CR Revision 6 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 classifications of shock? [4]

A

Obstructive shock
Distributive shock
Cardiogenic shock
Hypovolaemic shock

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2
Q

How does obstructive shock ?

A
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3
Q

Explain three examples that could cause obstructive shock xx [2]

A

PE
Tension pneuomothorax air gets trapped in pleural space: compresses against vena cava and heart: stops blood flow into right side of heart: reduced preload: reduced CO
Cardiac tamponade :accumulation of pericardial fluid: causes increas in intrapericardial pressure which reduceds cardiac filling

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4
Q

Describe how disitributive shock works xx

A

Results from excessive vasodilation and the impaired distribution of blood flow

Characterized by a significant drop in peripheral vascular resistance and, as a result, hypotension

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5
Q

Explain 3 examples of distributive shock x

A

Sepsis: dysregulated host response to infection where bacteria in blood release chemicals causing uncontrolled hypotension

Anaphylactic shock: allergic response to antigen: IgE mediated mass degranulation releasing histamines: vasodilation and capillary leaking

Neurogenic shock: loss of sympathetic tone and thus unopposed parasympathetic response driven by the vagus nerve. Consequently, patients suffer from instability in blood pressure,

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6
Q

What is cardiogenic shock?

Name 4 causes of cardiogenic shock xx [4]

A

Failure of the heart to pump blood
Occurs as a result of ventricular dysfunction (esp. LV)

Causes:
* Acute myocardial infarction leading to ventricular dysfunction
* Arrhythmias
* Valvular rupture
* Decompensated heart failure

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7
Q

What is hypovolaemic shock?

A

Reduced circulating volume leads to reduced venous return and therefore preload

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8
Q

Explain 4 causes of hypovolaemic shock xx

A
  • Haemorrhage
  • GI losses: severe diarrhoea and vomiting
  • Surgery: exposure of internal structures to heat
  • Burns: fluid shift into extravasuclar space due to inflam response
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9
Q

Explain the compensatory mechanisms for haemorrhagic shock [3]

A

Baroreceptors detect drop in arterial pressure

Activates sympathetic stimulation:
- Constriction of small arterioles increasing total peripheral resistance thereby maintaining BP
- Veins and venous reservoirs constrict, maintaining venous return
- Increased heart rate and contractility to maintain cardiac output

CNS ischaemia results in increased noradrenaline and adrenaline secretion from adrenal medulla

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10
Q

How does RAAS system work to compensate shock? [3]

A
  • Water retention and salt reabsorption
  • Vasomotor centre in the medulla signals to the hypothalamus to release vasopressin (ADH)
  • Urine flow and sodium excretion decrease
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11
Q

Name 3 long term compensatory mechanisms of shock [3]

A
  • There is (by an unknown mechanism) stimulation of albumin and other plasma protein synthesis in the liver.
  • Increased fluid absorption from GI tract
  • Fibroblasts surrounding the kidney tubules are sensitive to hypoxia and release increased amounts of erythropoietin: Red cell production
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12
Q

CO = [] X []?

BP = [] x []?

A

CO = HR X SV

BP = CO x Systemic vascular resistance

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13
Q

Vasodilation is mediated by the activation of which two compounds? [1]

Explain their basic mechanism [1]

A

Nitric oxide and prostacyclin [1]

MoA: Through cGMP and cAMP respectively, secondary messengers cause decrease in calcium and smooth muscle relaxation

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14
Q

Vasoconstriction is predominately activated by which molecule on which receptors? [2]

Name two alternative compounds that can cause vasoconstriction [2]

A

Vasoconstriction is predominately activated by which molecule on which receptors? [2]
Noradrenaline on alpha 2 recptors

Name two alternative compounds that can cause vasoconstriction [2]
Angiotensin
Vasopressin

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15
Q

What are the overall physiological consequences of shock ? [3]

A
  • Increased afterload
  • Reduced systemic vascular resistance (Failure to maintain peripheral vasoconstriction)
  • Decreased CO
    i) reduced preload
    ii) reduced contactility
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16
Q

Describe the effects to cells of hypoxia and hypoperfusion

A
  • Cells switch from aerobic to anaerobic metabolism
  • Lactic acid production
  • Cell function ceases & swells
  • Membrane becomes more permeable
  • Electrolytes & fluids seep in and out of cell
  • Na+/K+ pump impaired
  • Cells swell causing mitochondria damage
  • Cell death
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17
Q

Name and describe the 4 stages of shock

A
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18
Q

What are the signs of shock?

