularis hypertrophy, with a dilated Rokitansky-Aschoff sinus and adjacent transmural lymphoid aggregate.

221
Q

What is this liver histology? [1]

A
222
Q

?

A

anterior pit

223
Q
A
224
Q

Which AP cells are which on the masson trichrome? [2]

A
225
Q

Posterior Pit:

A
226
Q

What are herring bodies and pituicytes in PP? [2]

A
  • Herring bodies = focal axonal swellings packed with secretory granules
  • Pituicyte = glial cells of the pituitary = nuclei that are visible
227
Q
A
228
Q

Label A of PP

A

Herring Bodies

229
Q
A
230
Q
A
231
Q

Which adrenal cortex zone is this? [1]
What does it secrete? [1]

A

Zona fasciculata (tell by the lipid nature)
Secretes: glucorticoids such as cortisol

232
Q

Which adrenal cortex zone is this? [1]
What does it secrete? [1]

A

Zona reticularis (dark staining)
secretes sex hormones: oestrogen and testosterone

233
Q

Which adrenal cortex zone is this? [1]
What does it secrete? [1]

A

Zona glomerulosa: aldosterone

234
Q

Label A-C

A

A: zona glomerulosa
B: zona reticularis
C: zona fasciculata

235
Q

What do each of the following produce:

zona glomerulosa
zona fasciculata
zona reticularis

A

What do each of the following produce:

zona glomerulosa: aldosterone
zona fasciculata: cortisol
zona reticularis: oestrogen and testosterone

236
Q

graLabel A

A

Central vein

237
Q

How can you tell the difference between which cells secrete adrenaline and noradrenaline in adenal medulla? [2]

A

N: darker
A: lighter

238
Q
A
239
Q
A
240
Q

Label A1 and A2 B C

A

A1: Follicles
A2: colloid (and a central mass of follicles)
B: Follicular epithelial cells
C: LCT

241
Q

What substance do parafollicular cells (C-cells) produce and what function does this cause? [2]

A

Secrete calcitonin: decreases Ca2+ levels

242
Q

FYI

A

Normal Thyroid on left
Graves on right: Clear vacuoles in colloid next to epithelium where increased activity of epithelium has used colloid to make thyroid hormone

243
Q
A

A: chief cells
B: oxyphil cells

244
Q
A
245
Q
A

Identify the clusters of chief cells (CC), which secrete PTH. Also, identify oxyphil cells (OC), which are larger and paler staining than the chief cells.

246
Q

Where do you find alpha cells, beta cells and delta cells in islet of Langerhans?

A

Alpha: periperhy
Beta: Centre
Delta: scattered

247
Q

What type of follicle is this?
Explain why

  1. Primordial follicle
  2. Early Primary Follicle
  3. Late Primary Follicle
  4. Secondary Follicle
  5. Tertiary / Graffian Follicle
  6. Corpus luteum
  7. Corpus albican
A

What type of follicle is this?
Explain why

1. Primordial follicle
2. Early Primary Follicle
3. Late Primary Follicle
4. Secondary Follicle
5. Tertiary / Graffian Follicle
6. Corpus luteum
7. Corpus albican

single layer of squamous follicular cells

248
Q

What type of follicle is this?
Explain why
3. 1. Primordial follicle
2. Early Primary Follicle
3. Late Primary Follicle
4. Secondary Follicle
5. Tertiary / Graffian Follicle
6. Corpus luteum
7. Corpus albican

A

What type of follicle is this?
Explain why
3. 1. Primordial follicle
2. Early Primary Follicle
3. Late Primary Follicle
4. Secondary Follicle
5. Tertiary / Graffian Follicle
6. Corpus luteum
7. Corpus albican

3 layers; Zona granulosa thickens & ZP develops

249
Q

What type of follicle is this?
Explain why
3. 1. Primordial follicle
2. Early Primary Follicle
3. Late Primary Follicle
4. Secondary Follicle
5. Tertiary / Graffian Follicle
6. Corpus luteum
7. Corpus albican

