week 2 lec 2 Flashcards

1
Q

normal epidermis is colonized by what commensal bacteria after birth

A

Coagulase-negative Staphylococci (Staph epidermidis)

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2
Q

most common purulent skin infection and what its caused by

A

pyoderma from staph aureus

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3
Q

what can cause staphylococcal skin infections

A

Immunosuppressive disorders, diabetes, atopic dermatitis, preexisting tissue injury (surgical sites, burns)

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4
Q

which staph is commensal and which is pathogenic

A

Staph epidermidis – mostly commensal

Staph aureus- commensal and aggressive/ pathogenic
–> MRSA- methicillin resistance staph aureus

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5
Q

risk factors for staph soft tissue infection

A

lack IL-17

defective neutrophil function or # (cancer, chemo, genes)

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6
Q

pathogenesis of staph soft tissue infection (3)

A
  1. pore-forming toxins (i.e. alpha and gamma toxin) –> lyse neutrophils and macrophages
  2. phenol-soluble modulins –> lyse leukocytes and erythrocytes
  3. exfoliative toxins (from bacteriophages) –> serine proteases target desmosomal cadherin –> intraepithelial bullae (skin) OR staphylococcal-scalded skin syndrome (systemic)
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7
Q

staph superantigens examples

A

I.e. toxic shock syndrome toxin 1, enterotoxins…

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8
Q

staph superantigens nonspecifically activate

A

T cells via HLA-2 on APCs and beta-subunit of TCR –> CD4+ T cells activated

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9
Q

what does toxic shock syndrome toxin 1 (TSST-1) rxn cause

A

high fever, hypotension, scarlet fever-like rash, desquamation of skin, multiorgan dysfunction

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10
Q

staph- neutrophil evasion

what does protein A block?

A

(expressed on surface of S. aureus)–> blocks antibody-mediated phagocytosis by both neutrophils and macrophages

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11
Q

staph- neutrophil evasion

what does staphylococcal nuclease destroy?

A

destroys neutrophil extracellular traps

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12
Q

staph- neutrophil evasion

what does catalase, alkyl hydroperoxidase reductase and staphyloxanthin inhibit?

A

inhibit ROS-mediated killing of S. aureus

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13
Q

staph- neutrophil evasion

what does staph-superantigen-like 5 and 11 block?

A

block P-selecting and ICAM-1 which normally allow neutrophils to adhere to the endothelium and enter tissue

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14
Q

staph- neutrophil evasion

what does chemotaxis inhibitory proteins (CHIPS) or staphopain A (ScpA) block?

A

block complement receptors and CXCR2 neutrophil-
attracting chemokines

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15
Q

what (antimicrobial peptides) AMPs fight against staph?

A

Beta-defensins 2 and 3, cathelicidin, RNase 7

–> bacteriostatic or bactericidal activity

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16
Q

which neutrophils via PRRs fight against staph?

A

TLR-2 –peptidoglycan and lipoproteins
NOD-2 –muramyl dipeptide

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17
Q

staph has a pore forming toxin that helps promote neutrophil recruitment and fight against the bacteria. how?

A

Staph’s pore-forming toxin actually activate caspase-1 and result in activation of IL-1Beta –> promote neutrophil recruitment

IL-17 also for neutrophil recruitment

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18
Q

what do the exfoliative toxins in staph aureus cause

A

blistering skin disorders

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19
Q

what are the 2 exfoliative toxins in staph and what do they cause

A

ET-A causes bulleux impetigo (localized)

ET-B causes staphylococcal scalded-skin syndrome (SSSS) (cutaneous tenderness and widespread superficial blistering)

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20
Q

what is the mechanism of action of exfoliative toxins in staph aureus

A

ETs are serine proteases that bind to cell adhesion molecule desmoglein-1 –> loss of cell-cell adhesion between stratum spinous and granulosum –> making it easy to blister

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21
Q

how do staph exfoliative toxins worse

A

bind desmoglein-1 (cell adhesion molecule) and cause loss of cell adhesion and easy blistering

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22
Q

common cause of superficial purulent skin infections

A

group A streptococcus (GAS) (i.e. strep pyrogens)

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23
Q

local and invasive problems from group A strep

A

local: impetigo, ecthyma, intertrigo

invasive: erysipelas, cellultiis, necrotizing fasciitis, deep tissue necrosis –> sepsis, shock, multi organ failure, death

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24
Q

a group A strep infection can trigger an immune mediated disease like

A

Guttate psoriasis, acute rheumatic fever, rheumatic heart disease, glomerulonephritis

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25
Q

risk factors for strep

A

environmental: hygiene, poverty, corwding

pre-existing condition: tissue damage and inflammation i.e. eczema and fungal infections

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26
Q

where to non-GAS species (other strep, not group A) infect

A

areas with poor blood flow (e.g., ischemia or venous stasis).

