Year 2 Histology Qs (keep adding when you review own notes - mostly from pje) Flashcards

Question 1

Q

Squamous cell carcinoma of lung usually occurs at which areas of the lung? [1]

Answer

A

Main bronchi

Question 2

Q

What type of cancer is this depicted?

Squamous cell cancer
Non-small cell lung carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Large cell carcinoma
Small cell carcinoma

Answer

A

What type of cancer is this depicted?

Squamous cell cancer
Non-small cell lung carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Large cell carcinoma
Small cell carcinoma

Question 3

Q

How would you describe cell types found in small cell lung carcinoma? [1]

Answer

A

Small, ovoid, densely packed and darkly stained tumor cells

Question 4

Q

What pathology does this image depict?

Squamous cell cancer
Non-small cell lung carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Large cell carcinoma
Small cell carcinoma

Answer

A

Squamous cell cancer
Non-small cell lung carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Large cell carcinoma
Small cell carcinoma

Question 5

Q

Which of the following can be distinguished by keratinisation of cells

Squamous cell cancer
Non-small cell lung carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Large cell carcinoma
Small cell carcinoma

Answer

A

Which of the following can be distinguished by keratinisation of cells

Squamous cell cancer
Non-small cell lung carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Large cell carcinoma
Small cell carcinoma

Numerous keratin pearls will be noted which are areas of central keratinization surrounded by concentric layers of abnormal squamous cells

Question 6

Q

What type of cancer causes the tumour depicted on the right?

Squamous cell cancer
Non-small cell lung carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Large cell carcinoma
Small cell carcinoma

Answer

A

What type of cancer causes the tumour depicted on the right?

Squamous cell cancer
Non-small cell lung carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Large cell carcinoma
Small cell carcinoma

Hyaline cartilage is resistant to invasion

Question 7

Q

Label M, CN and L on this histological slide [3]

What pathology is indicated? [1]

Answer

A

Pulmonary tunerculosis

M: macrophage
L: langhan cell
CN: caseous necrosis

Question 8

Q

Which cell type walls of tubercle in TB ptx to create a caseous necrosis? [1]

Answer

A

Fibroblasts: lay down collagen to wall of tubercle (F)

Question 9

Q

Which of the following is primary, secondary and miliary TB? [3]

Answer

A

A: Secondary TB
B: Miliary TB
C: Primary TB

Question 10

Q

Assmans focus is associated with:

Primary TB
Secondary TB
Miliary TB

Answer

A

Assmans focus is associated with:

Primary TB
Secondary TB
Miliary TB

Question 11

Q

Ranke complex in primary pulmonary TB is caused by which two components? [2]

Answer

A

a Ghon lesion that has undergone calcification
an ipsilateral calcified mediastinal node

Question 12

Q

What is the likely lung diagnosis? [1]

Answer

A

Bronchopneumonia: neutrophil found in alveolar spaces

Question 13

Q

What is the likely diagnosis of this histological slide?

NB: The Ptx is well nourished and has an enlarged, tender liver

Hypothyroidism
Folic acid deficiency
Haemoglobinopathy
B12 Deficiency
Alcoholic liver disease

Answer

A

What is the likely diagnosis of this histological slide?

NB: The Ptx is well nourished and has an enlarged, tender liver

Hypothyroidism
Folic acid deficiency
Haemoglobinopathy
B12 Deficiency
Alcoholic liver disease

Question 14

Q

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

Answer

A

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

Question 15

Q

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

Answer

A

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

Question 16

Q

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

Answer

A

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

Eosiniphil infiltratin

Question 17

Q

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

Answer

A

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency (From chronic renal failure)
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

Can see Burr cells and spicules

Question 18

Q

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

Answer

A

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency + eating fava beans
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

Non-spherocytic haemolytic anaemia

Question 19

Q

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

Answer

A

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

Question 20

Q

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited? [1]

Explain why [2]

Answer

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

Spherolytic haemolytic anaemia. Bone marrow infiltration by lymphocytes that leads to none marrow fialure and development of anaemia

Question 21

Q

What is the diagnosis ? [1]

Answer

A

Acute myeloid leukaemia

Question 22

Q

Label A-C of hepatic histology

Answer

A

A: branch of bile duct
B: branch of hepatic artery
C: branch of portal vein

Question 23

Q

Label A-C

Answer

A

A: Parafollicular cells
B: Colloid
C: Follicular cell

Question 24

Q

Which of the folllowing secretes calcitonin?

A
B
C

Answer

A

Which of the folllowing secretes calcitonin?

A: parafollicular cells Lowers Ca++ levels
B
C

Question 25

Q

Where is the following an adenoma from? [1]

Answer

A

Pituitary adenoma

See loss of supporting reticular network

Question 26

Q

This photograph shows a histopathological specimen of the pitutiary gland. ID the tissues labelled A-C

Answer

A

A: Pituitary adenoma
B: posterior lobe of pit gland
C: anterior lobe of pit gland

Question 27

Q

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

Answer

A

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

G6PD leads to non-spherocytic haemolytic anaemia.

Question 28

Q

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

Answer

A

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

Chronic renal failure leads to a deficiency in EPO.
Normocytic anaemia occurs.
Red cells fragments are commonly seen with renal vascular disease.
Anisocytosis and Poikilocytosis will therefore be present as well.
Burr cells may be visible (acanthocytes).

Question 29

Q

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

Answer

A

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

Hay fever does not affect RBCS.

Eosinophil levels will be increased as a response to allergies (eosinophilia).

Question 30

Q

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

Answer

A

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

Patients appear jaundiced due to increased RBC breakdown.
Reticulocytosis occurs to try to raised Hb concentration levels (polychromasia).
Spherocytes will be visible to highlight RBC damage.
This disease can be autoimmune.
Neutrophilia may be present.