A

What type of follicle is this?
Explain why
3. 1. Primordial follicle
2. Early Primary Follicle
3. Late Primary Follicle
4. Secondary Follicle
5. Tertiary / Graffian Follicle
6. Corpus luteum
7. Corpus albican

250
Q

Label A-E of this tertiary follicle

A

A: zona pellcuida
B: corona radiata
C: Antrum
D: oocyte
E: zona granulosa

251
Q

What type of follicle is this?
Explain why
3. 1. Primordial follicle
2. Early Primary Follicle
3. Late Primary Follicle
4. Secondary Follicle
5. Tertiary / Graffian Follicle
6. Corpus luteum
7. Corpus albican

A

What type of follicle is this?
Explain why
3. 1. Primordial follicle
2. Early Primary Follicle
3. Late Primary Follicle
4. Secondary Follicle
5. Tertiary / Graffian Follicle
6. Corpus luteum
7. Corpus albican

Increase n layers of zona granulosa
Thicker zona pellucida
Larger oocyte

252
Q

What type of follicle is this?
Explain why
3. 1. Primordial follicle
2. Early Primary Follicle
3. Late Primary Follicle
4. Secondary Follicle
5. Tertiary / Graffian Follicle
6. Corpus luteum
7. Corpus albican

A

What type of follicle is this?
Explain why
3. 1. Primordial follicle
2. Early Primary Follicle
3. Late Primary Follicle
4. Secondary Follicle
5. Tertiary / Graffian Follicle
6. Corpus luteum
7. Corpus albican

253
Q

What type of follicle is this?
Explain why
3. 1. Primordial follicle
2. Early Primary Follicle
3. Late Primary Follicle
4. Secondary Follicle
5. Tertiary / Graffian Follicle
6. Corpus luteum
7. Corpus albican

A

What type of follicle is this?
Explain why
3. 1. Primordial follicle
2. Early Primary Follicle
3. Late Primary Follicle
4. Secondary Follicle
5. Tertiary / Graffian Follicle
6. Corpus luteum
7. Corpus albican

254
Q

What type of follicle is this?
Explain why
3. 1. Primordial follicle
2. Early Primary Follicle
3. Late Primary Follicle
4. Secondary Follicle
5. Tertiary / Graffian Follicle
6. Corpus luteum
7. Corpus albican

A

What type of follicle is this?
Explain why
3. 1. Primordial follicle
2. Early Primary Follicle
3. Late Primary Follicle
4. Secondary Follicle
5. Tertiary / Graffian Follicle
6. Corpus luteum - blood clot present
7. Corpus albican

255
Q

What type of follicle is this?
Explain why
3. 1. Primordial follicle
2. Early Primary Follicle
3. Late Primary Follicle
4. Secondary Follicle
5. Tertiary / Graffian Follicle
6. Corpus luteum
7. Corpus albican

A

What type of follicle is this?
Explain why
3. 1. Primordial follicle
2. Early Primary Follicle
3. Late Primary Follicle
4. Secondary Follicle
5. Tertiary / Graffian Follicle
6. Corpus luteum - blood clot present
7. Corpus albican

256
Q

Label A-E of the ovary

A

A: antral follicle
B: cortex
C HIlus
D: medulla
E: corpus luteum

257
Q

What type of follicle is this? [1]

A

Graffian follicle.

258
Q

What type of follicle is this? [1]

A

Corpus albicans

259
Q

What type of follicle is this? [1]

A

Secondary Follicle

260
Q

What type of follicle is this? [1]
Label A & B [2]

A

A: Zona pellucida
B: Follicular cells

261
Q
A
262
Q
A

A: theca cells / theca interna
B: zona pellucida
C: follicular antrum
D: cumulus cells
E: granulosa cells

263
Q

Label A-D

A

A: granulosa cells
B: secondary oocyte
C: corona radiata
D: zona pellucida

264
Q

What type of luteal cells are A & B? [2]

A

A: granulosa luteal cells
B: theca luteal cells

265
Q

Label the phase of each uterine cycle the endometrium is in [4]

A
266
Q

Corpus luteum:

A

Theca lutein cells. They synthesize progesterone.

