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Phase 1 Medicine > Week 4/5 - Skeleton/MSK > Flashcards

Week 4/5 - Skeleton/MSK Flashcards

1
Q

Approximately how many bones are in the body

A

206

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2
Q

Approximately how many bones do babes have?

A

270 - they fuse together as they age

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3
Q

3 classifications of joints and examples of each

A

Cartilaginous - inter vertebrate discs

Synovial - knee joint

Fibrous - suture joint in skull

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4
Q

What is a joint

A

Place where two bones make contact (although not necessarily directly i.e synovial)

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5
Q

What is a fibrous joint

A

Bones joined by dense fibrous connective tissue

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6
Q

What is a cartilaginous joint

A

Bones joined by cartilage

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7
Q

What is a synovial joint

A

A ‘true joint’ where two bones do not directly contact each other, instead they are separated by cartilage

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8
Q

What is the name for joints that do not move at all and give an example

A

Synarthrosis and an example would be suture joint

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9
Q

What is the name for joints that allow a little movement and what’s an example?

A

Amphiarthrosis, for example the distal tibiofibular joint

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10
Q

What is the name for joints that allow free movement and give an example

A

Diarthrosis for example the synovial joint

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11
Q

Name the structures from inside to outside of the synovial joint

A

Articular cartilage
Synovial membrane
Synovial capsule
Ligament

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12
Q

What is the role of the synovial membrane

A

It secretes synovial fluid which lubricates the surfaces

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13
Q

What is the role of the ligaments within the context of the synovial joint

A

It is connective tissue that connects bone to bone and overall strengthens the capsule

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14
Q

What is an example of a continuous joint

A

Suture - dense fibrous connective tissue

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15
Q

Name 3 shapes of uniaxial joints and give examples of where these are found in the body

A

Pivot - neck
Plane - acromioclavicular joint
Hinge - elbow

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16
Q

Examples of biaxial joints and where they are found

A

Condyloid - metacarpophalangeal joint

Saddle - carpometacarpal joint

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17
Q

Examples of multiaxial joints

A

Ball and socket joint - knee/hip

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18
Q

What is the movement called that involves flexion, abduction, extension and then adduction.

A

Circumduction

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19
Q

What is the cause of osteoarthritis

A

Loss of joint space - articular cartilage is worn down, decreasing the space between the epiphysises

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20
Q

Where is osteoarthritis most commonly found

A

In the weight bearing joints such as knees, hips and hands

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21
Q

Symptoms of osteoarthritis

A

Stiffness and pain

Reduced mobility

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22
Q

Risk factors for osteoarthritis

A

Overuse

Prior injury

Rheumatoid arthritis

Obesity

Family history

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23
Q

How can cysts form in bones

A

When synovial fluid gets into cracks of bone

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24
Q

Name the 2 functional parts of the skeleton and the bones that make up these

A

Axial skeleton - cranium, neck (hyoid bone and cervical vertebrae), trunk (ribs, sternum, vertebrae and sacrum)

Appendicular skeleton - bones of the limbs including those that form the pectoral and pelvic girdle

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25
Q

Two examples of cartilage

A

Hyaline cartilage - e.g articular provide a smooth, low friction, gliding surface for free movement. Costal cartilage (connecting ribs to sternum) - allowing flexibility when lungs expand

Elastic/yellow cartilage = found in pinna of ear and larynx

Fibrous - e.g IVD

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26
Q

Is cartilage vascular or avascular

A

Avascular - gets its nutrients form diffusion

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27
Q

What type of tissue is bone

A

Connective tissue

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28
Q

Function of bones

A

Structural support for the body and protection for organs

Allows movement

Storage of salts

Makes new blood cells

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29
Q

What is the fibrous connective tissue called found around the bones

A

Periosteum

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30
Q

Fibrous connective tissue around cartilage

A

Perichondrium

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31
Q

Another name for spongy bone

A

Trabercular

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32
Q

What is the space the diaphysis called

A

The medullary cavity

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33
Q

Where is bone marrow found in adults

A

In the medullary cavity and within the spicules of the traberculae, yellow (fat, cartilage and bone producing) or red bone marrow (erythrocytes and platelet producing) is found

