CR2 Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

Which drugs do you use to treat acute mountain sickness / & or HACE [3]

A

Oxygen
Acetazolamide: carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
Dexamethasone: 4mg qds, (four times daily) oral or iv (steroid): corticosteroid medication used to prevent brain swelling and inflammation.

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2
Q

Which drugs do you use to treat HAPE [6]

A

Oxygen
Acetazolamide: carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
Dexamethasone: 4mg qds, (four times daily) oral or iv (steroid): corticosteroid medication used to prevent brain swelling and inflammation.
Nifedipine: calcium channel blocker that relaxes vascular smooth muscle
Hyperbaric oxygen chamber
Sildenafil (Viagra): relaxes pulmonary vascular smooth muscle (it increases levels of cGMP & decreases intracellular calcium)

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3
Q

Nifedipine?

A

Calcium channel blocker that relaxes vascular smooth muscle

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4
Q

Sildenafil (Viagra):

A

relaxes pulmonary vascular smooth muscle (it increases levels of cGMP & decreases intracellular calcium)

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5
Q

Acetazolamide?

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor; causes more HCO3- to be excreted in urine

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6
Q

Dexamethasone

A

corticosteroid medication used to prevent brain swelling and inflammation.

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7
Q

Which drugs would you use to manage IPF ? [3]

A

pirfenidone and nintedanib.

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8
Q

Which drugs would you treat dilated cardiomyopathy with? [4]

A

A
ACE I / ARBs: lower BP
Diuretics: reduce fluid built up
Anti-coagulants: reduce blood clot chances
Beta blockers: control HR

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9
Q

Q
What are the steps for treating PE? [7]

A

Administer oxygen: reduces arterial vascular resistance & treats hypoximia

Treat with subcut heparin: prevents the clot from getting bigger / propogation at clot source and at DVT. Does not dissolve the clot. Enables own body fibrinolytic system to kick in.

Warfarin: Vitamin K antagonist; reduces levels of factor II, VII, IX, X - reducing clotting ability. Delayed onset so treat with heparin first

Direct Oral Anticoagulants - DOACS - used instead of warfarin. E.g. Dabigatran: direct thrombin inhibitor; Rivaroxaban & Apixaban: Orally active factor Xa inhibitors – stop enzyme activating thrombin - prothrombin

If really serious clot:
Exogenous fibrinolytics (dissolves the clot) - streptokinase
Percutaneous catheter into pulmonary veins - suck out the clot
Pulmonary embolectomy

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10
Q

Explain mechanism of how heparin works to treat PE

A

Heparin binds to antithrombin and activates it; activated complex then inactivates factor Xa, preventing conversion of prothrombin to thrombin (thrombin converts fibrinogen into fibrin - integral step in clot formation)

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11
Q

Which drugs would you use to treat a Ptx who had acute sore throat with pharnygitis?

A

Start of treatment is determined by hospital’s microbiology protocol
But:

First choice: Phenoxymethylpenicillin

If allergic:

Clarithromycin
Erythromycin

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12
Q

What type of medication can you give for haemophilia? [3]

A

Factor VIII/ IX - recombinant or plasma (IV)
Desmopresssin / DDAVP (S/C) - causes the release of von Willebrand’s antigen from the platelets and the cells that line the blood vessels where it is stored. Von Willebrand’s antigen is the protein that carries factor VIII.
Tranexamic Acid (IV and Oral - Antifibrinolytic (stops fribrinlysis)

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13
Q

What type of medication can you give for VWD? [3]

A

Medication:
(Von Willebrand disease does not require day to day treatment. Management is required either in response to major bleeding or trauma (to stop bleeding) or in preparation for operations (to prevent bleeding):)

  • Wilate and Voncento- FVIII and vWF (IV)
  • DDAVP (S/C) Desmopressin (mimicking the actions of endogenous ADH)
  • Tranexamic Acid (IV and Oral) - stops heavy bleeding
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14
Q

Which drugs would you use to manage IPF ? [3]

How would you treat IPF via non-pharmacotherapy?

A

Pharmacotherapy:
- Pirfenidone: anti fibrotic agent, decreases pyhysiological deterioration
- Nintedanib : Tyrosine kinase inhibitor. ↓FVC decline
- Antiacid therapy:IPF with gastro-oesophageal reflux

Non-pharmacotherapy:
- Pulmonary rehab (MDT Team & QoL
- Oxygen therapy
- Lung treatment

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15
Q

Which drugs should you NOT combine to treat IPF?

A

A
Prednisone, Azathioprine & NAC = Harmful AEs

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16
Q

What pharmacological treatment consider for sarcoidosis?

A

Treat with corticosteroids (but has negative impact on immune system).

Remember than patients may have spontaneous resolution so have to weigh up options !!

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17
Q

Which drugs would you use to treat a Ptx who had acute sore throat with pharnygitis?

A

Start of treatment is determined by hospital’s microbiology protocol
But:

First choice: Phenoxymethylpenicillin

If allergic:

Clarithromycin
Erythromycin

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18
Q

What can

A

sepsis

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19
Q

Q
Which drugs would you use to manage pneumonia for:

CRB Score 0
CRB Score 1-2
CRB Score 3-4

A

Always follow yourlocal area guidelines. These are developed by looking at the bacteria in the local area for theirantibiotic resistanceso are specific to that population.

CRB Score 0: Amoxicillin or Doxycycline or Clathromycin

CRB Score 1-2: Amoxicillin AND Clathromycin
OR
Doxycycline

CRB Score 3-4: Benzylpenicillin

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20
Q

Which drug do you use to thrombolyse clots in a stroke?

A

Alteplase

BUT must be given 4.5 hours of onset!

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21
Q

What treatment do you use for resp. acidosis? [4]

A

Bronchodilator drugs to reverse some types of airway obstruction
Noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation (sometimes called CPAP or BiPAP) or mechanical ventilation if needed
Opioid drug overdose reversal with naloxone
Oxygen if the blood oxygen level is low – BUT must be careful with oxygen

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22
Q

How should you treat hypoxaemia in Ptx with COPD and chronic hypercapnia? [2]
What is target Hb saturation for this? [1]

A

Controlled oxygen therapy with 24% or 28% O2
with target haemoglobin saturation of 88 – 92% as hypoxaemia is life threatening.
If CO2 does go up and pH falls may need to mechanically ventilate patient

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23
Q

First line treatment for TB? [4]

A

Standard treatment of TB disease is four-drug therapy - treatment with single drug can lead to development of a bacterial population resistant to that drug:

RIPE !

Rifampicin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol

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24
Q

What drug would you initially give to non-haem stroke? [1]

A

A
Aspirin !