267
Q
A

Late proliferative - note extensive glands that do not appear saw-toothed and do not contain secretions in their lumen. Estradiol would predominate in this phase.

268
Q
A

Graafian follicle

269
Q
A

Atretic follicle

270
Q
A

Corona radiata
Zona pellucida
Plasma membrane

271
Q
A

Oestrogen & progesterone (corpus luteum)

272
Q
A

Primary follicle

273
Q
A

secretory (looks saw toothed)

274
Q

What do cells of cervical neoplasm looked like compared to non-neoplastic cells? [1]

A

arked nuclear atypia and enlargement compared with surrounding intermediate cells

275
Q

what level of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) is depicted? [1]

A

CIN III: diffuse basal / parabasal type, no maturation difference across all layers

276
Q

what level of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) is depicted? [1]

A

CIN I: dysplastic cells are confined to the lower third of the epithelium

277
Q

what level of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) is depicted? [1]

A

CIN II: dysplastic cells are distributed in the upper third of the epithelium in addition to lower third

278
Q

what level of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) is depicted? [1]

A

CIN III

279
Q

Which of A & B is fibroids and endometrial cancer? [1]

A

A: fibroids
B: endometrial cancer

280
Q

What type of follicle is this? [1]

A

primordial

281
Q

What type of follicle is this? [1]

A

Secondary

282
Q

What type of follicle is this? [1]

A

Corpus albicans

283
Q

Which phase of the menstrual cycle is this endometrial slide taken from? [1]

A

Menstrual

284
Q

What are the name of these arteries depcited in the endometrium? [1]

A

spiral arteries

285
Q

Which phase of the menstrual cycle is this endometrial slide taken from? [1]

A

proliferative stage

286
Q

A baby was born at 27/40. She was given three doses of surfactant and ventilated. On day 4, a chest x-ray showed ‘solid’ lungs. The photomicrograph shows

  1. hyaline membrane disease
  2. normal lung for this age
  3. pneumonia
  4. pneumothorax
  5. pneumopericardium
  6. intraventricular haemmorhage
A

A baby was born at 27/40. She was given three doses of surfactant and ventilated. On day 4, a chest x-ray showed ‘solid’ lungs. The photomicrograph shows

1. hyaline membrane disease
2. normal lung for this age
3. pneumonia
4. pneumothorax
5. pneumopericardium
6. intraventricular haemmorhage

287
Q

The photomicrograph shows

  1. normal prostate
  2. prostatic adenocarcinoma
  3. normal testis
  4. papillary serous tumour of the testis
  5. transitional cell carcinoma
A

The photomicrograph shows

1. normal prostate
2. prostatic adenocarcinoma
3. normal testis
4. papillary serous tumour of the testis
5. transitional cell carcinoma

288
Q

A 24 year old man presented to his GP complaining of a lump in the right testis. The patient was referred to his local urology department and underwent a right orchidectomy. In
this histopathology specimen of the tissue, the arrow indicates

  1. seminomatous tumour cells
  2. non-seminomatous tumour cells
  3. lymphocytes
  4. papillary serous carcinoma
  5. Sertoli cell tumour cells
A

A 24 year old man presented to his GP complaining of a lump in the right testis. The patient was referred to his local urology department and underwent a right orchidectomy. In
this histopathology specimen of the tissue, the arrow indicates

1. seminomatous tumour cells
2. non-seminomatous tumour cells
3. lymphocytes
4. papillary serous carcinoma
5. Sertoli cell tumour cells

289
Q

A 4 year old boy is brought to the physician by his mother due to a 5 week history of lethargy, a progressively enlarging left sided neck mass and a 5 day onset of unexplainable bilateral diffuse lower leg petechial hemorrhage. On exam, the left posterior cervical lymph node is enlarged and nontender to palpation. A lymph node biopsy shows a predominance of interfollicular infiltrate containing numerous blast cells and focal necrosis. Immunohistochemistry is positive for PAX5, CD10 and TdT. Upon further workup, which of the following translocations would be associated with a good prognosis?