A
  • Pulse is weak and rapid
  • Pulse pressure reduced - mean arterial pressure (MAP) may be maintained - NOTE; ARTERIAL BP is NOT A GOOD INDICATOR OF SHOCK since it will be maintained until a very large amount of blood loss
  • Reduced urine output
  • Reduced pH
  • Confusion, weakness, collapse and coma
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19
Q

Explain the mechanism of septic shock xx

A

Pathogens have unique cell wall molecules called pathogen associated molecular patterns (PAMPS) that bind to pattern recognition receptors (TLRs) on immune cells

Causes pro-inflam cytokines: activates the adaptive immune, which causes direct and indirect host injury

Causes release of NO: vasodilation and drop in BP

Cytokine release causes the endothelial lining of blood vessels to become more permeable. This causes fluid to leak out of the blood and in to the extracellular space leading to oedem, a reduction in intravascular volume, and therefore amount of oxygen reaching tissues

Activation of the coagulation system leads to deposition of fibrin throughout the circulation further compromising organ and tissue perfusion. It also leads to consumption of platelets and clotting factorsas they are being used up to form the clots within the circulatory system.

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20
Q

Explain the MoA of anaphylactic shock

A

pathological allergic response:

  • an antigen (usually inhaled or swallowed) reacts with IgE on mast cells & basophils; This is called Type 1 hypersensitivity.
  • The cells degranulate and release inflammatory mediators including histamine.
  • Histamine reacts on capillaries and arterioles to cause endothelial cells to lose their tight junctions and separate. This allows water to leak out into tissues.
  • Causing swelling and vasodilation leading to uncontrolled hypotension and anaphylactic shock
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21
Q

Describe the 4 classes of haemorrhagic shock

A

x

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22
Q

Explain which of HR or BP falls first in major haemorrhage stroke :)

A

Cardiac output can accommodate c. 10% blood loss before change in CO
Between 10-20% fall in blood loss, arterial pressure compensates by vasoconstriction

SO you see a raise in HR to compensate fall in SV BEFORE you see a fall in BP

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23
Q

Whats the A-E of shock management?

A

Airway: probs ok unless they have analphylaxis
Breathing: usually ok, may have compensatory increase in RR to compensate hypoxia in tissues. OR might have tension pneumothorax. Later stages: hypoxic
Circulation: give IV access: increase fluids to increase BP
Disability: Low: cant respond bc of lack of 02
Exposure: look at skin – rash / burns / pale

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24
Q

What is chylothorax? [1]

Why may it occur? [1]

A

Chylothorax: leakage of lymph into the pleural cavities

Can cccur due thoracic duct damage

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25
Q

What are the paths for the deep and superficial cervical lymph nodes?

A

Superficial cervical lymph nodes run down external jugular vein.

Drain to the deep cervical lymph nodes: run down internal jugual vein

26
Q

What is the cisterna chyli? [1]

A

The cisterna chyli is the abdominal origin of the thoracic duct, and it receives the bilateral lumbar lymphatic trunks. It is located in the retrocrural space, to the right side and behind of the abdominal aorta.

27
Q

Label A & B xx

A

A: Thoracic duct
B: Left venous angle

28
Q

Name the superficial cervical nodes [6]

A

Parotid
Buccal
Submental
Submandibular
Retroauricular
Occipital

29
Q

Label A-F

A

A: Parotid
B: Buccal
C: Submental
D: Submandibular
E; Retroauricular
F: Occipital

30
Q

What is the difference in lymph node feel when malignant compared to when fighting infection? [2]

A

Infection: firm, tender, enlarged and warm.

Malignancies: Firm, non-tender, matted (i.e. stuck to each other), fixed (i.e. not freely mobile but rather stuck down to underlying tissue), and increase in size over time

31
Q

Which are more likely to develop cancer:

Anterior cervical nodes
Deep cervical nodes

A

Which are more likely to develop cancer:

Anterior cervical nodes
Deep cervical nodes

32
Q

What is the path of the testes lymphatic drainage?