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25
How would you manange an acute TIA?
300mg aspirin
26
How do you treat PDA? [2]
Treatment: **prostaglandin inhibitor,** such as **ibuprofen**; **surgery**
27
Q Which drugs would you use to manage pneumonia for: CRB Score 0 CRB Score 1-2 CRB Score 3-4
Always follow yourlocal area guidelines. These are developed by looking at the bacteria in the local area for theirantibiotic resistanceso are specific to that population. CRB Score 0: **Amoxicillin or Doxycycline or Clathromycin** CRB Score 1-2: **Amoxicillin** AND **Clathromycin** OR **Doxycycline** CRB Score 3-4: **Benzylpenicillin**
28
Which antihypertensives should not be used for pregnant / breastfeeding women? [2]
ACE inhibitors AT II receptor antagonists
29
What is Step One Treatment for HTN?
A Offer ACE inhibitor or Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) if have: type 2 diabetes under 55 but not black African / African-Caribbean OR Offer calcium-channel blocker (CCB) who: aged 55 or over AND no type 2 diabetes black African / African-Caribbean
30
What is Step Two Treatment for HTN? If already on ACE inhibitor? [2] If already on CCB? [3]
If on ACE inhibitor: **- Add CCB or thiazide-like diuretic [2]** If on CCB: **- Add ACE inhibitor or ARB or thiazide-like diuretic**
31
Which drug is used as a diagnostic tool in cardiac stress test? Dobutamine Verapamil Diltiazem Amlodipine Clopidogrel
**Dobutamine** Verapamil Diltiazem Amlodipine Clopidogrel
32
What is the MoA of Dobutamine? [1]
**Sympathomimetic β1 agonist** which is used in cardiac stress test and imaging **Increases contractility not rate**
33
Which radioactive tracer is used in SPECT imaging of the myocardim to see perfusion? [1]
**99m-technetium**
34
Name a longer acting alternative to GTN [1]
Isosorbide mono/dinitrate
35
Which of the following acts as a nitrate and also opens potassium channels which hyperpolarises the cell and prevents opening of voltage gated calcium channels so net effect is vasodilation. Nicorandil Amlodipine Nifedipine Verapamil Diltiazem
Which of the following acts as a nitrate and also opens potassium channels which hyperpolarises the cell and prevents opening of voltage gated calcium channels so net effect is vasodilation. **Nicorandil** Amlodipine Nifedipine Verapamil Diltiazem
36
Name two betablockers that reduce HR and LV wall tension [2]
Aten**olol** Propran**olol**
37
How does beta blocker act alongside acting as an anti-sympathomimetic? [1]
Beta blocker **causes down regulation of RAAS** as well as acting as a anti-sympathomimetic
38
Which of the following calcium channel blockers are selective for voltage gated calcium channels in **myocardium** to reduce HR and O2 demand Dobutamine Verapamil Diltiazem Amlodipine Clopidogrel
Which of the following calcium channel blockers are selective for voltage gated calcium channels in myocardium to reduce HR and O2 demand Dobutamine **Verapamil** Diltiazem Amlodipine Clopidogrel
39
Which of the following calcium channel blockers act on both myocardium and vessels for dual effect Dobutamine Verapamil Diltiazem Amlodipine Clopidogrel
Which of the following calcium channel blockers act on both myocardium and vessels for dual effect Dobutamine Verapamil **Diltiazem** Amlodipine Clopidogrel
40
Which of the following calcium channel blockers are selective for voltage gated calcium channels in **blood vessels** to cause vasodilation and decrease TPR. Dobutamine Verapamil Diltiazem Amlodipine Nifedipine
Which of the following calcium channel blockers are selective for voltage gated calcium channels in **blood vessels** to cause vasodilation and decrease TPR. Dobutamine Verapamil Diltiazem **Amlodipine** **Nifedipine**
41
Which drug acts by COX-2 inhibition in platelets for thromboxane A2(TXA2) synthesis [1]
**Aspirin**
42
Which drug acts by blocking P2Y12, an adenosine diphosphate (ADP) on platelet cell membranes? [1]
Clopidogrel
43
Name 4 things that cause acute haemolysis in G6PD deficiency
Fava beans, primaquine, cotrimoxazole, dapsone
44
Warfarin is what class of drug? [1] What is warfarin an antagonist to? [1] What does warfarin act agasint? [6]
**Anticoagulant** **Vit K** antagonist Acts agaisnt **factors II, VII, IX, X** AND **protein C &/ S**
45
Which of the following is used in treatment of VTE / DVT and PE and is a heparin antagonist Fondaparinux Warfarin Protamine Folate
Which of the following an heparin antagonist Fondaparinux Warfarin **Protamine** Folate *Binds heparin to inactivate it. Does not work as well on LMWH*
46
Which of the following is used in treatment of VTE / DVT and PE and is a has high selectivity for just anti-Xa activity and little antithrombin activity. Fondaparinux Warfarin Protamine Folate
Which of the following is used in treatment of VTE / DVT and PE and is a has high selectivity for just anti-Xa activity and little antithrombin activity. **Fondaparinux** Warfarin Protamine Folate
47
What is the first choice treatment for VTE / DVT / PE? [1] What is specific mechanism? [1]
LMWH Anti-Xa effect
48
What is a risk of heparin use for treatment of VTE / DVT / PE? [2]
Heparin induced thrombocytopaenia(HIT) 5-14 days after start(rare) bleeding
49
Which of the following blocks the Na/K/2Cl symporter in the ascending loop of Henle? Chlorthalidone Bendroflumethiazide Furosemide Spironolactone
Which of the following blocks the Na/K/2Cl symporter in the ascending loop of Henle? Chlorthalidone Bendroflumethiazide **Furosemide** Spironolactone
50
AE of furosemide? [1]
Hypokalaemia
51
Which of the following blocks the Na/Cl symporter in the distal convoluted tubule to prevent sodium reabsorption? Chlorthalidone Bendroflumethiazide Furosemide Spironolactone
Which of the following blocks the Na/Cl symporter in the distal convoluted tubule to prevent sodium reabsorption? Chlorthalidone **Bendroflumethiazide** Furosemide Spironolactone
52
Name two drugs that block ACE, resulting in lower SVR [2]
Capto**pril**, lisino**pril**
53
Whoch of the following blocks angiotensin II receptor preventing its vasoconstrictive effects? lisinopril Captopril Spironolactone Losartan Amiloride
Whoch of the following blocks angiotensin II receptor preventing its vasoconstrictive effects? lisinopril Captopril Spironolactone **Losartan** Amiloride
54
Whoch of the following blocks aldosterone transporter? lisinopril Captopril Spironolactone Losartan Amiloride
Whoch of the following blocks aldosterone transporter? lisinopril Captopril **Spironolactone** Losartan Amiloride
55
Which of the following may you prescribe alongside spironlactone to normalise potassium levels? lisinopril Captopril Furosemide Losartan Amiloride
Which of the following may you prescribe alongside spironlactone to normalise potassium levels? lisinopril Captopril **Furosemide** Losartan Amiloride
56
Which of the following epithelial sodium channels(ENaC) in the late DCT, collecting tubules and collecting ducts inhibiting sodium reabsorption there lisinopril Captopril Furosemide Losartan Amiloride
Which of the following pithelial sodium channels(ENaC) in the late DCT, collecting tubules and collecting ducts inhibiting sodium reabsorption there lisinopril Captopril Furosemide Losartan **Amiloride**
56
Which of the following epithelial sodium channels(ENaC) in the late DCT, collecting tubules and collecting ducts inhibiting sodium reabsorption there lisinopril Captopril Furosemide Losartan Amiloride
Which of the following blocks epithelial sodium channels(ENaC) in the late DCT, collecting tubules and collecting ducts inhibiting sodium reabsorption there lisinopril Captopril Furosemide Losartan **Amiloride**
57
Which of the following is an alpha 2 agonist that causes a decrease in CO and vascular tone? Clonidine Carvedilol Propranolol atenolol doxazosin
Which of the following is an antihypertensive alpha 2 agonist that causes a decrease in CO and vascular tone? **Clonidine** Carvedilol Propranolol atenolol doxazosin
58
Which of the following is an alpha 1 antagonist that causes a decrease in CO and vascular tone? Clonidine Carvedilol Propranolol atenolol doxazosin **Name one more**
Which of the following is an alpha 1 antagonist that causes a decrease in CO and vascular tone? Clonidine Carvedilol Propranolol atenolol **doxazosin** **and prazosin**
59
Propranolol is what type of arrythmia drug class?
Class II
60
Which of the following is a β2 agonist that causes short acting smooth muscle relaxation in the bronchioles Salmeterol Beclomethasone Salbutamol Prednisolone Indaceterol
Which of the following is a β2 agonist that causes short acting smooth muscle relaxation in the bronchioles Salmeterol Beclomethasone **Salbutamol** Prednisolone Indaceterol
61
Which of the following is an asthma drugs that is a β2 agonist that causes long acting smooth muscle relaxation (LABA) in the bronchioles [2] Salmeterol Beclomethasone Salbutamol Prednisolone Indaceterol
Which of the following is a β2 agonist that causes long acting smooth muscle relaxation (LABA) in the bronchioles [2] **Salmeterol** Beclomethasone Salbutamol Prednisolone **Indaceterol**