t(12;21)
t(14;18)
t(8;14)
t(9;22)

A

A 4 year old boy is brought to the physician by his mother due to a 5 week history of lethargy, a progressively enlarging left sided neck mass and a 5 day onset of unexplainable bilateral diffuse lower leg petechial hemorrhage. On exam, the left posterior cervical lymph node is enlarged and nontender to palpation. A lymph node biopsy shows a predominance of interfollicular infiltrate containing numerous blast cells and focal necrosis. Immunohistochemistry is positive for PAX5, CD10 and TdT. Upon further workup, which of the following translocations would be associated with a good prognosis?

t(12;21) - pre B ALL
t(14;18)
t(8;14)
t(9;22)

290
Q

Which hormone triggers the change from A to B?

LH
Oestrogen
FSH
Progesterone

A

Which hormone triggers the change from A to B?

LH
Oestrogen
FSH
Progesterone

291
Q

Which of the following is oestrogen produced in?

A
B
C
D
E

A

Which of the following is oestrogen produced in?

A
B - granulosa cells
C
D
E

292
Q

The endometrial lesion in the image above is most likely associated with which of the following ovarian tumors?

Fibroma
Granulosa cell tumor
Immature teratoma
Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor
Yolk sac tumor

A

The endometrial lesion in the image above is most likely associated with which of the following ovarian tumors?

Fibroma
Granulosa cell tumor
Immature teratoma
Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor
Yolk sac tumor

293
Q

What type of cancer is depicted in this histopathological slide?

Ovarian
Cervical
Endometrial
Vesical

A

What type of cancer is depicted in this histopathological slide?

Ovarian
Cervical
**Endometrial **
Vesical

294
Q

Label A-C

A

A: Semineferous tubules
B: Tunica albuginea
C: Epididymis

295
Q
A
296
Q

The male urethra is lined by what type of cell? [1]
How does this change when it reaches the opening? [1]

A

Urethra is lined with transitional epithelium
But at its opening changes to a stratified squamous epithelium

297
Q

Label A-F

A
298
Q

Label A-C

A
299
Q

What is wrong with this testis slide? [1]

A

Nothing: prepubertal

300
Q
A
301
Q

Which part of the male reproductive tract is this? [1]

A

epididymis

302
Q

Which part of the male reproductive tract is this? [1]

A

Vas deferens

303
Q

Which part of the male reproductive tract is this? [1]

A

Seminal vesicle

304
Q

Which part of the male reproductive tract does this histology slide depict? [1]

Seminal vesicle
Prostate
Vas deferens
Epididymus
Seminiferous tubule

A

Which part of the male reproductive tract does this histology slide depict? [1]

Seminal vesicle
Prostate
Vas deferens
Epididymus
Seminiferous tubule

305
Q

Name and descirbe the role of A [2]

A

Leydig cell; produces testosterone

306
Q

Identify A, B, C, and D in this image of the germinal epithelium.

A

A = Leydig cell, B = spermatozoa, C = primary spermatocyte, D = spermatogonium

307
Q

Name this structure

A

Ductus deferens

308
Q

Which part of the male reproductive tract does this histology slide depict? [1]

Seminal vesicle
Prostate
Vas deferens
Epididymus
Seminiferous tubule

A

Which part of the male reproductive tract does this histology slide depict? [1]

Seminal vesicle
Prostate
Vas deferens
Epididymus
Seminiferous tubule

309
Q

What is the stage of the large cells with pale cytoplasm?.

A

Primary spermocytes

310
Q

Which part of the male reproductive tract does this histology slide depict? [1]

Seminal vesicle
Prostate
Vas deferens
Epididymus
Seminiferous tubule

A

Which part of the male reproductive tract does this histology slide depict? [1]

Seminal vesicle
Prostate - Note the concretion in the lumen.
Vas deferens
Epididymus
Seminiferous tubule

311
Q
A

Sertoli cell. They form the blood-testis barrier through intercellular connections (tight junctions). They also secrete androgen-binding protein.

312
Q
A

Myoid cells. They generate rhythmic contractions to propel spermatozoa through seminiferous tubules. They also synthesize collagen.