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27
Q

which strep are linked to skin infections

A

D and E

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28
Q

what is the protein that differentiates the 200 subtypes of GAS (group A strep)

A

m-protein

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29
Q

M-protein in strep inhibits immune defesnes by

A

bindings regulators of complement system –> no activation of classical and alternative path

inhibit antibody-medicted phagocytosis by binding Fc region of IgG

inflammation via TLR-2 on monocytes –> increase IL-6, IL-1 beta and TNFalpha

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30
Q

where can m protein of strep bind on keratinocytes

A

fibronectin and CD46

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31
Q

2 pore forming toxins in strep

A

steptolysin O and steptolysin S

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32
Q

steptolysin O vs steptolysin S

these strep pore-forming toxins act on

A

O= large pore formation cause apoptosis of neutrophils, macrophages and epithelial cells

S= cytolytic against neutrophils, lymphocytes, erythrocytes and platelets (inflammation, vascular injury and necrosis)

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33
Q

what is the strep superantigen? effect?

A

Strep pyrogenic exotoxin serotype A, C, G to M, mitogenic exotoxin SMEZn

non-specifically activates T cells

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34
Q

Streptococcal Pyrogenic Exotoxins (superantigen) causes what

A

streptococcal toxic shock syndrome, scarlet fever, erysipelas and invasive presentations

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35
Q

how does strep do neutrophil invasion?

A

make antioxidants (glutathione peroxidase, superoxide dismutase) to inhibit ROS mediated killing

nuclease A and DNase Sda1 breakdown neutrophil extracellular traps

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36
Q

how does the immune system respond to strep?

A

AMPs made by keratinocytes (beta-defensins 1 and 3, cathelicidin)

neutrophil recruitment (TLR-2 peptidoglycan and lipoproteins and NOD-2 for muramyl dipeptide)

type 1 IFN response (TLR-9 activation –> oxidative burst)

adaptive T and B response (but so many M proteins and types of strep that immunity to 1 type doesnt protect against others)

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37
Q

super antigenic toxins from which bacteria

A

staph aureus or group A strep

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38
Q

super antigenic toxins lead to a cytokine storm of which cytokines? what does this cause?

A

TNF alpha, IL-1, IL-6

Capillary leak syndrome and other systemic problems (i.e., toxic shock syndrome)

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39
Q

do super antigenic toxins need APCs to exert effects on T cells

A

no

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40
Q

where to super antigenic toxins bind on APCs?

A

HLA-2 but outer walls

so recognition is not specific to HLA-2 or T cell receptor

= greater T cell response

41
Q

how do super antigenic toxins cause cutaneous manifestations?

A

increase # of T cells with CLA (skin homing)

*cutanoeus lymphocyte-associated antigen

42
Q

pseudomonas aeruginosa characteristics

A

gram negative rod
in aqeusous envo
sweet grape odor
blue green color
oxidase positive
non lactose fermenting
obligate aerobic bacteria
likes warm (42 celcisu)

43
Q

primary cutaneous infections from pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

Green nail syndrome, toe web infection, folliculitis, hot-foot syndrome, external otitis, perichondritis

44
Q

pseudomonas in immunocompromised patietns

A

bacteria and ecthyma gangrenosum

45
Q

how can pseudomonas aeruginosa get into skin

A

if damage i.e. infection, catheter, trauma

46
Q

what factors in pseudomonas aeruginosa degrade skin and parts of immune system

A

alkaline protease, protease IV, elastase

47
Q

what does pseudomonas aeruginosa release after contacting the host

A

exoenzymes

ExoS –> TLR’s –> TNF-alpha production
ExoT –> binds adenosine diphosphate ribosyltransferase
ExoU –> damages cell membranes
ExoY –> binds adenylate cyclase