Question 31

Q

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

Answer

A

What pathology is likely to cause this histopathological change depcited?

G6PD deficiency
Hereditory eliptocytosis
Erythropoietin deficiency
Allergic rhinitis
Malarial parasites
Spherocytic Hemolytic anaemia

RBCs present as normocytic

Question 32

Q

What causes this pathology? [1]

Answer

A

Alcoholic Liver Disease

Alcohol is the most frequent cause of macrocytic RBCs in the absence of anaemia.

Question 33

Q

What causes this pathology? [1]

Answer

A

IDA: Microcytic, hypochromic cells present.

Blood loss such as a large bowel carcinoma may be responsible for iron deficiency.

Question 34

Q

What causes this pathology? [1]

Answer

A

B12/Folate Deficiency:

Macrocytic cells. & Hypersegmented neutrophil.

Question 35

Q

What causes this pathology? [1]

Answer

A

B12/Folate Deficiency:

Macrocytic cells. & Hypersegmented neutrophil.

Question 36

Q

This is a histological slide from the pituitary gland. What pathology is indicated and how can you tell? [2]

Answer

A

Hashimotos: Colloid not conspicuous

Hashimoto’s disease is an autoimmune disorder that can cause hypothyroidism, or underactive thyroid

Question 37

Q

Hypothyroidism can be indicated by [2]

Answer

A

Puffiness
Coarse skin

Question 38

Q

Which pathology is indicated by this slide?

Graves
Addisons
Hashimotos
Cushings syndrome

Answer

A

Which pathology is indicated by this slide?

Graves
Addisons
Hashimotos
Cushings syndrome

(Left is normal)

Question 39

Q

Cushing syndrome is most commonly caused by [1]

2nd most common cause? [2]

Answer

A

Most common: Iatrogenic: from administration of exogenous glucorticoids

70% on non-iatrogenic causes are Pituitary ACTH secreting adenoma

Question 40

Q

3 symptoms of Cushings? [3]

Answer

A

Central obesity
Abdominal striae
Moon faces

Question 41

Q

What are the three liver zones and where are they in relation to each other?

Answer

A

1: most central
* 2: intermediate
3: furthest from distributing vessels

Question 42

Q

What are roles of liver zone 1 and 3? [2]

Question 43

Q

What is hepatocyte death: bridgeing?

Answer

A

Bridgeing = within zone 3 of acinus, severe Hep

Question 44

Q

Which is the major cell involved in liver fibrosis?

Answer

A

stellate cells [1]

Question 45

Q

Label A-C of Thyroid gland

What is secreted by C?

Answer

A

A: follicular cells
B: colloid
C: parafollicular cells - secretes calcitonin

Question 46

Q

Which of the following is from Graves and which is Hashimotos?

Answer

A

A: Graves
B: Hashimotos (lymphocyte infiltration)

Question 47

Q

Which pathology is indicated by this slide?

Graves
Addisons
Hashimotos
Cushings syndrome

Answer

A

Which pathology is indicated by this slide?

Graves
Addisons
Hashimotos
Cushings syndrome

plump follicular cells with increased amounts of eosinophilic cytoplasm
hyperplastic follicles with papillary epithelial infoldings
evidence of colloid reabsorption, including ‘scalloping’ at the apical membrane and variable follicle collapse and exhaustion

Question 48

Q

Which pathology is indicated by this slide?

Graves
Addisons
Hashimotos
Cushings syndrome

Answer

A

Which pathology is indicated by this slide?

Graves
Addisons
Hashimotos : lymphocyte infilatration
Cushings syndrome

Question 49

Q

Label A-B of atheroma plaque

Answer

A

A: Tunica media
B: atherosclerotic plaque

Question 50

Q

Whay histopathology is ocurring here?

Pneumonia
Squamous cell carcinoma
Tuberculosis
Adenoma cell carcinoma

Answer

A

Whay histopathology is ocurring here?

Pneumonia
Squamous cell carcinoma
Tuberculosis
Adenoma cell carcinoma

Successful macrophage lymphocyte—> fibroblast–>defensive reaction occurs

Question 51

Q

Which cell types secrete calcitonin

Follicular cells
Parafollicular cells
Hepatocytes
Colloid

Answer

A

Which cell types secrete calcitonin

Follicoluar cells
Parafollicular cells
Hepatocytes
Colloid

Question 52

Q

Which pathology is indicated by this slide?

Graves
Addisons
Hashimotos
Cushings syndrome

Answer

A

Which pathology is indicated by this slide?

Graves
Addisons
Hashimotos
Cushings syndrome

Colloid not conspicuous & lymphocyte infiltration

Question 53

Q

Which pathology is indicated by this slide?

Graves
Addisons
Hashimotos
Cushings syndrome

Answer

A

Which pathology is indicated by this slide?

Graves
Addisons
Hashimotos
Cushings syndrome

Question 54

Q

Which of the following of A-C pictures of adrenal gland shows:

Cortical adenoma
Normal
Cortial hyperplasia

Answer

A

Which of the following of A-C pictures of adrenal gland shows:

A = Normal

B = Cortical adenoma

C = Cortial hyperplasia

Question 55

Q

What is the most common cause of Cushings syndrome? [1]

What is the second most common cause of Cushings syndrome? [1]

Answer

A

Most common: iatrogenic - adminstration of exogenous glucoscorticoids

Second most common: piutary ACTHsecreting adenoma

Question 56

Q

What s this patint most likely to bes suffering from?

Graves
Addisons
Hashimotos
Cushings syndrome

Answer

A

What s this patint most likely to bes suffering from?

Graves
Addisons
Hashimotos
Cushings syndrome

Question 57

Q

What is the pathology occurring in this liver slide?