62
Which of the following acts on steroid receptor to modify nuclear expression, in this case it prevents inflammatory expression for asthma treatment? Salmeterol Beclomethasone Salbutamol Prednisolone Indaceterol
Which of the following acts on steroid receptor to modify nuclear expression, in this case it prevents inflammatory expression for asthma / COPD treatment? Salmeterol Beclomethasone Salbutamol **Prednisolone** Indaceterol
63
Asthma treatments is a corticosteroid? [2] Salmeterol Beclomethasone Salbutamol Prednisolone Indaceterol
Asthma treatments is a corticosteroid? Salmeterol **Beclomethasone** Salbutamol **Prednisolone** Indaceterol
64
Which of the following is associated with Cushings syndrome in long term use? Salmeterol Beclomethasone Salbutamol Prednisolone Indaceterol
Which of the following is associated with Cushings syndrome in long term use? Salmeterol Beclomethasone Salbutamol **Prednisolone** Indaceterol
65
Which of the following is associated with Cushings syndrome in long term use? Salmeterol Beclomethasone Salbutamol Prednisolone Indaceterol
Which of the following is associated with Cushings syndrome in long term use? Salmeterol Beclomethasone Salbutamol **Prednisolone** Indaceterol
66
Which of the following is a corticosteroid used to treat asthma but acts locally upon inhalation? Salmeterol Beclomethasone Salbutamol Prednisolone Indaceterol
Which of the following is a corticosteroid used to treat asthma but acts locally upon inhalation? Salmeterol **Beclomethasone** Salbutamol Prednisolone Indaceterol
67
Which of the following is a leukotriene antagonist used in asthma / COPD control? Tiotropium Ipratropium Montelukast Theophylline Beclomethasone
Which of the following is a leukotriene antagonist? Tiotropium Ipratropium **Montelukast** Theophylline Beclomethasone
67
Which of the following is a LAMA used in asthma / COPD control? [2] Tiotropium Ipratropium Montelukast Theophylline Beclomethasone
Which of the following is a SAMA used in asthma / COPD control? Tiotropium **Ipratropium** Montelukast Theophylline Beclomethasone
68
Which of the following treatments for TB blocks causes mycoloic acid synthesis [2] Rifampicin Isoniazid Pyrazinamide Ethambutol
Which of the following treatments for TB blocks causes mycoloic acid synthesis Rifampicin **Isoniazid** Pyrazinamide **Ethambutol**
69
Which of the following stains bodily secretions orange Rifampicin Isoniazid Pyrazinamide Ethambutol
Which of the following stains bodily secretions orange **Rifampicin** Isoniazid Pyrazinamide Ethambutol
70
Which of the following blocks bacterial RNA polymerase for the treatment of TB Rifampicin Isoniazid Pyrazinamide Ethambutol
Which of the following blocks bacterial RNA polymerase for the treatment of TB **Rifampicin** Isoniazid Pyrazinamide Ethambutol
71
Which of the following is a prodrug which is converted to pyrazinoic acid and disrupts the membrane potential in TB causing death Rifampicin Isoniazid Pyrazinamide Ethambutol
Which of the following is a prodrug which is converted to pyrazinoic acid and disrupts the membrane potential in TB causing death Rifampicin Isoniazid **Pyrazinamide** Ethambutol
72
You are attending a cardiology clinic one afternoon. A 56-year-old man presents for a medication review. He is currently taking a beta-blocker but is still frequently symptomatic. From his medication history, it is evident that he does not tolerate calcium channel blockers. The consultant considers the option of starting him on a new drug called nicorandil. Strangely enough, the patient feels that nicorandil is a calcium channel blocker and is not keen to try it out. You have been asked to explain the mechanism of the new drug to this patient. What is the mechanism through which the new drug exerts its effect? Causes vasoconstriction by activating guanylyl cyclase which causes an increase in cGMP Causes vasodilation by inactivating ATP-sensitive potassium channels Causes vasodilation by increasing intracellular calcium load Causes vasodilation by activating guanylyl cyclase which causes an increase in cGMP Causes vasodilation by inhibiting guanylyl cyclase which causes an increase in cGMP
You are attending a cardiology clinic one afternoon. A 56-year-old man presents for a medication review. He is currently taking a beta-blocker but is still frequently symptomatic. From his medication history, it is evident that he does not tolerate calcium channel blockers. The consultant considers the option of starting him on a new drug called nicorandil. Strangely enough, the patient feels that nicorandil is a calcium channel blocker and is not keen to try it out. You have been asked to explain the mechanism of the new drug to this patient. What is the mechanism through which the new drug exerts its effect? Causes vasoconstriction by activating guanylyl cyclase which causes an increase in cGMP Causes vasodilation by inactivating ATP-sensitive potassium channels Causes vasodilation by increasing intracellular calcium load **Causes vasodilation by activating guanylyl cyclase which causes an increase in cGMP** Causes vasodilation by inhibiting guanylyl cyclase which causes an increase in cGMP
73
A 65-year-old lady attends the GP surgery for a routine hypertension review. She has been taking amlodipine for a year and although her blood pressure is well controlled her ankles often become swollen. The ankle swelling is worse at the end of the day since starting amlodipine. The GP decides to prescribe a diuretic instead of amlodipine. Which of the following diuretics acts on the sodium-chloride transporter of the distal tubule? Acetazolamide (carbonic anhydrase inhibitor) Bendroflumethiazide (thiazide diuretic) Furosemide (loop diuretic) Spironolactone (potassium-sparing diuretic) Mannitol (osmotic diuretic)
A 65-year-old lady attends the GP surgery for a routine hypertension review. She has been taking amlodipine for a year and although her blood pressure is well controlled her ankles often become swollen. The ankle swelling is worse at the end of the day since starting amlodipine. The GP decides to prescribe a diuretic instead of amlodipine. Which of the following diuretics acts on the sodium-chloride transporter of the distal tubule? Acetazolamide (carbonic anhydrase inhibitor) **Bendroflumethiazide (thiazide diuretic)** Furosemide (loop diuretic) Spironolactone (potassium-sparing diuretic) Mannitol (osmotic diuretic)
74
A 71-year-old gentleman is admitted to the renal ward with acute kidney injury after having diarrhoea and vomiting for 4 days. Blood tests show that his potassium is below normal limits. You note that this is likely due to his gastrointestinal symptoms. You check his medications to ensure nothing is making the situation worse. You find that he is on diuretic therapy for the treatment of heart failure. Which of the following diuretics is associated with hypokalaemia? Triamterene Bumetanide Amiloride Spironolactone Eplerenone
A 71-year-old gentleman is admitted to the renal ward with acute kidney injury after having diarrhoea and vomiting for 4 days. Blood tests show that his potassium is below normal limits. You note that this is likely due to his gastrointestinal symptoms. You check his medications to ensure nothing is making the situation worse. You find that he is on diuretic therapy for the treatment of heart failure. Which of the following diuretics is associated with hypokalaemia? Triamterene **Bumetanide** Amiloride Spironolactone Eplerenone Loop diuretics may cause hypokalaemia
75
A 55-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department with sudden onset chest pain. His ECG shows ST depression in leads II, III, & aVF. His troponin is also found to be raised. He is treated for an NSTEMI (non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction), and as part of this treatment regime, he is given ticagrelor. What is the mechanism of action of this drug? Activates antithrombin III which mainly inhibits factors Xa and IIa Inhibits ADP binding to platelet receptors Inhibits prothrombinase complex-bound and clot-associated factor Xa Inhibits the production of prostaglandins Inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase complex 1
A 55-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department with sudden onset chest pain. His ECG shows ST depression in leads II, III, & aVF. His troponin is also found to be raised. He is treated for an NSTEMI (non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction), and as part of this treatment regime, he is given ticagrelor. What is the mechanism of action of this drug? Activates antithrombin III which mainly inhibits factors Xa and IIa **Inhibits ADP binding to platelet receptors** Inhibits prothrombinase complex-bound and clot-associated factor Xa Inhibits the production of prostaglandins Inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase complex 1 Ticagrelor has a similar mechanism of action to clopidogrel - inhibits ADP binding to platelet receptors