What is the path of the scrotum lymphatic drainage?

What is the path of the ovaries lympahtic drainage?

A

What is the path of the testes lymphatic drainage?
Testes –> preaortic aorta

What is the path of the scrotum lymphatic drainage?
Scrotum –> superficical inguinal nodes

What is the path of the ovaries lympahtic drainage?
Ovaries –> preaortic aorta

33
Q

Lymph from the internal and external iliac nodes drains into the [] nodes and then the [] nodes.

Lymph from the GI tract drains into the [] lymph nodes ([], [] and [] nodes)

Intestinal + right and left lumbar trunks drain to []

A

Lymph from the internal and external iliac nodes drains into the common iliac nodes and then the lumbar nodes.

Lymph from the GI tract drains into the pre-aortic lymph nodes (celiac, superior mesenteric and inferior mesenteric nodes)

Intestinal + right and left lumbar trunks drain to cisterna chyli (beginning of thoracic duct)

34
Q

What is waldeyers ring? [4]

A

Waldeyer’s ring consists of four tonsillar structures:
- pharyngeal
- tubal
- palatine
- lingual

As well as small collections of lymphatic tissue disbursed throughout the mucosal lining of the pharynx (mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue, MALT).

35
Q

Where do you find each of the following tonsils?

Palatine [1]
Lingual [1]
Pharyngeal [1]
Tubal [1]

A

Palatine: between palatoglossal & palatopharyngeal
Lingual: back of tongue
Pharyngeal adenoids if enlarged: top of nasopharynx
Tubal tonsils: opening of eustachian tube

36
Q

Label A-D

A

A: Pharyngeal
B: Lingual
C: Palatine
D: Tubal tonsils

37
Q

From the breast:
- 75% drains into [] nodes
- 25% goes to [] nodes

A

Clinically important because of relationship to breast
75% of lymph drains into axillary node from breast
25% goes to parasternal nodes

38
Q

What are the axillary lymph nodes? [3]

Where do they drain lymph from? [3]

Ddescribe their path to to L / R venous angle [2]

A

Humeral lymph nodes drain from upper limb

Pectoral lymph nodes drain from anterior chest wall (majority drains into here)

Subscapular lymph nodes drain from posterior chest wall (rotator cuffs etc)

Together: go to central –> apical –> supraclavicular –> left / right venous angle

39
Q

Describe the path of deep drainage of the thorax lymphatics

A

Sub pleural plexus –> interlobal lymph vessels –> interpulmnarry lobes –> inferior trachea bronchiol nodes –> superior trachea bronchiole lobes –> bronchomediastinal trunks –> L / R venous angle

40
Q

The thoracic duct enters the thorax through the [] and travels in the [] mediastinum between the [] and the [] vein.

A

The thoracic duct enters the thorax through the aortic hiatus and travels in the posterior mediastinum between the aorta and the azygos vein.

41
Q
A
42
Q

Central lines (also known as a central venous catheter) are catheters that can be place in a large vein to give medication or fluids or to collect blood for medical tests.

Given your anatomical knowledge which veins do you think are used for central lines?

A

Acceptable responses: Internal jugular vein, Internal jugular, Subclavian, Subclavian vein, Femoral, Femoral vein

43
Q

Which of the following conditions would cause eccentric hypertrophy [2]

Renal failure

Aortic stenosis

Aortic regurgitation

Increased BP

A

Which of the following conditions would cause eccentric hypertrophy [2]

Renal failure

Aortic stenosis

Aortic regurgitation

Increased BP

*Eccentric hypertrophy is caused by volume overload, so could be caused by renal failure (which increases blood volume). It could also be caused by valve regurgitation.

Aortic stenosis usually results in initial concentric hypertrophy, but this in itself can then leads to eccentric hypertrophy.*

44
Q

What is the most common site for atherosclerotic plaque build up? [1]

Which area is most common for coronary artery athersclerotic plaque build up? [1]

A

Acceptable responses: Bifurcations, Bifurcation points, Points of bifurcation, Bifurcation

the anterior interventricular/left anterior descending branch being most commonly affected.​

45
Q

Label 1-3

A

1: LCA
2: LAD
3: Left circumflex

46
Q

What is the name given to the procedure where a balloon is inflated to open a blockage in the coronary arteries? [1]

A

Acceptable responses: Angioplasty, Coronary angioplasty

47
Q

Which valves close during S1?
Which valves close during S2?
Where do each of the following correspond to on an ECG?