Chronic viral hep C
Hepatitis
Acute hepatisis
Cirrhosis
Hepatocellular carcinoma

Answer

A

What is the pathology occurring in this liver slide?

Chronic viral hep C
Hepatitis
Acute hepatisis
Cirrhosis
Hepatocellular carcinoma

Question 58

Q

What is the pathology occurring in this liver slide?

Chronic viral hep C
Hepatitis
Acute hepatisis
Cirrhosis
Hepatocellular carcinoma

Answer

A

What is the pathology occurring in this liver slide?

Chronic viral hep C
Hepatitis
Acute hepatisis
Cirrhosis
Hepatocellular carcinoma

Question 59

Q

What is the pathology occurring in this liver slide?

Chronic viral hep C
Hepatitis
Acute hepatisis
Cirrhosis
Hepatocellular carcinoma

Answer

A

What is the pathology occurring in this liver slide?

Chronic viral hep C
Hepatitis
Acute hepatisis
Cirrhosis
Hepatocellular carcinoma

Disruption lobular architecture, Hepatocyte apoptosis, snusoids inflam

Question 60

Q

Which pathology is depicted here?

Question 61

Q

Liver cancer most malignant are metastases from primary tumour in []

Answer

A

Most malignant are metastases from primary tumour in another
organ

Question 62

Q

Label A-C of hepatocellular slide

Answer

A

A: glandular arragne of adenocarcinoma cells

B: fibrous stroma with blood vessels and inflammatory cells

C: hepatocytes

Question 63

Q

The glomerular filtration barrier is made up of which three layers [3]

Answer

A

podocytes barrier
glomerular BM
Fenestrated endothelium of capillary

Question 64

Q

Which renal pathology is depcited here?

Nephrotic syndrome
Nephritic syndrome
Minimal change disease
Membranous glomerulopathy
Diabetic glomerulonephropathy

Answer

A

Which renal pathology is depcited here?

Nephrotic syndrome
Nephritic syndrome
Minimal change disease
Membranous glomerulopathy
Diabetic glomerulonephropathy

Answer 63

A

Nephritic syndrome: is a condition involving haematuria, mild to moderate proteinuria (typically less than 3.5g/L/day), hypertension, oliguria and red cell casts in the urine.

Nephrotic syndrome: is a condition involving the loss of significant volumes of protein via the kidneys (proteinuria) which results in hypoalbuminaemia. The definition of nephrotic syndrome includes both massive proteinuria (≥3.5 g/day) and hypoalbuminaemia (serum albumin ≤30 g/L). 1

Answer 64

A

Which renal pathology is depcited here?

Nephrotic syndrome
Nephritic syndrome
Minimal change disease
Membranous glomerulopathy
Diabetic glomerulonephropathy

Answer 65

A

Which renal pathology is depcited here?

Nephrotic syndrome
Nephritic syndrome
Minimal change disease
Membranous glomerulopathy
Diabetic glomerulonephropathy

Damage to the glomeruli allows proteins, such as albumin, to pass through into the nephron tubules and be lost in urine, giving rise to three clinical features that define NS:

Proteinuria (defined as loss of >3.5g of protein in urine over 24 hours);
Hypoalbuminaemia (<30g/L of albumin in the blood);
Peripheral oedema[3].

Answer 66

A

A: Capillary lumen
B: Mesengial cell
C: Capillary lumen

Answer 67

A

A: Capillary lumen
B: Mesengial cell
C: Capillary lumen

Answer 68

A

Which of the following best describes the outline below:

Usually occursin chidlren under 6 years old after a respiratory infection or immunisation

Nephrotic syndrome
Nephritic syndrome
Minimal change disease
Membranous glomerulopathy
Diabetic glomerulonephropathy

Answer 69

A

Which renal pathology is depcited here?

Nephrotic syndrome
Nephritic syndrome
Minimal change disease
Membranous glomerulopathy
Diabetic glomerulonephropathy

Answer 70

A

Process effacement: podocyte cell process flatten onto BM
Results in leaky glomerular filtratration barrrier

Answer 71

A

Renal epithelial cells

Answer 72

A

Transitional cell carcinoma

Answer 73

A

thick plasma membrane + plaques
hinge like portions that allow rounding and flattening of the cells depending on distension
tight junctions between cells prohibit passage of water or other materials between cells

Answer 74

A

A: collecting duct
B: thick descending limb
C: thick ascending limb

Answer 75

A

A: collecting duct
B: thick descending limb
C: thick ascending limb

Answer 76

A

A: Bowmans space
B: Proximal tubules
C: Distal tubules
D: Glomerulus

Answer 77

A

A: distal tubules
B: collecting tubule

Answer 78

A

Which of the following is the PCT

A
B: simple cuboidal with microvilli
C
D

Answer 79

A

Which of the following is the DCT

A
B
C
D

Answer 80

A

Dsecribe the histopatholigical changes seen in MI from:

Less than 1 day [1]: coagulative necrosis

Less than 7 days [1]: acute inflammation

1-3 week [1]: granulatin

3-6 weeks [1]: scarring

Answer 81

A

How long after MI is the following slide depicted?

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week granulation occuring
3-6 weeks

Answer 82

A

How long after MI is the following slide depicted?