313
Q
A

Leydig Cell. It synthesizes testosterone. Leutenizing hormone (LH) stimulates it to increase production of testosterone.

314
Q
A

Sterocilia. Actin filaments provide structural support.

315
Q

Prostate:

A

Basal cell. Its presence distinguishes benign glands from adenocarcinomas.

316
Q
A

Prostatic concretion. Helps to identify the prostate.

317
Q

Which part of the male reproductive tract does this histology slide depict? [1]

Seminal vesicle
Prostate
Vas deferens
Epididymus
Seminiferous tubule

A

Which part of the male reproductive tract does this histology slide depict? [1]

Seminal vesicle Note the foldings of the mucosa,
Prostate
Vas deferens
Epididymus
Seminiferous tubule

318
Q
A
319
Q

What does this histology depict?

Chronic myeloid leukemia
Acute myeloid leukemia
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
Acute lymphocytic leukemia

A

What does this histology depict?

Chronic myeloid leukemia
Acute myeloid leukemia
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
Acute lymphocytic leukemia

prominent myeloid hyperplasia without significant increase in blasts

320
Q

Which of the following is the most common leukemia in the pediatric population

Chronic myeloid leukemia
Acute myeloid leukemia
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
Acute lymphocytic leukemia

A

Which of the following is the most common leukemia in the pediatric population

Chronic myeloid leukemia
Acute myeloid leukemia
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
Acute lymphocytic leukemia: accounting for up to 80% of cases in this group vs. 20% of cases in adults.

321
Q

Which of the following is the most aggressive cancer with a variable prognosis

Chronic myeloid leukemia
Acute myeloid leukemia
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
Acute lymphocytic leukemia

A

Which of the following is the most aggressive cancer with a variable prognosis

Chronic myeloid leukemia
Acute myeloid leukemia
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
Acute lymphocytic leukemia

322
Q

Which of the following typically arises from reciprocal translocation and fusion of BCR on chromosome 22 and ABL1 on chromosome 9

Chronic myeloid leukemia
Acute myeloid leukemia
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
Acute lymphocytic leukemia

A

Which of the following typically arises from reciprocal translocation and fusion of BCR on chromosome 22 and ABL1 on chromosome 9

Chronic myeloid leukemia
Acute myeloid leukemia
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
Acute lymphocytic leukemia

323
Q

This slide depicts which of the following

Chronic myeloid leukemia
Acute myeloid leukemia
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
Acute lymphocytic leukemia

A

This slide depicts which of the following

Chronic myeloid leukemia
Acute myeloid leukemia
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
Acute lymphocytic leukemia

324
Q

A 65-year-old male with hypertension presented to his primary care provider for a regular check-up. A complete blood picture revealed a white blood cell count of 100,000/mm^3. The patient is asymptomatic. A peripheral smear shows significant lymphocytosis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Acute myelogenous leukemia
B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

A

A 65-year-old male with hypertension presented to his primary care provider for a regular check-up. A complete blood picture revealed a white blood cell count of 100,000/mm^3. The patient is asymptomatic. A peripheral smear shows significant lymphocytosis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Acute myelogenous leukemia
B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

325
Q

What does this slide depict?

A. Acute myelogenous leukemia
B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

A

C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia

In acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL), too many immature lymphocytes are present in the bone marrow and the blood. Normally, these cells are relatively rare, but in ALL, they continuously multiply and are overproduced by the bone marrow, causing fatigue, anemia, fever, and bone pain due to the spread of these cells into the bone and joint surfaces. This slide shows many more immature lymphocytes than you would typically expect to see in a blood smear.

326
Q

What does this slide depict?

A. Acute myelogenous leukemia
B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

A

B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia

Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML) is a form of leukemia caused by a chromosomal translocation known as the Philadelphia chromosome, which you will study in detail in Genetics. It is characterized by the unregulated growth of myeloid cells in the bone marrow, resulting in the presence of large numbers of mature and immature granulocytes in both the bone marrow and the blood.

327
Q

What does this slide depict?