A

S1: closure of mitral and tricuspid valves: QRS
S2: close of aortic and pulmonary valves: After T wave

48
Q

In foetal circulation, oxygenated blood bypasses the liver by travelling through which structure into the vena cava? [1]

Blood leaving the pulmonary trunk can again bypass the lungs by passing through the which structure into the aorta? [1]

A

In foetal circulation, oxygenated blood bypasses the liver by travelling through which structure into the vena cava? [1]
Ductus venosus

Blood leaving the pulmonary trunk can again bypass the lungs by passing through the which structure into the aorta? [1]
ductus arteriosus

49
Q

At what time does ductus arteriosus normally close?

Seconds after birth
1-3 days after birth
2 weeks after birth
6 months after birth

A

At what time does ductus arteriosus normally close?

Seconds after birth
1-3 days after birth
2 weeks after birth
6 months after birth

50
Q

An 18 year-old pregnant patient has her 19 week ultrasound. A defect in the foetal heart is picked up.

The foetal heart is shown in the image. On the right is the Doppler image showing blood flow.

Based on your knowledge of congenital heart defects, which defect do you think the doppler image is demonstrating?

Transposition of the great vessels
Ventricular septal defect
Patent ductus arteriosus
Coarctation of the aorta

A

An 18 year-old pregnant patient has her 19 week ultrasound. A defect in the foetal heart is picked up.

The foetal heart is shown in the image. On the right is the Doppler image showing blood flow.

Based on your knowledge of congenital heart defects, which defect do you think the doppler image is demonstrating?

Transposition of the great vessels
Ventricular septal defect
Patent ductus arteriosus
Coarctation of the aorta

This image here shows the ventricles of the heart, and the mixing of blood between the ventricles indicates a ventricular septal defect (VSD)

51
Q

A ventricular septal defect (VSD) is most commonly a failure of which component of the septum development?

Membranous
Muscular

A

A ventricular septal defect (VSD) is most commonly a failure of which component of the septum development?

Membranous
​Muscular

52
Q

Label the vert. layers of A-D

A
53
Q

The laryngeal prominence occurs at which vertebral level

C3
C4
C5
C6
C7

A

The laryngeal prominence occurs at which vertebral level

C3
C4
C5
C6
C7

54
Q

The carotid bifurication occurs at which vert. level?

C3
C4
C5
C6

A

The carotid bifurication occurs at which vert. level?

C3
C4 : carotid pulse can be palpated either side of thyroid cartilage
C5
C6

55
Q

The cricoid cartilage occurs at which vert. level?

C3
C4
C5
C6

A

The cricoid cartilage occurs at which vert. level?

C3
C4
C5
C6

56
Q

The thyroid gland occurs at which vert. level?

C3
C4
C5
C6

A

The thyroid gland occurs at which vert. level?

C3
C4
C5
C6: overlies cricoid cartilage

57
Q

Thyroid gland overlies which laryngeal cartilage?

Thyroid cartilage
Cricoid cartilage
Epiglottis
Artyenoid cartilages

A

Thyroid gland overlies which laryngeal cartilage?

Thyroid cartilage
Cricoid cartilage
Epiglottis
Artyenoid cartilages

58
Q

What are the 3 components to a definitive airway? [3]

A

1) Tube placed within the trachea with cuff inflated BELOW vocal cords (most important to know)
2) Tube connected to oxygen enriched assisted ventilation
3) Airway secured in place with appropriate stabilizing method

59
Q

How can burns of neck / face cause closure of airways? [1]

A

Direct damage to tissues:
- can cause secondary oedema and swelling of soft tissues
- can be dealyed occlusion of the airway

60
Q

How can trauma to face/neck cause closure of airway?

A

Direct obstruction
- Laryngotracheal fractures

Secondary obstruction
- Displacement of local structures
- Loose teeth, bone fragments etc.
- Post-traumatic complications:
eg. haematoma/swelling