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks: scarring

Answer 83

A

MI Histological changes:

Coagulative necrosis occurs in about:

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

Answer 84

A

MI Histological changes:

Myofibers begin to disintegrate; dying neutrophil; macrophages phagocytose necrotic cells

occurs in about:

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

Answer 85

A

MI Histological changes:

Increased collagen deposition and decreased cellularity

occurs in about:

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

Answer 86

A

MI Histologica changes:

Well-formed granulation tissue with neovascularization and collagen deposit

Occurs in about:

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

Answer 87

A

How many days post-infarct does the following occur:

marked by a shift from pro-inflammatory cells to apoptotic neutrophils and phagocytic macrophages
Macrophages phagocytose the dying neutrophils as well as the necrotic tissue debris

Occurs in about:

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

Answer 88

A

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

Answer 89

A

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day coagulative necrosis
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

Answer 90

A

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week granulation occurring
3-6 weeks

Answer 91

A

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks scarring occurring

Answer 92

A

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days 1-2 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

Answer 93

A

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

Answer 94

A

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week granulation
3-6 weeks

Answer 95

A

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

** Less than 1 day** coagualtive necrosis
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

Answer 96

A

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days accute inflam
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

Answer 97

A

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks scarring

Answer 98

A

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week granulation
3-6 weeks

Answer 99

A

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day coagulative necrosis
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

Answer 100

A

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

Answer 101

A

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

Answer 102

A

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day (12 hours)
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

Answer 103

A

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

Answer 104

A

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks

Answer 105

A

When would this histopatholigcal slide from an MI likely to have occurred

Less than 1 day
Less than 7 days
1-3 week
3-6 weeks scarring

Answer 106

A

Rheumatic fever

Answer 107

A

Aschoffs bodies

Answer 108

A

A: Normal
B: Ashoff bodies
C: Rheumatic mitral stenosis

Answer 109

A

Aschoff are nodular inflammatory lesions found in the CT of the myocardium.
Aschoff bodies are areas of necrosis and large distinctive macrophages

Answer 110

A

Aschoff bodies may collect at the mitral valve toc cause rheumatic mitral stenosis.

Answer 111

A

Thyroglobulin (stores and secretes T3 & T4)

Answer 112

A

Hashimoto Thyroiditis

Answer 113

A

A: Chief cells
B: oxyphil cells

Answer 114

A

A = zona glomerulosa, B = zona fasciculata, C = zona reticularis.
D = Medulla.

Answer 115

A

Islet of Langerhans

Answer 116

A

Which cells have been stained in the islet of langerhans

Alpha cells
Beta cells : most abundant
Delta cells
PP cells

Answer 117

A

Which of the following are the majority of the endcorine cells in islet of langerhans?

Alpha cells
Beta cells
Delta cells
PP cells

Answer 118

A

Graves

Follicular cells are taller and have larger nuclei.
Increased colloid use to produce T4 causes scalloping (S on right image).
Increased collide use also reduces the size of follicles.

Answer 119

A

Arrows: Renal corpsucles
*: collecting ducts

Answer 120

A

A: podocytes
B: basement membrane

Answer 121

A

A: DCT
B: PCT

Answer 122

A

Arrows: PCT
Arrowheads: DCT

Answer 123

A

C = CD
B: LoH

Answer 124

A

A: transitional epithelium
B: LP
C: muscualris mucosa
D: adventitia

Answer 125

A

A: transitional epithelium
B: LP
C: muscularis

Answer 126

A

What type of liver cancer is depicted here?

Metastatic adenocarcinoma
Hepatic carcinoma

Answer 127

A

What type of liver cancer is depicted here?

Metastatic adenocarcinoma
Hepatic carcinoma

Answer 128

A

What type of liver cancer is depicted here?

Metastatic adenocarcinoma
Hepatic carcinoma

Answer 129

A

Pituicytes

Answer 130

A

A 35-year-old is noted to be pale and bruise easily. A blood test is organised by the GP.

WBC 6.0 x 109/L
Neutrophils 0.9 x 109/L

Which of the following leukaemias is most commonly associated with this blood finding?

Acute lymphocytic leukaemia
Acute myeloid leukaemia
Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
Chronic myeloid leukaemia
Hairy cell leukaemia

Answer 131

A

Which of the following is the PCT?

A
B
C
D
E

Answer 132

A

Which of the following is the PCT?

A
B
C
D
E

Answer 133

A

Which of the following is the podocyte?

A
B
C
D
E

Answer 134

A

Which of the following is the bowmans space?

A
B
C
D
E

Answer 135

A

The endothelial cells in renal corpsucle are:

continuous
discontinuous
fenestrated

Answer 136

A

A: podocyte
B: Bowmans space
C: Foot process (of podocytes)
D: basement membrane
E: endothelial cell

Answer 137

A

A: PCT
B: thin limb
C: thick ascending

Answer 138

A

A: PCT
B: DCT

Answer 139

A

A: DCT
B: PCT

Answer 140

A

A: PCT
B: mesengial cells
C: DCT

Answer 141

A

A: DCT
B: PCT

Answer 142

A

Proximal convoluted tubule

Note the darker-stained cytoplasm and that fewer nuclei are visible. Also, microvilli in the lumen give the shaggy appearance on apical surface of the epithelial cells. Primary function is reabsorption of water, salts and small organic molecules (sugars, amino acids, etc.).

Answer 143

A

Contract logitudinally

Answer 144

A

Transitional

Answer 145

A

Smooth muscle. Contracts to expel urine from the bladder. Smooth muscle layers are arranged in multiple directions in the bladder whereas the layers in the ureter have more defined orientations.

Answer 146

A

Smooth muscle. Contracts to expel urine from the bladder. Smooth muscle layers are arranged in multiple directions in the bladder whereas the layers in the ureter have more defined orientations.

Answer 147

A

Identify the structure indicated by the black arrow.

An interlobar artery
An interlobar vein
An arcuate artery
An arcuate vein
An interlobular artery
An interlobular vein

Answer 148

A

A
B
C
D
E
Answer
Correct answer 5. (E) Proximal convoluted tubules are lined by epithelial cells that constitutively express aquaporin channels and are therefore generally the MOST permeable to water. “A” is a proximal straight tubule. “B” is a distal straight tubule. “C” is a cortical collecting duct, which, under the influence of ADH, can become water permeable, but not to the same extent as a proximal convoluted tubule (A, B, and C are all in a medullary ray). “D” is a distal convoluted tubule.