76
A 45-year-old female is found to have a blood pressure of 185/102mmHg following ambulatory blood pressure monitoring. She is started on the ACE inhibitor Ramipril. What is the most common side effect of this drug? A dry cough Oedema Shortness of breath Excessive urine output Headaches
A 45-year-old female is found to have a blood pressure of 185/102mmHg following ambulatory blood pressure monitoring. She is started on the ACE inhibitor Ramipril. What is the most common side effect of this drug? **A dry cough** Oedema Shortness of breath Excessive urine output Headaches
77
You are a medical student in general practice. A 67-year-old female attends for an annual checkup of her blood pressure. She has GTN spray at home. How does nitric oxide result in vasodilation? Directly opens K+ channels Directly opens Ca2+ channels Activates guanylate cyclase Inhibits the release of Bradykinin Activates cAMP
You are a medical student in general practice. A 67-year-old female attends for an annual checkup of her blood pressure. She has GTN spray at home. How does nitric oxide result in vasodilation? Directly opens K+ channels Directly opens Ca2+ channels **Activates guanylate cyclase** Inhibits the release of Bradykinin Activates cAMP
78
A baby is born at 36 weeks via an emergency cesarean section. His mother lives in a cottage up in the mountains. The baby looks healthy and is administered a dose of Vitamin K soon after birth. She is discharged the next day with a happy, healthy baby. Six weeks later, she presents to the hospital with the baby after she noticed increased work of breathing and difficulty while feeding. On auscultation of her heart, a continuous 'machinery' murmur is heard and is loudest at the left sternal edge. The cardiologist arrives at the scene and instructs that the child is given a dose of indomethacin. What is the mode of action of indomethacin? Endothelin receptor antagonist Phosphodiesterase inhibitor Prostaglandin synthase inhibitor Endothelin receptor agonist Adenosine receptor antagonist
A baby is born at 36 weeks via an emergency cesarean section. His mother lives in a cottage up in the mountains. The baby looks healthy and is administered a dose of Vitamin K soon after birth. She is discharged the next day with a happy, healthy baby. Six weeks later, she presents to the hospital with the baby after she noticed increased work of breathing and difficulty while feeding. On auscultation of her heart, a continuous 'machinery' murmur is heard and is loudest at the left sternal edge. The cardiologist arrives at the scene and instructs that the child is given a dose of indomethacin. What is the mode of action of indomethacin? Endothelin receptor antagonist Phosphodiesterase inhibitor **Prostaglandin synthase inhibitor** Endothelin receptor agonist Adenosine receptor antagonist *Indomethacin inhibits prostaglandin synthesis in infants with patent ductus arteriosus*
79
A 74-year-old female was with urinary incontinence presents to the urogynaecology clinic. She was diagnosed with overactive bladder incontinence, and was started on pharmacological treatment which antagonises the parasympathetic pathway. Which of the following have a similar mechanism of action with the drug she was prescribed? Alfuzosin Meropenem Mirabegron Atropine Adenosine
A 74-year-old female was with urinary incontinence presents to the urogynaecology clinic. She was diagnosed with overactive bladder incontinence, and was started on pharmacological treatment which antagonises the parasympathetic pathway. Which of the following have a similar mechanism of action with the drug she was prescribed? Alfuzosin Meropenem Mirabegron **Atropine** Adenosine | Atropine is an antimuscarinic
80
Whilst in general practice, you review Susan a 48-year-old patient with hypertension. Despite taking ramipril, her blood pressure remains clinically elevated. Based on current guidelines you consider add-on therapy with a thiazide-like diuretic. Which of the following electrolyte disturbances may occur with this new treatment? Hypercalciuria Hyperkalaemia Hypermagnesemia Hypokalaemia Hypolipidaemia
Whilst in general practice, you review Susan a 48-year-old patient with hypertension. Despite taking ramipril, her blood pressure remains clinically elevated. Based on current guidelines you consider add-on therapy with a thiazide-like diuretic. Which of the following electrolyte disturbances may occur with this new treatment? Hypercalciuria Hyperkalaemia Hypermagnesemia **Hypokalaemia** Hypolipidaemia
81
A 65-year-old patient with chronic kidney disease is found to have a deficiency of antithrombin III after he presented to emergency department with left leg pain and swelling. A doppler-ultrasound scan of the leg confirms deep venous thrombosis (DVT). The patient is started on dabigatran. What is the mechanism of action of dabigatran? Activates anti-thrombin III P2Y12 inhibitor Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor Direct thrombin inhibitor Direct factor X activator
A 65-year-old patient with chronic kidney disease is found to have a deficiency of antithrombin III after he presented to emergency department with left leg pain and swelling. A doppler-ultrasound scan of the leg confirms deep venous thrombosis (DVT). The patient is started on dabigatran. What is the mechanism of action of dabigatran? Activates anti-thrombin III P2Y12 inhibitor Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor **Direct thrombin inhibitor** Direct factor X activator
82
Question 103 of 203 An 82-year-old lady with a history of heart failure presents to the general practice with a 5-day history of constipation. On further questioning, she tells you that she has been feeling weaker this week, and has been getting muscle cramps regularly On examination, there is reduced tone and hyporeflexia bilaterally in both the upper and lower limbs. You think this lady's presentation may be due to hypokalaemia. The patient takes a number of diuretics to control her heart failure. Which of the following diuretics is associated with hypokalaemia? Triamterene Furosemide Spironolactone Eplerenone Amiloride
Question 103 of 203 An 82-year-old lady with a history of heart failure presents to the general practice with a 5-day history of constipation. On further questioning, she tells you that she has been feeling weaker this week, and has been getting muscle cramps regularly On examination, there is reduced tone and hyporeflexia bilaterally in both the upper and lower limbs. You think this lady's presentation may be due to hypokalaemia. The patient takes a number of diuretics to control her heart failure. Which of the following diuretics is associated with hypokalaemia? Triamterene **Furosemide** Spironolactone Eplerenone Amiloride
83
A patient with a history of peripheral vascular disease presents to his GP with essential hypertension. Which of the following drugs may exacerbate his peripheral vascular symptoms? Ramipril Atenolol Spironolactone Hydrochlorothiazide Furosemide
A patient with a history of peripheral vascular disease presents to his GP with essential hypertension. Which of the following drugs may exacerbate his peripheral vascular symptoms? Ramipril **Atenolol** Spironolactone Hydrochlorothiazide Furosemide
84
A 60-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of sudden numbness of his right arm and right leg. On examination, he has decreased sensation and 3 out of 5 power throughout his right arm and right leg. A head CT reveals ischaemia along the area of the left middle cerebral artery. After initial management, he is deemed to be unfit to be prescribed clopidogrel and instead is prescribed aspirin and another antiplatelet that works by inhibiting phosphodiesterase. What medication was this patient likely prescribed in addition to the aspirin? Dipyridamole Heparin Ticagrelor Prasugrel Apixaban
A 60-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of sudden numbness of his right arm and right leg. On examination, he has decreased sensation and 3 out of 5 power throughout his right arm and right leg. A head CT reveals ischaemia along the area of the left middle cerebral artery. After initial management, he is deemed to be unfit to be prescribed clopidogrel and instead is prescribed aspirin and another antiplatelet that works by inhibiting phosphodiesterase. What medication was this patient likely prescribed in addition to the aspirin? **Dipyridamole** Heparin Ticagrelor Prasugrel Apixaban
85
A 63-year-old male presents to GP with mild chest pain and dyspnoea. The patient is normally fit and well with no significant medical history. He has a family history of heart disease with his dad passing away following a heart attack last year. The GP decides to do an ECG to confirm the diagnosis and suspects atrial flutter. Given the diagnosis, which of the following findings would you expect to see on an ECG? Broad complex tachycardia Narrow complex tachycardia Heart rate of 175/min Heart rate of 58/min Prolonged QT interval