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34
Q

3 examples of bone elevations

A

Ridges (metric ridge)

Tubercules (lesser and greater tubercle of humerus)

Crests (pelvic iliac crest)

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35
Q

5 classifications of bone shapes and examples

A

Long bones - tubular (humerus)

Short bones - cuboidal (tarsus=ankle + carpus=wrist)

Flat bones - (flat bones of cranium to protect brain)

Irregular bones - other shapes that aren’t flat/short/long

Sesamoid bones - (patella - protect the tendons from damage and are imbedded in tendons)

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36
Q

Where do you find the body of the vertebrae

A

The anterior, weight bearing side which sandwiches the IVDs

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37
Q

Where do you find the body of the long bone

A

The shaft of the bone

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38
Q

What is the capitulum

A

The small, round, articular head e.g capitilum of the humerus

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39
Q

What is a condyle

A

Rounded, knuckle like articular area often in pairs e.g lateral and medial femoral condoyles

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40
Q

What is a crest

A

Ridge of the bone e.g iliac crest

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41
Q

What is an epicondyle

A

Eminences superior or adjacent to a condyle e.g lateral epicondyl of the humerus

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42
Q

What is a facet

A

Smooth flat area, where a bone articulates with another e.g costal (rib) facet

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43
Q

What is a foramen

A

Passage through a bone e.g obturator foramen (big hole that allows vessels and nerves to reach the limbs.

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44
Q

What is a fossa

A

Hollow or depressed area e.g infraspinous of the scapula

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45
Q

What is a groove

A

An elongationed depression or furrow e.g radial groove of humerus

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46
Q

What is the head

A

Round articular end of a bone e.g head of humerus

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47
Q

Line/ridge

A

Linear elevation e.g soleal ridge of tibia

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48
Q

Malleolus

A

rounded process e.g lateral malleus of the fibula

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49
Q

Neck

A

Relatively narrow portion proximal to the head

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50
Q

Notch

A

Indentation at the edge of the bone (e.g greater sciatic notch)

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51
Q

Process

A

an extension or projection serving a particular purpose, having a characteristic shape, or extending in a particular direction (e.g., articular process, spinous process, or transverse process of a vertebra).

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52
Q

Protuberance

A

a bulge or projection of bone (e.g., external occipital protuberance).

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53
Q

Shaft

A

the diaphysis, or body, of a long bone.

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54
Q

Spine

A

thorn-like process (e.g., the spine of the scapula)

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55
Q

Trochanter

A

large blunt elevation (e.g., greater trochanter of the femur).

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56
Q

Trochlea

A

spool-like articular process or process that acts as a pulley (e.g., trochlea of the humerus

57
Q

Tubercle

A

small raised eminence (e.g., greater tubercle of the humerus).

58
Q

Tuberocity

A

large rounded elevation (e.g., ischial tuberosity).

59
Q

What is the functional unit of bone

A

Osteons

60
Q

70% of bone is made up of

A

Inorganic e.g calcium and phosphate salts

61
Q

30% of bone is made up of

A

Organic material - type 1 collagen

62
Q

What does collagen I allow in bones

A

Bending and shock absorbance - if bones were too stiff, they would be very brittle and crumble upon impact

63
Q

Tensile strength

A

How well something can withstand stretching or pulling

64
Q

Compressive strength

A

How well something can withstand loads

65
Q

What is the role of osteoblasts

A

they lay down new bone

66
Q

What is the role of ostecytes

A

They break down newly formed bones

67
Q

What are lamellae

A

Circles of bone that make up the osteons in compact bone/cortical bone

68
Q

What structure traps osteocytes

A

Lamellae

69
Q

What is another name for spongy bone

A

Trabercular bone/cancellous

70
Q

What causes osteomalacia/rickets (in children)

A

Patients lack vitamin D and have low calcium in their diet. Calcium cannot be stored in medullary cavity as calcium hydroxyapatite. Therefore, when legs bear weight, bones become bowed.