Answer 149

A

Which statement(s) is/are correct about transitional epithelium?

It is found only in the ureters and bladder.
It is freely permeable to water.
It is freely permeable to salt ions.
ALL of the above statements are correct.
NONE of the above statements are correct.

Correct answer E. NONE OF THE ABOVE. Transitional epithelium is also found in the calyxes of the kidney and the superior urethra. It is completely impermeable to water and salt.

Answer 150

A

Which of the labeled ultrastructural features most significantly impedes the passage of negatively charged molecules?

A
B
C
D

Correct answer 4. (D). The lamina rara interna and externa contain an extensive amount of negatively charged proteoglycans which therefore REPELS negatively charged molecules and impede their passage into the urine filtrate.

Answer 151

A

Which of the labeled ultrastructural features most significantly impedes the passage of negatively charged molecules?

A
B
C
D

Correct answer 4. (D). The lamina rara interna and externa contain an extensive amount of negatively charged proteoglycans which therefore REPELS negatively charged molecules and impede their passage into the urine filtrate.

Answer 152

A

Cytomegalovirus

Answer 153

A

Hyaline membrane disease

Clinically manifests as neonatal respiratory
distress syndrome (RDS)

Formation of membranes in the peripheral
airways (fibrin & cellular debris)

Deficiency of pulmonary surfactant

Answer 154

A

Serosal Petechiae
Focal lung haemorrhage
Acute stress in thymus
Extramedullary haemopoiesis
Mild URTI.

Answer 155

A

Which causative agent most likely caused this pneumonia? [1]

Cytomegalovirus
Parainfluenza virus
Respiratory syncytial virus - Multinucleated giant cells can be seen within the bronchial epithelium and neighboring alveoli.
Adenovirus

Answer 156

A

RSV

. Multinucleated giant cell (MNGC) of respiratory syncytial virus infection
demonstrating a large intracytoplasmic inclusion (arrow); (H&E, 1000 ). MNGCs
are more commonly seen within alveoli than within bronchioles.

Answer 157

A

Invasive ductal carcinoma

Answer 158

A

when BM breached and malignant cells try to create small ducts - get sheets of cells penetrating the SMC & stroma

Answer 159

A

get sheets of cells penetrating the SMC & stroma
Malignant cells form single file lines or single cells
Often show vacuoles within cytoplasm

Answer 160

A

Lactiferous Duct - each lobe is drained by a single lactiferous duct that opens into the nipple. It is lined by a double layer of cuboidal or columnar cells surrounded by a sheath of connective tissue with myoid cells.

Answer 161

A

R: Lactating

Answer 162

A

classic invasive lobular carcinoma

Answer 163

A

ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)

Answer 164

A

Figure 2 – Histology showing ductal carcinoma in-situ (DCIS), demonstrating the malignant cells confined to the mammary ducts

Answer 165

A

What type of pathology is depicted in this breast tissue?

Invasive ductal carcinoma
DCIS
Invasive lobular carnicoma

Answer 166

A

What type of pathology is depicted in this breast tissue?

Invasive ductal carcinoma
DCIS
Invasive lobular carnicoma

Answer 167

A

Which change to breast tissue is depicted here

Cysts
DCIS
Fibroadenoma
Sclerosing adenosis
Apocrine metaplasia

Apocrine metaplasia with eosinophilic cytoplasm and apical snouts involving dilated cysts. Notice the transition from single to multiple layered epithelium to true papillary configuration in the same cystic space.

Answer 168

A

Which change to breast tissue is depicted here

Cysts
DCIS
Fibroadenoma
Sclerosing adenosis
Apocrine metaplasia - abundant eosinophilic granular cytoplasm, prominent nucleolus and apocrine snouts.

Answer 169

A

Microcalcifications tend to be less common in fibrocystic change than in carcinoma. They tend to be coarse and irregular.

Answer 170

A

Which change to breast tissue is depicted here

Cysts
DCIS
Fibroadenoma
Sclerosing adenosis
Apocrine metaplasia

Some of the larger cysts in fibrocystic change may have a bluish appearance from outside (blue-domed cysts). The cyst lining is flattened or absent in some cases. In the center of this image, cysts are lined by apocrine epithelium. Note the focus of adenosis above it.

Answer 171

A

Which change to breast tissue is depicted here

Cysts
DCIS
Fibroadenoma
Sclerosing adenosis
Apocrine metaplasia

Sclerosing adenosis is a benign hyperplastic process that may be mistaken for carcinoma. The average age at presentation is about 30 yrs. The lesion retains is lobular configuration and is more cellular centrally.

Answer 172

A

Which change to breast tissue is depicted here

Cysts
DCIS
Fibroadenoma
Sclerosing adenosis
Apocrine metaplasia

The proliferating tubules may be elongated and have attenuated lumens. There is preferential preservation of myoepithelial cells in the tubules and epithelial cells are less conspicuous. Some degree of lobular fibrosis is usually present.

Answer 173

A

Which change to breast tissue is depicted here

Cysts
DCIS
Fibroadenoma
The tubules and glands in a fibroadenoma are lined by cuboidal or low columnar epithelium with uniform nuclei and surrounded by a myoepithelial layer. The stroma is made up of loose connective tissue. If the stroma is hypercellular, the diagnosis of phyllodes tumor should be excluded.

Sclerosing adenosis
Apocrine metaplasia

Answer 174

A

Which change to breast tissue is depicted here

Cysts
DCIS
Fibroadenoma
Sclerosing adenosis
Apocrine metaplasia

Higher magnification view of intracanalicular pattern in a fibroadenoma. The stromal connective tissue invaginates into the glandular epithelium and appears to be contained within it.