A 63-year-old male presents to GP with mild chest pain and dyspnoea. The patient is normally fit and well with no significant medical history. He has a family history of heart disease with his dad passing away following a heart attack last year. The GP decides to do an ECG to confirm the diagnosis and suspects atrial flutter. Given the diagnosis, which of the following findings would you expect to see on an ECG? Broad complex tachycardia **Narrow complex tachycardia** Heart rate of 175/min Heart rate of 58/min Prolonged QT interval
86
A 53-year-old woman is reviewed in the hypertension clinic. Her past medical history includes depression and gout. Two months ago she was started on lisinopril for hypertension. The dose was gradually titrated up and her urea and electrolytes were monitored. Today she complains of a dry cough which has got gradually worse over the past four weeks. She describes it as being 'really annoying' and complains that it keeps her up at night. She is a non-smoker and a chest x-ray performed during an Emergency Department visit six weeks ago was normal. What is the most appropriate action with respect to her anti-hypertensive medications? Reassure her that the majority of ACE related coughs resolve within three months Switch her to an angiotensin II receptor blocker Switch her to bendroflumethiazide Switch her to amlodipine Explain that as the cough developed four weeks after starting treatment it is unlikely to be ACE related
A 53-year-old woman is reviewed in the hypertension clinic. Her past medical history includes depression and gout. Two months ago she was started on lisinopril for hypertension. The dose was gradually titrated up and her urea and electrolytes were monitored. Today she complains of a dry cough which has got gradually worse over the past four weeks. She describes it as being 'really annoying' and complains that it keeps her up at night. She is a non-smoker and a chest x-ray performed during an Emergency Department visit six weeks ago was normal. What is the most appropriate action with respect to her anti-hypertensive medications? Reassure her that the majority of ACE related coughs resolve within three months **Switch her to an angiotensin II receptor blocker** Switch her to bendroflumethiazide Switch her to amlodipine Explain that as the cough developed four weeks after starting treatment it is unlikely to be ACE related
87
A 53-year-old woman is reviewed in the hypertension clinic. Her past medical history includes depression and gout. Two months ago she was started on lisinopril for hypertension. The dose was gradually titrated up and her urea and electrolytes were monitored. Today she complains of a dry cough which has got gradually worse over the past four weeks. She describes it as being 'really annoying' and complains that it keeps her up at night. She is a non-smoker and a chest x-ray performed during an Emergency Department visit six weeks ago was normal. What is the most appropriate action with respect to her anti-hypertensive medications? Reassure her that the majority of ACE related coughs resolve within three months Switch her to an angiotensin II receptor blocker Switch her to bendroflumethiazide Switch her to amlodipine Explain that as the cough developed four weeks after starting treatment it is unlikely to be ACE related
A 53-year-old woman is reviewed in the hypertension clinic. Her past medical history includes depression and gout. Two months ago she was started on lisinopril for hypertension. The dose was gradually titrated up and her urea and electrolytes were monitored. Today she complains of a dry cough which has got gradually worse over the past four weeks. She describes it as being 'really annoying' and complains that it keeps her up at night. She is a non-smoker and a chest x-ray performed during an Emergency Department visit six weeks ago was normal. What is the most appropriate action with respect to her anti-hypertensive medications? Reassure her that the majority of ACE related coughs resolve within three months **Switch her to an angiotensin II receptor blocker** Switch her to bendroflumethiazide Switch her to amlodipine Explain that as the cough developed four weeks after starting treatment it is unlikely to be ACE related
88
A 68-year-old man has recently been discharged from hospital following a non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI). He has a history of angina, hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia and was already taking aspirin, atorvastatin, bisoprolol and ramipril prior to his NSTEMI. Following his hospital discharge, he has been instructed to also take ticagrelor for the next 12 months. What is the mechanism of action of this newly-started drug? Activated factor X (Xa) inhibitor Cyclooxygenase inhibitor Direct thrombin inhibitor Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist P2Y12 receptor antagonist
A 68-year-old man has recently been discharged from hospital following a non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI). He has a history of angina, hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia and was already taking aspirin, atorvastatin, bisoprolol and ramipril prior to his NSTEMI. Following his hospital discharge, he has been instructed to also take ticagrelor for the next 12 months. What is the mechanism of action of this newly-started drug? Activated factor X (Xa) inhibitor Cyclooxygenase inhibitor Direct thrombin inhibitor Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist **P2Y12 receptor antagonist**
89
Q How would you treat someone with acute failure? a) immediately? [2] b) after stabilisation? [3] c) ongoing management? [2]
Immediately: Pharmalogical: **O2 & duiretic** Non Pharmalogical: **ventilation; ultrafiltration** After stabalisation: **ACE-I/ARB, beta-blocker, aldosterone inhibitor** Ongoing management: **Valve surgery; revasc; transplant**
90
Drug used to treat IPF? [1]
Pirfenidone
91
How do you treat a/b thalassemia? [1]
Thalassaemia major (a+b) treatment: **Regular blood transfusion** BUT: can get Iron overload from constant blood transfusion: this happens because excess haemolysis can lead to excess free iron in blood (usually bound to ferritin in the spleen), which is oxidising
92
How would you treat arrhythmias caused by dilated cardiomyopathy? [3] What is another treatment possibility? [1]
Medication to treat blood clots (**anti coagulants)** **Pacemaker**: control rhythm of heart **ICD**: shock heart if need to go into normal rhythm **Surgery**: remove areas of heart muscle / whole heart transport
93
# Anti-hypertensives: Which of the following class of drug does indapamide fall into? ACE inhibitors: Angiotensin-II receptor antagonists Calcium-channel blocker Diuretics Beta-blockers
Which of the following class of drug does indapamide fall into? ACE inhibitors: Angiotensin-II receptor antagonists Calcium-channel blocker **Diuretics** thiazide-like diuretic Beta-blockers
94
Which of the following class of drug does metoprolol fall into? ACE inhibitors: Angiotensin-II receptor antagonists Calcium-channel blocker Diuretics Beta-blockers
Which of the following class of drug does metoprolol fall into? ACE inhibitors: Angiotensin-II receptor antagonists Calcium-channel blocker Diuretics **Beta-blockers**
95
Which of the following class of drug does amlodipine fall into? ACE inhibitors: Angiotensin-II receptor antagonists Calcium-channel blocker Diuretics Beta-blockers
Which of the following class of drug does amlodipine fall into? ACE inhibitors: Angiotensin-II receptor antagonists **Calcium-channel blocker** Diuretics Beta-blockers
96
Which of the following class of drug does enalapril fall into? ACE inhibitors: Angiotensin-II receptor antagonists Calcium-channel blocker Diuretics Beta-blockers
Which of the following class of drug does enalapril fall into? **ACE inhibitors**: Angiotensin-II receptor antagonists Calcium-channel blocker Diuretics Beta-blockers
97
Which of the following class of drug does losartan fall into? ACE inhibitors: Angiotensin-II receptor antagonists Calcium-channel blocker Diuretics Beta-blockers
Which of the following class of drug does losartan fall into? ACE inhibitors: **Angiotensin-II receptor antagonists** Calcium-channel blocker Diuretics Beta-blockers
98
Which of the following prevents the conversion of arachidonic acid to thromboxane A2 Heparin Warfarin Aspirin Dabigatran Edoxaban
Which of the following prevents the conversion of arachidonic acid to thromboxane A2 Heparin Warfarin **Aspirin** Dabigatran Edoxaban
99
Explain the mechanism of action of aspirin [3]
Non-selective for **COX-1 and COX 2** enzymes (prevent aggregation) COX 2 inhibition **prevents arachidonic acid** conversion to **Thromboxane A2** Thus preventing Thromboxane A2 formation, **preventing platelet aggregation**.
100
Which of the following can cause thrombocytopenia Heparin Warfarin Aspirin Dabigatran Dipyridamole
Which of the following can cause thrombocytopenia **Heparin** Warfarin Aspirin Dabigatran Dipyridamole
101