71
Q

What causes osteogenesis imperfecta

A

Congenital condition which affects collagen production. As a result bone can not flex in response to bone impact. This makes bones more brittle and more likely to fracture.

72
Q

Which part of the long bone holds most of the weight

A

The body/diaphysis

73
Q

What is the role of the epiphysis

A

Articular surfaces for joints - mostly trabecular but some of it is cancellous around the edges

74
Q

What separates the diaphysis and epiphysis

A

The epiphyseal growth plate

75
Q

Where is the site of growth

A

The epiphyseal growth plate

76
Q

Once bone growth finishes (around end of puberty +/-, what happens to the plate

A

It ossifies forming the epiphyseal line which later disappears

77
Q

What is the epiphyseal plate made of

A

Hyalin cartilage

78
Q

What is the trophoblastic flat bone that forms the skull

A

Diploe bone

79
Q

Outer layer of connective tissue that lines the outside of the bone and function

A

The periosteum - also acts as a site of attachment for tendons

80
Q

Inner surfaces of cavities

A

Endosteum

81
Q

In what way can bone only grow by and what does this involve

A

Appositional growth - bone being laid onto a cartilage surface by osteoblasts (differentiated osteoto form osteoid (like bone-not mineralised yet).

82
Q

In which two ways can cartilage grow by and what does this involve

A

Growth of cartilage is called chondrification/chondrogenesis.

Appositional growth - cartilage being laid upon more cartilage by chondroblasts

Interstitial growth - chondroblasts differentiate into chondrocytes which make up cell ‘nests’ in the lacunae

83
Q

What produces osteocytes

A

Osteoblasts

84
Q

What produces chondrocytes

A

Chondroblasts

85
Q

What type of collagen makes up cartilage

A

40% of cartilage is made up by collagen II

86
Q

As ossification occurs, what happens to the epiphysis and the diaphysis

A

They get closer together and fuse together later in development, forming the epiphyseal line which eventually disappears

87
Q

Why are osteoblasts important in response to strain

A

In response to micro fractures, they can send signals that initiate bone formation or reabsorption of minerals (calcium or phosphate minerals)

88
Q

What percentage of compact bone/trabecular bone is replaced every year

A

5%

89
Q

What percentage of soft/cancellous bone is replaced every year

A

25%

90
Q

How many bones in the skull

A

22

91
Q

How many bones in the vertebral column

A

Around 33

92
Q

How many bones in the ribs

A

12

93
Q

How many bones make up the face (viserocranium)

A

14 bones

94
Q

How many bones make up the neurocranium (surrounding the brain)

A

8

95
Q

Vertebral column names, basic function and how many vertebrae in each

A

Cervical - movement of neck - 7

Thoracic - articulate with ribs - 12

Lumbar - 5

Sacrum - articulate with hips - 5 fused

Coccyx - 4 fused?

96
Q

What bones make up the pectoral girdle

A

Scapula and clavicle

97
Q

What is the only bone connecting the upper limbs to axial skeleton

A

Clavicle, therefore great range of movement

98
Q

Which bones make up the pelvic girdle

A

The innominates - the only bones that are fused to either side of the sacrum (think vertebral column)

Ilium

Ischium

Pubis

99
Q

How many bones make up the carpals

A

8

100
Q

How many bones make up the hand

A

metacarpals = 5

phalanges = 14

101
Q

Which forearm bone is most lateral to the sternum

A

Radius

102
Q

Which leg bone is most lateral to the sternum

A

Fibula

103
Q

How many bones make up the ankle (tarsal)

A

7

104
Q

How many bones make up the metatarsals

A

5

105
Q

How many bones make up the phalanges

A

14

106
Q

At what level is the sternal angle

A

Between level C4+5, in line with associated IVD

Or the second rib

107
Q

What joint marks the sternal angle

A

manubriosternal joint

108
Q

Which structures of the heart does the sternal angle cut through

A

Pulmonary valve and aortic valve

109
Q

What does the sternal angle form the boundary of

A

Mediastinum - a membranous partition between 2 body cavities

110
Q

5 zones of epiphyseal growth plate

A

Resting - resting/reserve cartilage cells called chondrocytes which replicate slowly.