Answer 175

A

Lobular carcinoma-in-situ (LCIS) is a non-palpable lesion which is usually an incidental finding in breasts removed for other reasons. It is multicentric in 70% of cases and bilateral in 30% to 40% of cases. The lobules are distended with uniform round or oval, medium sized cells. The nuclei are uniform and normochromatic. This image shows LCIS involving several lobules. A few uninvolved lobules can be seen on the right.

Answer 176

A

Ductal carcinoma in situ

The tumor cells with high nuclear grade nearly fill the lumen in this example of DCIS. The cytoplasmic borders are sharply demarcated.

Answer 177

A

High power view of cribriform DCIS showing microcalcifications.

Answer 178

A

This case of high-grade invasive ductal carcinoma was composed mostly of solid areas, showed no evidence of tubule formation and was assigned score of 3 for tubule formation.

Answer 179

A

L: invasive ductal carcinoma showed tubule formation
R: Invasive lobular carcinoma The tumor cells are arranged in slender linear strands one to two cells across

Answer 180

A

R: invasive ductal carcinoma showed tubule formation
L: Invasive lobular carcinoma

Answer 181

A

Which pathology is depicted using immunohistocomplex staining?

IgA nephropathy
Membranous change disease
DIabetic nephropathy
Glomerulosclerosis

Answer 182

A

Which pathology is depicted using immunohistocomplex staining?

IgA nephropathy Proliferation and hypercellularity of the mesangium is seen in the glomerulus
Membranous change disease
DIabetic nephropathy
Glomerulosclerosis

Answer 183

A

Which pathology is depicted using immunohistocomplex staining?

IgA nephropathy
Membranous change disease
DIabetic nephropathy Staining of the lipohyaline caps with periodic acid Schiff stain. Note the subendothelial location of the deposits filling the capillary lumina.

Answer 184

A

Which pathology is depicted using immunohistocomplex staining?

IgA nephropathy
Membranous change disease
DIabetic nephropathy - note the Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules
Glomerulosclerosis

Answer 185

A

Which pathology is depicted using immunohistocomplex staining?

IgA nephropathy - mesengial hypercellulairty
Membranous change disease
DIabetic nephropathy
Glomerulosclerosis

Answer 186

A

Which pathology is depicted using immunohistocomplex staining?

IgA nephropathy
Membranous change disease
DIabetic nephropathy
Glomerulosclerosis

Answer 187

A

Herring Bodies

Answer 188

A

Identify the clusters of chief cells (CC), which secrete PTH. Also, identify oxyphil cells (OC), which are larger and paler staining than the chief cells.

Answer 189

A

cholestasis

Answer 190

A

Pheochromocytoma

Answer 191

A

The gap between the endothelium and the hepatocytes = space of Disse

Answer 192

A

Canaliculi are joined by which type of junctions between adjacent hepatocytes?

Gap junctions
Desmosomes
Fascia Adherens
Tight junctions

Answer 193

A

steatosis

Answer 194

A

A 60 year old man was admitted with massive hematemesis and hypovolemic shock. He failed to respond to resuscitation. Postmortem examination revealed a liver shown as above. What is the most likely cause of his massive gastrointestinal bleeding?

Acute gastritis
Aortoesophageal fistula
Esophageal varices
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Peptic ulcer

Answer 195

A

cirrhosis

Answer 196

A

Chronic cholecystitis characterized by gallbladder wall thickening secondary to muscularis hypertrophy, with a dilated Rokitansky-Aschoff sinus and adjacent transmural lymphoid aggregate.

Answer 197

A

anterior pit

Answer 198

A

Herring bodies = focal axonal swellings packed with secretory granules
Pituicyte = glial cells of the pituitary = nuclei that are visible

Answer 199

A

Herring Bodies

Answer 200

A

Zona fasciculata (tell by the lipid nature)
Secretes: glucorticoids such as cortisol

Answer 201

A

Zona reticularis (dark staining)
secretes sex hormones: oestrogen and testosterone

Answer 202

A

Zona glomerulosa: aldosterone

Answer 203

A

A: zona glomerulosa
B: zona reticularis
C: zona fasciculata

Answer 204

A

What do each of the following produce:

zona glomerulosa: aldosterone
zona fasciculata: cortisol
zona reticularis: oestrogen and testosterone

Answer 205

A

Central vein

Answer 206

A

N: darker
A: lighter

Answer 207

A

A1: Follicles
A2: colloid (and a central mass of follicles)
B: Follicular epithelial cells
C: LCT

Answer 208

A

Secrete calcitonin: decreases Ca2+ levels

Answer 209

A

Normal Thyroid on left
Graves on right: Clear vacuoles in colloid next to epithelium where increased activity of epithelium has used colloid to make thyroid hormone

Answer 210

A

A: chief cells
B: oxyphil cells

Answer 211

A

Identify the clusters of chief cells (CC), which secrete PTH. Also, identify oxyphil cells (OC), which are larger and paler staining than the chief cells.