Which of the following should not be used in pregnancy Heparin Warfarin Aspirin Dabigatran Dipyridamole
Which of the following should not be used in pregnancy Heparin **Warfarin**: teratogenic Aspirin Dabigatran Dipyridamole
102
Name a drug that is a synthetic Factor Xa inhbitor [1]
**Fondaprinux**
103
Which of the following is a non-specific phosphodiesterase inhibitor Heparin Warfarin Aspirin Dabigatran Dipyridamole
Which of the following is a non-specific phosphodiesterase inhibitor **Dipyridamole** Inhibits both adenosine deaminase and phosphodiesterase, preventing the degradation of cAMP, an inhibitor of platelet function
104
Name four DOACs [4]
Dabigatran Rivaroxaban Apixaban Edoxaban
105
Describe MoA of the DOACs: Rivaroxaban Apixaban Edoxaban
**Direct factor Xa inhibitor** (more modern version of heparin)
106
Explain mechanism of action of Dabigatran [1]
**Direct thrombin inhibitor**
107
Which of the following is not a direct factor Xa inhibitor Rivaroxaban Apixaban Edoxaban Dabigatran
Which of the following is not a direct factor Xa inhibitor Rivaroxaban Apixaban Edoxaban **Dabigatran**: direct thrombin inhibitor
108
Name two thrombolytic drugs [2]
Streptokinase Alteplase (tPA)
109
Describe the MoA of: [2] Streptokinase Alteplase (tPA)
**Streptokinase**: Clot buster; Activates fibrinolytic pathway **Alteplase (tPA)**: Increase clot; breakdown by increasing Plasmin formation
110
Which of the following inhibits L type calcium channel [2] Amlodipine Nicorandil Diatelzem Lisinopril Verapamil
Which of the following inhibits L type calcium channel **Amlodipine** Nicorandil Diatelzem Lisinopril **Verapamil**
111
Which of the following drug is for voltage gated calcium channels in myocardium to reduce HR and O2 demand? Amlodipine Nicorandil Diatelzem Lisinopril Verapamil
Which of the following drug is for voltage gated calcium channels in myocardium to reduce HR and O2 demand? Amlodipine Nicorandil Diatelzem Lisinopril **Verapamil** - CCB
112
Which of the following is a CCB that acts on both myocardium and vessels for dual effect? Amlodipine Nicorandil Diatelzem Lisinopril Verapamil
Which of the following is a CCB that acts on both myocardium and vessels for dual effect? Amlodipine Nicorandil **Diatelzem** Lisinopril Verapamil
113
Which of the following is a vasodilator that opens potassium channels which hyperpolarises the cell and prevents opening of voltage gated calcium channels and causes release of NO? Amlodipine Nicorandil Diatelzem Lisinopril Verapamil
Which of the following is a vasodilator that opens potassium channels which hyperpolarises the cell and prevents opening of voltage gated calcium channels and causes release of NO? Amlodipine **Nicorandil** Diatelzem Lisinopril Verapamil
114
Which of the following that particularly reduces peripheral vascular resistance / lowers peripheral BP? Amlodipine Nicorandil Diatelzem Lisinopril Verapamil
Which of the following that particularly reduces peripheral vascular resistance / lowers peripheral BP? **Amlodipine** Bind to L-Type calcium channel Peripheral arterial vasodilator Reduce peripheral vascular resistance – lower BP Calcium channel antagonist (smooth + cardiac muscle)
115
Which of the following reduce heart rates by prolonging refractory period of AVN? Amlodipine Nicorandil Diatelzem Lisinopril Verapamil
**Verapamil** - CCB Inhibit L-Type calcium channel Reduce contractility and peripheral resistance Reduce heart rate by prolonging refractory period of AVN.
116
Which of the following can cause severe hypotension as an AE? Amlodipine Nicorandil Diatelzem Lisinopril Verapamil
Which of the following can cause severe hypotension as an AE? **Amlodipine** Nicorandil Diatelzem Lisinopril Verapamil
117
Name a statin [1]
Rosuvostatin
118
State the MoA of Rosuvostatin [3]
**Competitive inhibitor** of **HMG-CoA Reductase** Reduction of the **mevalonate** **pathway** **Inhibit cholesterol synthesis** **Inhibit LDL uptake, VLDL synthesis.**
119
What is an AE of statin use like Rosuvostatin? [1]
rhabdomyolysis
120
Name three ACE-inhibitors [3]
Ramipril Lisinopril Captopril
121
Explain MoA of Ramipril [3]
Converted to **ramiprilat** **Inhibits ACE**, stop ACE-1 --> ACE-II conversion **Reduce sodium and H2O reabsorption** Reduces **peripheral vascular resistance.**
122
State an a common side effect of ACE-Inhibitor [1]
ACE breaks down **bradykinin**: causes **Dry COUGH**
123
Explain effect of ACE-Inhibitor like Ramipril on K levels [1]
**Hyperkalaemia** (Less Angiotensin II, NO aldosterone, less K secreted, less Na reabsorbed)
124
Name two ARBs
Valsartan Losartan
125
Which of the following would you prescribe if a patient has ACE-I intolerance? Losartan Captopril lisinopril Digoxin Ivabradine
Which of the following would you prescribe if a patient has ACE-I intolerance? **Losartan** - ARB Captopril lisinopril Digoxin Ivabradine
126
Which of the following is an inotrope? Losartan Captopril lisinopril Digoxin Ivabradine
Which of the following is an inotrope? Losartan Captopril lisinopril **Digoxin** increases the force of **myocardial contraction** and **reduces conductivity within the atrioventricular (AV) node.** Ivabradine
127
Describe the MoA of Digoxin [2]
increases the **force of myocardial contraction** and **reduces conductivity** within the **atrioventricular (AV) node** **Stimulate Vagus Nerve**, **reduce** **circulating** **noradrenaline** = lower heart rate
128
Name a common AE of digoxin
Gynaecomastia
129
Which of the following has a risk of gynaecomastia? Losartan Captopril lisinopril Digoxin Ivabradine
Which of the following has a risk of gynaecomastia? Losartan Captopril lisinopril **Digoxin** Ivabradine
130
Name the diuretic that works by blocking epithelial sodium channels in in the late DCT, collecting tubules and collecting ducts Amiloride Spironolactone Atenolol Propranolol Carvedilol
Name the diuretic that works by blocking epithelial sodium channels in in the late DCT, collecting tubules and collecting ducts **Amiloride** Spironolactone Atenolol Propranolol Carvedilol
131
Describe the difference between Propranolol & atenolol [2]
Both decrease HR and RAAS. Propranolol is **non-selective** Atenolol is **β1 selective**
132
Which of the following is an α2-agonist that causes a decrease in CO and vascular tone Clonidine Propranolol Atenolol Prazosin Doxazosin
Which of the following is an α2-agonist that causes a decrease in CO and vascular tone **Clonidine** Propranolol Atenolol Prazosin Doxazosin
133
Which of the following is an α2-agonist that causes a decrease in CO and vascular tone Clonidine Propranolol Atenolol Prazosin Doxazosin
Which of the following is an α2-agonist that causes a decrease in CO and vascular tone **Clonidine** Propranolol Atenolol Prazosin Doxazosin
134
Which of the following blocks α1 in vascular smooth muscle causing it to vasodilate [2] Clonidine Propranolol Atenolol Prazosin Doxazosin
Which of the following blocks α1 in vascular smooth muscle causing it to vasodilate Clonidine Propranolol Atenolol **Prazosin** **Doxazosin**
135
Name a drug that Inhibits collagen synthesis, down-regulates profibrotic cytokines and decreases fibroblast proliferation? [1]
**Pirfenidone**: used to treat IPF
136
Name a drug that may given for patients contraindicated for beta blocker use [1] Explain MoA [2]
**Ivabradine** Hyperpolarization-activated cyclic nucleotide-gated (**HCN**) **channel blockers** **Slows heart rate**
137
What is the first line treatment for Asthma? Salbutamol Salmeterol Beclomethasone (Becotide) Montelukast Prednisolone
What is the first line treatment for Asthma? **Salbutamol** Salmeterol Beclomethasone (Becotide) Montelukast Ipratropium
138
Name 4 AEs of salbutamol [5]
**trembling, particularly in the hands** nervous tension headaches suddenly noticeable heartbeats (palpitations) muscle cramps
139
Which of the following is a Long-Acting Beta-2 Agonist (LABA) Salbutamol Salmeterol Beclomethasone (Becotide) Montelukast Prednisolone
Which of the following is a Long-Acting Beta-2 Agonist (LABA) Salbutamol **Salmeterol** Beclomethasone (Becotide) Montelukast Ipratropiuma
140
Which of the following is a maintenance therapy and combined with glucocorticoid for asthma treatment? Salbutamol Salmeterol Beclomethasone (Becotide) Montelukast Prednisolone
Which of the following is a maintenance therapy and combined with glucocorticoid for asthma treatment? Salbutamol **Salmeterol** Beclomethasone (Becotide) Montelukast Ipratropiuma
141
Which of the following is a maintenance therapy and combined with glucocorticoid for asthma treatment? Salbutamol Salmeterol Beclomethasone (Becotide) Montelukast Prednisolone
Which of the following is a maintenance therapy and combined with glucocorticoid for asthma treatment? Salbutamol **Salmeterol** Beclomethasone (Becotide) Montelukast Prednisolone
142
Which of the following is a corticosteroid used to treat asthma and acts more globally Salbutamol Salmeterol Beclomethasone (Becotide) Montelukast Prednisolone