A. Acute myelogenous leukemia
B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

A

What does this slide depict?

A. Acute myelogenous leukemia
B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

328
Q

What does this slide depict?

A. Acute myelogenous leukemia
B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

A

What does this slide depict?

A. Acute myelogenous leukemia
B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

329
Q

What does this slide depict?

A. Acute myelogenous leukemia
B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

A

What does this slide depict?

A. Acute myelogenous leukemia
B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

330
Q

What does this slide depict?

A. Acute myelogenous leukemia
B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

A

What does this slide depict?

A. Acute myelogenous leukemia
B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

331
Q

What does this slide depict?

A. Acute myelogenous leukemia
B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

A

What does this slide depict?

A. Acute myelogenous leukemia
B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

332
Q

What does this slide depict?

A. Acute myelogenous leukemia
B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

A

What does this slide depict?

A. Acute myelogenous leukemia
B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

333
Q

What does this slide depict?

A. Acute myelogenous leukemia
B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

A

What does this slide depict?

A. Acute myelogenous leukemia
B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

334
Q

What does this slide depict?

A. Acute myelogenous leukemia
B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

A

What does this slide depict?

A. Acute myelogenous leukemia
B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

335
Q

What does this slide depict?

A. Acute myelogenous leukemia
B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

A

What does this slide depict?

A. Acute myelogenous leukemia
B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

Lymphocytes are small, mature without nucleoli, several smudged cells are present (high power).

336
Q

What does this slide depict?

A. Acute myelogenous leukemia
B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

A

What does this slide depict?

A. Acute myelogenous leukemia
B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

337
Q
A
338
Q

How do you distinguish between the different zones of the adrenal cortex? [3]

A
339
Q

Label A-D out of:

BPE
Adenocarcinoma
Normal
prostatic intraepithelial (PIN)

A

A: adenocarcinoma
B: normal
C: PIN
D: BPH

340
Q

What does this slide depict?

A: adenocarcinoma
B: normal
C: prostatic intraepithelial (PIN)
D: BPH

A

A: adenocarcinoma

The malignant glands in the lower left show macronucleoli in contrast to the benign glands on the upper right side. However, one has to be cautious.

341
Q

What does this slide depict?

A: adenocarcinoma
B: normal
C: prostatic intraepithelial (PIN)
D: BPH

A

Adenocarcinoma

This focus of prostate cancer has all the essential histologic features - small crowded glands lined by a single layer of cells, nuclear enlargement and hyperchromasia, prominent nucleoli, and intraluminal blue mucin. A benign gland is partially visible at the lower right side of the image. Contrast its nuclear size to those of adjacent malignant glands.

342
Q

What does this slide depict?

A: adenocarcinoma
B: normal
C: prostatic intraepithelial (PIN)
D: BPH

A

A: adenocarcinoma

Glomerulations are an architectural feature that are usually associated with carcinoma in a prostate needle biopsy. Similar structures may rarely be seen in benign prostate glands. They consist of an aggregate of tumor cells that projects into the lumen of a larger malignant gland creating a superficial resemblance to a renal glomerulus.

343
Q

What does this slide depict?

A: adenocarcinoma
B: normal
C: prostatic intraepithelial (PIN)
D: BPH

A

What does this slide depict?

A: adenocarcinoma
B: normal
C: prostatic intraepithelial (PIN)
D: BPH

344
Q

What does this slide depict?

A: adenocarcinoma
B: normal
C: prostatic intraepithelial (PIN)
D: BPH

A

What does this slide depict?