Answer 212

A

Alpha: periperhy
Beta: Centre
Delta: scattered

Answer 213

A

What type of follicle is this?
Explain why

1. Primordial follicle
2. Early Primary Follicle
3. Late Primary Follicle
4. Secondary Follicle
5. Tertiary / Graffian Follicle
6. Corpus luteum
7. Corpus albican

single layer of squamous follicular cells

Answer 214

A

What type of follicle is this?
Explain why
3. 1. Primordial follicle
2. Early Primary Follicle
3. Late Primary Follicle
4. Secondary Follicle
5. Tertiary / Graffian Follicle
6. Corpus luteum
7. Corpus albican

3 layers; Zona granulosa thickens & ZP develops

Answer 215

A

What type of follicle is this?
Explain why
3. 1. Primordial follicle
2. Early Primary Follicle
3. Late Primary Follicle
4. Secondary Follicle
5. Tertiary / Graffian Follicle
6. Corpus luteum
7. Corpus albican

Answer 216

A

A: zona pellcuida
B: corona radiata
C: Antrum
D: oocyte
E: zona granulosa

Answer 217

A

What type of follicle is this?
Explain why
3. 1. Primordial follicle
2. Early Primary Follicle
3. Late Primary Follicle
4. Secondary Follicle
5. Tertiary / Graffian Follicle
6. Corpus luteum
7. Corpus albican

Increase n layers of zona granulosa
Thicker zona pellucida
Larger oocyte

Answer 218

A

What type of follicle is this?
Explain why
3. 1. Primordial follicle
2. Early Primary Follicle
3. Late Primary Follicle
4. Secondary Follicle
5. Tertiary / Graffian Follicle
6. Corpus luteum
7. Corpus albican

Answer 219

A

What type of follicle is this?
Explain why
3. 1. Primordial follicle
2. Early Primary Follicle
3. Late Primary Follicle
4. Secondary Follicle
5. Tertiary / Graffian Follicle
6. Corpus luteum
7. Corpus albican

Answer 220

A

What type of follicle is this?
Explain why
3. 1. Primordial follicle
2. Early Primary Follicle
3. Late Primary Follicle
4. Secondary Follicle
5. Tertiary / Graffian Follicle
6. Corpus luteum - blood clot present
7. Corpus albican

Answer 221

A

What type of follicle is this?
Explain why
3. 1. Primordial follicle
2. Early Primary Follicle
3. Late Primary Follicle
4. Secondary Follicle
5. Tertiary / Graffian Follicle
6. Corpus luteum - blood clot present
7. Corpus albican

Answer 222

A

A: antral follicle
B: cortex
C HIlus
D: medulla
E: corpus luteum

Answer 223

A

Graffian follicle.

Answer 224

A

Corpus albicans

Answer 225

A

Secondary Follicle

Answer 226

A

A: Zona pellucida
B: Follicular cells

Answer 227

A

A: theca cells / theca interna
B: zona pellucida
C: follicular antrum
D: cumulus cells
E: granulosa cells

Answer 228

A

A: granulosa cells
B: secondary oocyte
C: corona radiata
D: zona pellucida

Answer 229

A

A: granulosa luteal cells
B: theca luteal cells

Answer 230

A

Theca lutein cells. They synthesize progesterone.

Answer 231

A

Late proliferative - note extensive glands that do not appear saw-toothed and do not contain secretions in their lumen. Estradiol would predominate in this phase.

Answer 232

A

Graafian follicle

Answer 233

A

Atretic follicle

Answer 234

A

Corona radiata
Zona pellucida
Plasma membrane

Answer 235

A

Oestrogen & progesterone (corpus luteum)

Answer 236

A

Primary follicle

Answer 237

A

secretory (looks saw toothed)

Answer 238

A

arked nuclear atypia and enlargement compared with surrounding intermediate cells

Answer 239

A

CIN III: diffuse basal / parabasal type, no maturation difference across all layers

Answer 240

A

CIN I: dysplastic cells are confined to the lower third of the epithelium

Answer 241

A

CIN II: dysplastic cells are distributed in the upper third of the epithelium in addition to lower third

Answer 242

A

A: fibroids
B: endometrial cancer

Answer 243

A

primordial

Answer 244

A

Secondary

Answer 245

A

Corpus albicans

Answer 246

A

Menstrual

Answer 247

A

spiral arteries

Answer 248

A

proliferative stage

Answer 249

A

A baby was born at 27/40. She was given three doses of surfactant and ventilated. On day 4, a chest x-ray showed ‘solid’ lungs. The photomicrograph shows

1. hyaline membrane disease
2. normal lung for this age
3. pneumonia
4. pneumothorax
5. pneumopericardium
6. intraventricular haemmorhage

Answer 250

A

The photomicrograph shows

1. normal prostate
2. prostatic adenocarcinoma
3. normal testis
4. papillary serous tumour of the testis
5. transitional cell carcinoma

Answer 251

A

A 24 year old man presented to his GP complaining of a lump in the right testis. The patient was referred to his local urology department and underwent a right orchidectomy. In
this histopathology specimen of the tissue, the arrow indicates

1. seminomatous tumour cells
2. non-seminomatous tumour cells
3. lymphocytes
4. papillary serous carcinoma
5. Sertoli cell tumour cells

Answer 252

A

A 4 year old boy is brought to the physician by his mother due to a 5 week history of lethargy, a progressively enlarging left sided neck mass and a 5 day onset of unexplainable bilateral diffuse lower leg petechial hemorrhage. On exam, the left posterior cervical lymph node is enlarged and nontender to palpation. A lymph node biopsy shows a predominance of interfollicular infiltrate containing numerous blast cells and focal necrosis. Immunohistochemistry is positive for PAX5, CD10 and TdT. Upon further workup, which of the following translocations would be associated with a good prognosis?

t(12;21) - pre B ALL
t(14;18)
t(8;14)
t(9;22)

Answer 253

A

Which hormone triggers the change from A to B?

LH
Oestrogen
FSH
Progesterone

Answer 254

A

Which of the following is oestrogen produced in?

A
B - granulosa cells
C
D
E

Answer 255

A

The endometrial lesion in the image above is most likely associated with which of the following ovarian tumors?

Fibroma
Granulosa cell tumor
Immature teratoma
Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor
Yolk sac tumor

Answer 256

A

What type of cancer is depicted in this histopathological slide?