Proliferation - zone of proliferation where the cells divide more rapidly and line up along axis of the bone.

Hypertrophy - chondrocytes mature and expand In size (zone of hypertrophy).

Calcification - The expanded cells become calcified.

Ossification - blood vessels and bone cells invade the calcified cartilage and begin to replace the structure with bone.

111
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary ossification centre

A

Primary - formation of diaphysis- first place for ossification to happen (in long bone)

Secondary - epiphysis formation (in long bone)

112
Q

What is the purpose of fontanelles

A

Allow flexibility for brain development and during birth!

113
Q

What are 3 factors that can affect timing of ossification

A

sex
race
stress
nutrition

114
Q

What can bone development (skeletal age) be used to determine

A

Age of immigrants

Age fraud

115
Q

What is osteoporosis

A

When bone is broken down quicker than it is replaced, resulting in decreased bone density. More likely to fracture
Can cause kyphosis (bending of spine)

116
Q

What are osteophytes

A

Bony spurs found on spine as a result of osteoarthritis

117
Q

What are ethesophytes

A

Calcification of ligament/muscle attachment point

118
Q

What is periostitis

A

Inflammation of the periosteum (outer layer of bone) sometimes causing extra bone to be laid down, loss of nicely organised lamellae.

Caused by trauma or infection

119
Q

3 types of muscle and give basic description

A

Skeletal - voluntary movement, form most large muscles, can tire

Cardiac - involuntary movement, form the walls of the heart, don’t tire

Smooth - involuntary, viscera (internal organs in main body cavities, blood vessels, Iris, don’t tire

120
Q

What are skeletal muscle fibres grouped into

A

Muscle fascicles

121
Q

What is a skeletal muscular head/belly

A

Contractile part of muscle

122
Q

How are skeletal muscles usually linked to bone/other structures

A

A tendon or a aponeurosis (flat sheet)

123
Q

What does the range of skeletal movement depend on

A

The length of of muscle

124
Q

What does the strength of muscle depend on

A

The number of fibres

125
Q

Name of triangular looking muscle

A

Trapezius

126
Q

Name back muscles and show their location on a diagram

A

Trapezius (superficial)

Infraspinatus (superficial)

Deltoid (superficial)

Teres major (superficial)

Teres minor (superficial)

Triceps brachii (superficial)

Latissimus dorsi (superficial)

Rhomboids minor and major (deep)

Levator scapulae (deep)

127
Q

What are the origin attachment points of the trapezius muscle

A

C7-T12 spinous processes

Superior nuchal line

Nuchal attachments

128
Q

What is the insertion attachment points of the trapezius when descending

A

lateral third of clavicle

129
Q

What is the insertion attachment point of the trapezius when horizontal

A

Acriom of the scapula

130
Q

What is the insertion attachment point of the trapezius when ascending

A

Spine of scapula

131
Q

What is the action of the trapezius on shoulder girdle when descending

A

keeps the shoulder girdle up (think when carrying heavy shopping bags)

132
Q

Action of trapezius on shoulder girdle when horizontal/ascending

A

depresses and pulls the scapula medially

133
Q

Action of trapezius on head/neck when an arm descends with fixed shoulder

A

neck goes right/left

134
Q

Action of trapezius on vertebral column

A

Flattens the thoracic kyphosis (curvature)

135
Q

Which nerve supplies the trapezius muscle

A

cranial nerve xi accessory

136
Q

Origin attachment points of latissimus dorsi

A

Spinous processes T7-T12

Dorsal surface of sacrum

Dorsal 1/3 of the iliac crest

Thoraco-lumbar aponeurosis

10-12th ribs

Inferior angle of the scapula

137
Q

Insertion points of latissimus dorsi

A

Humerus - floor of inter-tubercular sulcus

138
Q
A

Phase 1 Medicine (37 decks)

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