Which of the following is a corticosteroid used to treat asthma and acts more globally Salbutamol Salmeterol Beclomethasone (Becotide) Montelukast **Prednisolone**
143
Which of the following is a corticosteroid used to treat asthma and acts more locally Salbutamol Salmeterol Beclomethasone (Becotide) Montelukast Prednisolone
Which of the following is a corticosteroid used to treat asthma and acts more locally Salbutamol Salmeterol **Beclomethasone (Becotide)** Montelukast Prednisolone
144
Which of the following is associated with Cushings disease if long term use occurs Salbutamol Salmeterol Beclomethasone (Becotide) Montelukast Prednisolone
Which of the following is associated with Cushings disease if long term use occurs Salbutamol Salmeterol Beclomethasone (Becotide) Montelukast **Prednisolone**
145
Which of the following treatment for asthma can be associated with oral thrush? Salbutamol Salmeterol Beclomethasone (Becotide) Montelukast Prednisolone
Which of the following treatment for asthma can be associated with oral thrush? Salbutamol Salmeterol **Beclomethasone (Becotide)** Montelukast Prednisolone
146
Which of the following is a leukotriene antagonist to treat asthma? Salbutamol Salmeterol Beclomethasone (Becotide) Montelukast Prednisolone
Which of the following is a leukotriene antagonist to treat asthma? Salbutamol Salmeterol Beclomethasone (Becotide) **Montelukast** Prednisolone
147
What are the 4 drugs used to treat TB? [4]
What are the 4 drugs used to treat TB? [4] Rifampicin Isoniazid Pyrazinamide Ethambutol
148
Which of the following treats TB by blocking mycolic acid synthesis required for mycobacterial cell wall synthesis? Rifampicin Isoniazid Pyrazinamide Ethambutol
Which of the following treats TB by blocking mycolic acid synthesis required for mycobacterial cell wall synthesis? Rifampicin **Isoniazid** Pyrazinamide Ethambutol
149
Which of the following is a prodrug which is converted to pyrazinoic acid and disrupts the membrane potential in TB causing death? Rifampicin Isoniazid Pyrazinamide Ethambutol
Which of the following is a prodrug which is converted to pyrazinoic acid and disrupts the membrane potential in TB causing death? Rifampicin Isoniazid **Pyrazinamide** Ethambutol
150
Which of the following blocks mycolic acid synthesis? Rifampicin Isoniazid Pyrazinamide Ethambutol
Which of the following blocks mycolic acid synthesis? Rifampicin Isoniazid Pyrazinamide **Ethambutol**
151
Which of the following blocks bacterial RNA polymerase to treat TB? Rifampicin Isoniazid Pyrazinamide Ethambutol
Which of the following blocks bacterial RNA polymerase to treat TB? **Rifampicin** Isoniazid Pyrazinamide Ethambutol
152
Alongside prescribing oxygen, which other drug would you give someone with acute heart failure? diuretic ACE-I/ARB beta-blocker aldosterone inhibitor
Alongside prescribing oxygen, which other drug would you give someone with acute heart failure? **diuretic** ACE-I/ARB beta-blocker aldosterone inhibitor
153
Which of the following medications works by relaxing vascular smooth muscle that leads to increased coronary blood flow? A Glyceryl trinitrate B Ivabradine C Amlodipine D Ranolazine E Bisoprolol
**GTN**
154
Describe the MoA of Nicorandil [1]
Nicorandil: **potassium channel agonist**, which inhibits voltage-gated calcium channels leading to muscle relaxation
155
Describe the MoA of Ivabradin [1]
Ivabradine: lowers heart rate through inhibition of cardiac ‘funny channels’
156
Describe the MoA of Amlodopine [1]
CCB: Blocks the action of **L-type calcium channels** - works at **cardiac and vascular tissue**
157
Describe the MoA of apixaban
Apixaban is a type of medicine known as an anticoagulant is a direct inhibitor of activated factor X (factor Xa)
158
On examination, she has an irregular pulse at 130 bpm. An ECG is performed, which reveals an irregularly irregular rhythm and an absence of P waves. Her CHA2DS2-VASc score is 3. What is the most appropriate initial treatment option from the choices below?
In patients with persistent AF the recommended management is rate control drugs (e.g. beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers) and anti-coagulation according to risk stratification.
159
Describe the MoA of clonidine [1]
**Stimulate presynaptic α2-adrenergic receptors in the CNS** → dilates peripheral blood vessels → lowers peripheral resistance → reduces blood pressure
160
Describe the difference in action and therapeutic effect of the following types of CCBs: Dihydropyridine: Non-dihydropyridine
**Dihydropyridine**: predominantly anti-hypertensive effects; block the action of **L-type calcium channels**, which are found in **vascular and cardiac tissue**; but primarily act on **vascualr tissue** **Non-dihydropyridine:** predominantly **anti-arrhythmic effects**
161
State two examples of the folllowing types of CCBS Dihydropyridine: Non-dihydropyridine
162
Which of the following medications is considered a type IV antiarrhythmic on the Vaughan-Williams classification? A Amiodarone B Propranolol C Flecainide D Verapamil E Lidocaine
Which of the following medications is considered a type IV antiarrhythmic on the Vaughan-Williams classification? A Amiodarone B Propranolol C Flecainide **D Verapamil** E Lidocaine
163
What are the drug classes for Vaughan-Williams classification groups for antiarrhtmatic drugs? [4]
**Class I** - block sodium channels **Class II** - beta-blockers **Class III** - block potassium channels **Class IV** - block calcium channels This can be remembered by the mnemonic ‘**Some Block Potassium Channels’.**
164
Which of the following is the antiarrhythmic of choice in patients with regular ventricular tachycardia? A Atenolol B Amiodarone C Flecainide D Verapamil E Adenosine
Which of the following is the antiarrhythmic of choice in patients with regular ventricular tachycardia? A Atenolol **B Amiodarone** C Flecainide D Verapamil E Adenosine
165
Which of the following is the antiarrhythmic of choice in patients with regular ventricular tachycardia? A Atenolol B Amiodarone C Flecainide D Verapamil E Adenosine
Which of the following is the antiarrhythmic of choice in patients with regular ventricular tachycardia? A Atenolol **B Amiodarone** C Flecainide D Verapamil E Adenosine
166
What are the appropriate target saturations in a patient not at risk of type 2 respiratory failure? A 90-100% B 94-98% C 88-92% D 96-100% E >94%
What are the appropriate target saturations in a patient not at risk of type 2 respiratory failure? A 90-100% **B 94-98%** C 88-92% D 96-100% E >94%
167
Question 8. What percentage of oxygen can venturi masks deliver? A 20-24% B 24-60% C 30-80% D 24-32% E 20-100%
Question 8. What percentage of oxygen can venturi masks deliver? A 20-24% **B 24-60%** C 30-80% D 24-32% E 20-100%
168
Statins are generally considered contraindicated in which condition? A Stroke B Myocardial infarction C Chronic kidney disease D Decompensated cirrhosis E Peripheral vascular disease
Statins are generally considered contraindicated in which condition? **D Decompensated cirrhosis** Statins are contraindicated in patients with decompensated cirrhosis or acute liver failure (i.e. advanced liver disease).
169
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of a statin? A Inhibition of cholesterol absorption B Bile acid sequestrant C Stimulate beta-oxidation of fatty acids D HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor E Reduces breakdown of adipose tissue
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of a statin? A Inhibition of cholesterol absorption B Bile acid sequestrant C Stimulate beta-oxidation of fatty acids **D HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor** E Reduces breakdown of adipose tissue
170
Which of the following management options is the only effective way to halt the natural history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? A Inhaled beta-2 agonists B Smoking cessation C Inhaled muscarinic antagonists D Exercise E Pulmonary rehabilitation
Which of the following management options is the only effective way to halt the natural history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? A Inhaled beta-2 agonists **B Smoking cessation** C Inhaled muscarinic antagonists D Exercise E Pulmonary rehabilitation
171
Which cells are important for the secretion of the incretin GLP-1? A K cells B M cells C L cells D D cells E S cells
Which cells are important for the secretion of the incretin GLP-1? A K cells B M cells **C L cells** D D cells E S cells
172
Which cells are important for the secretion of gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP)? A K cells B M cells C L cells D D cells E S cells
Which cells are important for the secretion of gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP)? **A K cells** B M cells C L cells D D cells E S cells
173
Which cells are important for the secretion of secretin? A K cells B M cells C L cells D D cells E S cells
Which cells are important for the secretion of secretin? A K cells B M cells C L cells D D cells **E S cells**
174