Ovarian
Cervical
**Endometrial **
Vesical

Answer 257

A

A: Semineferous tubules
B: Tunica albuginea
C: Epididymis

Answer 258

A

Urethra is lined with transitional epithelium
But at its opening changes to a stratified squamous epithelium

Answer 259

A

Nothing: prepubertal

Answer 260

A

epididymis

Answer 261

A

Vas deferens

Answer 262

A

Seminal vesicle

Answer 263

A

Which part of the male reproductive tract does this histology slide depict? [1]

Seminal vesicle
Prostate
Vas deferens
Epididymus
Seminiferous tubule

Answer 264

A

Leydig cell; produces testosterone

Answer 265

A

A = Leydig cell, B = spermatozoa, C = primary spermatocyte, D = spermatogonium

Answer 266

A

Ductus deferens

Answer 267

A

Which part of the male reproductive tract does this histology slide depict? [1]

Seminal vesicle
Prostate
Vas deferens
Epididymus
Seminiferous tubule

Answer 268

A

Primary spermocytes

Answer 269

A

Which part of the male reproductive tract does this histology slide depict? [1]

Seminal vesicle
Prostate - Note the concretion in the lumen.
Vas deferens
Epididymus
Seminiferous tubule

Answer 270

A

Sertoli cell. They form the blood-testis barrier through intercellular connections (tight junctions). They also secrete androgen-binding protein.

Answer 271

A

Myoid cells. They generate rhythmic contractions to propel spermatozoa through seminiferous tubules. They also synthesize collagen.

Answer 272

A

Leydig Cell. It synthesizes testosterone. Leutenizing hormone (LH) stimulates it to increase production of testosterone.

Answer 273

A

Sterocilia. Actin filaments provide structural support.

Answer 274

A

Basal cell. Its presence distinguishes benign glands from adenocarcinomas.

Answer 275

A

Prostatic concretion. Helps to identify the prostate.

Answer 276

A

Which part of the male reproductive tract does this histology slide depict? [1]

Seminal vesicle Note the foldings of the mucosa,
Prostate
Vas deferens
Epididymus
Seminiferous tubule

Answer 277

A

What does this histology depict?

Chronic myeloid leukemia
Acute myeloid leukemia
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
Acute lymphocytic leukemia

prominent myeloid hyperplasia without significant increase in blasts

Answer 278

A

Which of the following is the most common leukemia in the pediatric population

Chronic myeloid leukemia
Acute myeloid leukemia
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
Acute lymphocytic leukemia: accounting for up to 80% of cases in this group vs. 20% of cases in adults.

Answer 279

A

Which of the following is the most aggressive cancer with a variable prognosis

Chronic myeloid leukemia
Acute myeloid leukemia
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
Acute lymphocytic leukemia

Answer 280

A

Which of the following typically arises from reciprocal translocation and fusion of BCR on chromosome 22 and ABL1 on chromosome 9

Chronic myeloid leukemia
Acute myeloid leukemia
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
Acute lymphocytic leukemia

Answer 281

A

This slide depicts which of the following

Chronic myeloid leukemia
Acute myeloid leukemia
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
Acute lymphocytic leukemia

Answer 282

A

A 65-year-old male with hypertension presented to his primary care provider for a regular check-up. A complete blood picture revealed a white blood cell count of 100,000/mm^3. The patient is asymptomatic. A peripheral smear shows significant lymphocytosis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Acute myelogenous leukemia
B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

Answer 283

A

C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia

In acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL), too many immature lymphocytes are present in the bone marrow and the blood. Normally, these cells are relatively rare, but in ALL, they continuously multiply and are overproduced by the bone marrow, causing fatigue, anemia, fever, and bone pain due to the spread of these cells into the bone and joint surfaces. This slide shows many more immature lymphocytes than you would typically expect to see in a blood smear.

Answer 284

A

B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia

Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML) is a form of leukemia caused by a chromosomal translocation known as the Philadelphia chromosome, which you will study in detail in Genetics. It is characterized by the unregulated growth of myeloid cells in the bone marrow, resulting in the presence of large numbers of mature and immature granulocytes in both the bone marrow and the blood.

Answer 285

A

What does this slide depict?

A. Acute myelogenous leukemia
B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

Answer 286

A

What does this slide depict?

A. Acute myelogenous leukemia
B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

Answer 287

A

What does this slide depict?

A. Acute myelogenous leukemia
B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

Answer 288

A

What does this slide depict?

A. Acute myelogenous leukemia
B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

Answer 289

A

What does this slide depict?

A. Acute myelogenous leukemia
B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

Answer 290

A

What does this slide depict?

A. Acute myelogenous leukemia
B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

Answer 291

A

What does this slide depict?

A. Acute myelogenous leukemia
B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

Answer 292

A

What does this slide depict?

A. Acute myelogenous leukemia
B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

Answer 293

A

What does this slide depict?

A. Acute myelogenous leukemia
B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

Lymphocytes are small, mature without nucleoli, several smudged cells are present (high power).

Answer 294

A

What does this slide depict?

A. Acute myelogenous leukemia
B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

Answer 295

A

A: adenocarcinoma
B: normal
C: PIN
D: BPH

Answer 296

A

A: adenocarcinoma

The malignant glands in the lower left show macronucleoli in contrast to the benign glands on the upper right side. However, one has to be cautious.

Answer 297

A

Adenocarcinoma

This focus of prostate cancer has all the essential histologic features - small crowded glands lined by a single layer of cells, nuclear enlargement and hyperchromasia, prominent nucleoli, and intraluminal blue mucin. A benign gland is partially visible at the lower right side of the image. Contrast its nuclear size to those of adjacent malignant glands.

Answer 298

A

A: adenocarcinoma

Glomerulations are an architectural feature that are usually associated with carcinoma in a prostate needle biopsy. Similar structures may rarely be seen in benign prostate glands. They consist of an aggregate of tumor cells that projects into the lumen of a larger malignant gland creating a superficial resemblance to a renal glomerulus.