A: adenocarcinoma
B: normal
C: prostatic intraepithelial (PIN)
D: BPH

345
Q
A

TL: BPE
TR: Adenomcarcinoma
BL: Normal
BR: PIN

346
Q

Put these in order of their gleason score [3]

A

C: Gleason score 3
B: Gleason score 2
A: Gleason score 1

347
Q
A
348
Q
A

BR; invasive ductal
BL: dcis
TR: invasive lobular
TL: insitu loblar

349
Q

Which of the following best describes the slide

Stromal fibrosis
Cysts
Adenosis
Apocrine metaplasia

A

Cysts

(apocrine are more eosinophilic)

350
Q

Which of the following best describes the slide

Stromal fibrosis
Cysts
Adenosis
Apocrine metaplasia

A

Apocrine metaplasia

351
Q

Label the folllowing with

Stromal fibrosis
Cysts
Adenosis
Apocrine metaplasia

A
352
Q

What is the aroow pointing at

urethra
vagina
rectum
ureter
anal canal

A

urethra

353
Q

These images show a childhood respiratory condition. They show

congenital lobar emphysema
a bronchogenic cyst
asthma
pneumonia
tuberculosis

A

congenital lobar emphysema

354
Q
A

Corpus luteum

355
Q

adenocarcinoma of the prostate, Gleeson Grade 5
adenocarcinoma of the prostate, Gleeson Grade 1
transitional cell carcinoma
BPE
stratified squamous carcinoma

A

adenocarcinoma of the prostate, Gleeson Grade 5

356
Q

dysgerminoma
serous adenocarcinoma
mucinous adenocarcnoma
teratoma
granulosa cell tumour

A

dysgerminoma
serous adenocarcinoma
mucinous adenocarcnoma
teratoma
granulosa cell tumour

357
Q

leimyosarcoma
leimyoma
fibroadenoma
adenocarcinoma of the breast
normal breast tissue
fibrosarcoma

A

leimyosarcoma
leimyoma
fibroadenoma
adenocarcinoma of the breast
normal breast tissue
fibrosarcoma

358
Q

What is dyskaryosis? [4]

A
  • Disproportionate nuclear enlargement
  • Irregularity in form and contour
  • Hyperchromatic
  • Irregular chromatin condensation
  • Abnormalities in number, form and size of nucleoli
  • Multinucleation
359
Q

Cervix

What is abnormal here? [1]

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

Normally the cervix is columnar epithelium.

360
Q

Which HPV causes squamous cell carcinoma of cervix?

6
11
16
18

A

Which HPV causes squamous cell carcinoma of cervix?

16 - squamous - 16

361
Q

Which HPV causes adenocarcinoma of cervix?

6
11
16
18

A

18

362
Q

What is this cell in the breast tissue? [1]

A

Plasma B cell: secrete IgA

363
Q

What is the most common benign breast tissue? [1]

A

Fibroadenoma

364
Q

Which of the following is most common?

Teratoma
Dysgerminoma
Yolk sac tumour
Choriocarcinoma
Embryonal carcinoma

A

Teratoma

365
Q

What is this depicted?

Teratoma
Dysgerminoma
Yolk sac tumour
Choriocarcinoma
Embryonal carcinoma

A

Teratoma

366
Q

What is this depicted?

Teratoma
Dysgerminoma
Yolk sac tumour
Choriocarcinoma
Embryonal carcinoma

A

Dysgerminoma

367
Q

Ovarian cancers

Label A-C [3]

A

A: serous cystadenocarcinoma

B: mucinous cystadenocarcinoma

C: endometroid ovarian carcinoma

368
Q

What are the symptoms of BPE? [5]

A

SHINP

Slow stream
hesistency
Incomplete evacuation
Nocturia
Post void mic (dribbling)

369
Q

What is your erectile tissue? [1]

A

Corpus cavernosum

370
Q

Label A-C of the prostate zones [3]

A

A: transitional zone

B: central zone

C: peripheral zone

371
Q

Which prostate zone surrounds the ejaculatory ducts? [1]

A

central zone

372
Q

Which is BPE and which is adenocarcinoma? [2]

A

BPE: Left
Adenocarcinoma: right

373
Q

What type of male germ cell tumour is this? [1]

A

seminoma

374
Q

What type of male germ cell tumour is this? [1]

A

seminoma: rich in lymphocytes

375
Q

Name three risk factors for seminoma [3]

A
  • cryptochordism
  • indirect hernia
  • genetics
376
Q

What Gleason score would be very benign [1] and very malignant? [1]

A

Gleason score 1: Small, uniform glands

Gleason score 5: malignant