What is the mechanism of action of atropine? A Non-selective beta-adrenoreceptor agonist B Beta-adrenergic receptor antagonist C Reversible muscarinic acetylcholine receptor antagonist D Calcium channel receptor antagonist E Relaxation of smooth muscle
**C Reversible muscarinic acetylcholine receptor antagonist** Atropine transiently blocks the action of the vagus nerve (i.e. parasympathetic nervous system) leading to increased SAN electrical activity and increased conduction through the AVN. This results in an increase in heart rate.
175
On the Vaughan-Williams classification, amiodarone is which predominant class? A Class I B Class II C Class III D Class IV E Class V
On the Vaughan-Williams classification, amiodarone is which predominant class? **C Class III** Amiodarone is thought to have wide-ranging effects on cardiomyocytes. However, its predominant mechanism is on potassium channels. This means amiodarone is categorised as a class III antiarrhythmic agent. By blocking potassium channels, these drugs prolong the action potential.
176
Which of the following beta-blockers is the least cardioselective? A Propranolol B Nebivolol C Metoprolol D Bisoprolol E Atenolol
Which of the following beta-blockers is the least cardioselective? **A Propranolol** B Nebivolol C Metoprolol D Bisoprolol E Atenolol
177
Hypertension: Afro-carribean patients and those [younger / older] than 55 years old should be started on a calcium-channel blocker?
Afro-carribean patients and those **older than** 55 years old should be started on a calcium-channel blocker. (e.g. young afrocarribean would be on a ACE-i)
178
Which of the following medications should be used with caution in asthma? A Paracetamol B Aspirin C Salbutamol D Prednisolone E Levothyroxine
Which of the following medications should be used with caution in asthma? A Paracetamol **B Aspirin**: This is because of the risk of bronchospasm with these agents. I C Salbutamol D Prednisolone E Levothyroxine
179
What is the pharmacological mechanism for type II antiarrhythmic agents? A Inhibition of sodium channels B Inhibition of potassium channels C Inhibition of adrenergic receptors D Inhibition of calcium channels E Inhibition of chloride channels
What is the pharmacological mechanism for type II antiarrhythmic agents? A Inhibition of sodium channels B Inhibition of potassium channels **C Inhibition of adrenergic receptors** D Inhibition of calcium channels E Inhibition of chloride channels
180
Which of the following organs is the predominant site of cholesterol synthesis? A Cerebral cortex B Lungs C Spleen D Liver E Ovaries
Which of the following organs is the predominant site of cholesterol synthesis? A Cerebral cortex B Lungs C Spleen **D Liver** E Ovaries
181
Which of the following organs is the predominant site of cholesterol synthesis? A Cerebral cortex B Lungs C Spleen D Liver E Ovaries
Which of the following organs is the predominant site of cholesterol synthesis? A Cerebral cortex B Lungs C Spleen **D Liver** E Ovaries
182
Which of the following best describes the hepatic effects of metformin? A Enhances glycolysis B Suppression of gluconeogenesis C Increased utilisation of glucose D Enhances GLP-1 release E Increased tubular reabsorption of glucose
Which of the following best describes the hepatic effects of metformin? A Enhances glycolysis **B Suppression of gluconeogenesis** C Increased utilisation of glucose D Enhances GLP-1 release E Increased tubular reabsorption of glucose
183
What type of drug is metformin A GLP-1 agonist B Sulphonylurea C Biguanide D Long-acting insulin E Sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitor
What type of drug is metformin A GLP-1 agonist B Sulphonylurea **C Biguanide** D Long-acting insulin E Sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitor
184
Aside from diabetes mellitus, metformin can be prescribed in which other condition? A Migraine B Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease C Hypertension D Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) E Alcoholic liver disease
Aside from diabetes mellitus, metformin can be prescribed in which other condition? A Migraine B Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease C Hypertension **D Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)** E Alcoholic liver disease
185
Which muscarinic receptor subtype is thought to be most important in the treatment of chronic airway disease? A M1 B M2 C M3 D M4 E M5
Which muscarinic receptor subtype is thought to be most important in the treatment of chronic airway disease? A M1 B M2 **C M3** D M4 E M5
186
Which of the following statements best describes the mechanism of ACE-inhibitors? A Inhibit the the release of angiotensin-converting enzyme B Inhibit the conversion of angiotensinogen into angiotensin I C Directly inhibit the release of renin D Inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I into angiotensin II E Directly antagonise the angiotensin II receptor
D Inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I into angiotensin II
187
Which of the following side-effects is commonly associated with metformin? A Headache B Gastrointestinal upset C Reduced vision D Hearing loss E Nail changes
Which of the following side-effects is commonly associated with metformin? A Headache B**Gastrointestinal upset** C Reduced vision D Hearing loss E Nail changes
187
Which of the following side-effects is commonly associated with metformin? A Headache B Gastrointestinal upset C Reduced vision D Hearing loss E Nail changes
Which of the following side-effects is commonly associated with metformin? A Headache B**Gastrointestinal upset** C Reduced vision D Hearing loss E Nail changes
188
Which of the following is not a recognised side-effect of thiazide diuretics? A Hyperkalaemia B Pancreatitis C Hypomagnesaemia D Hyperglycaemia E Hyperuricaemia
Which of the following is not a recognised side-effect of thiazide diuretics? **A Hyperkalaemia** B Pancreatitis C Hypomagnesaemia D Hyperglycaemia E Hyperuricaemia
189
29-year-old is admitted with an acute exacerbation of asthma. Their saturations are currently 97% on 2L of oxygen via nasal cannulae. Approximately, what percentage of oxygen is being delivered to the patient? A 20% B 24% C 28% D 36% E 60%
29-year-old is admitted with an acute exacerbation of asthma. Their saturations are currently 97% on 2L of oxygen via nasal cannulae. Approximately, what percentage of oxygen is being delivered to the patient? A 20% B 24% **C 28%** D 36% E 60% **As a general rule, each litre of oxygen via nasal cannulae provides an additional 4% of oxygen.**
190
Which electrolyte abnormality would you expect with the use of high doses of salbutamol? A Hypernatraemia B Hypokalaemia C Hyperkalaemia D Hyponatraemia E Hyperphosphataemia
Which electrolyte abnormality would you expect with the use of high doses of salbutamol? **B Hypokalaemia** This results from activation of beta-2 adrenoreceptors linked Na/K-ATPase channels leading to increased cellular uptake of potassium. Salbutamol may be used to help treat hyperkalaemia. At high doses salbutamol may also lead to tachycardia, hypomagnesaemia and hyperglycaemia.
191
Which statement best describes the cause of a dry cough with ACE-inhibitor use? A Angiotensin converting enzyme blockade causes decreased degradation of bradykinin B Inhibition of angiotensin converting enzyme leads to increased levels of angiotensin I C Inhibition of angiotensin converting enzyme causes massive histamine release D Angiotensin converting enzyme blockade increases levels of kininogen E Inhibition of angiotensin converting enzyme leads to increased synthesis of bradykinin
Which statement best describes the cause of a dry cough with ACE-inhibitor use? **A Angiotensin converting enzyme blockade causes decreased degradation of bradykinin**
192
Which of the following is not a typical side-effect of ACE-inhibitors? A Angio-oedema B Hyperkalaemia C Ankle swelling D Postural hypotension E Dry cough
Which of the following is not a typical side-effect of ACE-inhibitors? A Angio-oedema B Hyperkalaemia **C Ankle swelling**: clasic AE of CCBs D Postural hypotension E Dry cough
193
Which of the following statements is not a recognised effect of corticosteroids in asthma? A Suppression of goblet cells B Decreased IgE synthesis C Reduced synthesis of inflammatory mediators D Beta-2 adrenoreceptor downregulation E Reduced mucosal oedema
Which of the following statements is not a recognised effect of corticosteroids in asthma? A Suppression of goblet cells B Decreased IgE synthesis C Reduced synthesis of inflammatory mediators **D Beta-2 adrenoreceptor downregulation** Corticosteroids lead to the **upregulation of beta-2 adrenoreceptors**, a synergistic activity that leads to increased bronchodilation in response to beta-2 agonists.
194
Which of the following is not considered a mechanism of GLP-1 A Inhibition of gastrointestinal motility B Inhibition of gastrointestinal secretion C Enhances the secretion of insulin D Increases gastric emptying E Promotes fullness and satiety
D Increases gastric emptying