48
Q

other factors in pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

Exotoxin A –> interferes with protein synthesis! cell death

Procyanin –> pro-inflammatory and oxidative effects

LPS –> activates TLR4 –> septic shock mediator

Quorum sensing –> intercellular signaling to coordinate gene transcription and possible biofilm formation

49
Q

pseudomonas aeruginosa pathogenic feature

A

makes alginate to scavenge free radicals, impair phagocytosis, inhibit neutrophil chemotaxis, inhibit complement activation

biofilm production (protect against antibiotics and AMPs)

50
Q

how do pseudomonas aerguinoa be antibiotic resistnant

A

Multidrug efflux pumps (pump it out), beta-lactamases (breakdown the antibiotic), downregulation of porins on the outer membrane (then antibiotic can’t get in)

51
Q

pathogenesis of pseudomonas aeruginosa

A
  1. green nail syndrome
  2. toe web infection
  3. folliculitis and hot-foot syndrome

–> all if it water

  1. external otitis
  2. bacteremia (in bloodstream) and ecthyma gangrenosum (veins and arteries then to skin invasion- inside out)
52
Q

how do you get Bacteremia and Ecthyma Gangrenosum from psuedomonas aeruginosa

A

Hospitalized patients with neutropenia, hematological malignancy or low CD4+ count

53
Q

what are dermatophytoses and what do they thrive on

A

fungal infections that use keratin (spores adhere to it and change gene expression)

fungi releases proteases, lipases and ceramidases to digest through the keratin

interfere with keratinocyte proliferation and cell mediated immunity

54
Q

immune response to dermatophytes

A

mannan (fungal component) activates TLR (causes keratinocyte proliferation, AMP secrete, pro-inflammatory cytokine)

delayed-hypersensitivity- Th1 and Th17 to clear fungus

55
Q

dermatophytid reaction is

A

inflammatory dermatitis at a distance site from primary infection

-delayed hypersensitive, eruption is polymorphic

56
Q

criteria to establish dermatophytid (ID) eruption

A
  1. dermatophytosis is on another body part
  2. no fungal elements in ID eruption
  3. ID eruption goes away once primary dermatophyte infection clears
57
Q

Onychomycosis

A

fungal infection of nail

58
Q

common causes of onychomycosis

A

90% caused by Trichophyton rubrum and T. interdigitale, Candida spp are often culprits of fingernail infections

59
Q

tine barbae

A

fungal infection of the beard

60
Q

causes of tinea barbae

A

zoophilic strains of T. interdigitale, T. verrucosum

61
Q

tinea corporis AKA ringworm

A

dermatophytosis of glabrous skin (except palms, soles and groin)

62
Q

tinea corporis AKA ringworm cause

A

T. rubrum

Head, neck and arms

63
Q

tinea cruris

A

Dermatophytosis of groin, genitalis, pubic area, perineal and perianal skin

64
Q

causes of tinea cruris

A

T. rubric and Epidermophyton floccosum

65
Q

tinea pedis and tinea mannum

A

Dermatophytosis of feet (pedis) or palmar and interdigital areas of hands (mannum)

66
Q

pathogen for tinea pedis and tinea mannum

A

T. rubric, T. interdigitale and Epidermophyton floccosum

67
Q

measles

A

Highly contagious, single-stranded, enveloped RNA virus of the Paramyxoviridae family

68
Q

how are measles transmitted

A

person- person (contact or airborne respiratory droplets)

69
Q

Koplik spots, fever, cough, coryza,
conjunctivitis with possible severe
complications of pneumonia and encephalomyelitis in which disease

70
Q

rubella

A

Enveloped positive-stranded RNA virus of the Togaviridae family

71
Q

family for measles vs rubella

A

rubella- togaviridae family

measles- paramyxoviridae family

72
Q

how is rubella trasnmitted

A

direct or nasopharynx droplets

73
Q

features of rubella

A

Enlarged cervical, suboccipital and postauricular lymph nodes

rash

74
Q

rubella and immunity

75
Q

erythema infectious aka fifth disease is causesd by which virus and what does it look like?

A

parvovirus B19 (Parvoviridae, no envelope, single-stranded DNA virus)

slapped cheeks

76
Q

Erythema Infectiosum - Parvovirus B19

A

cheek rash then lacy eruptions on extremities, polyarthritis, papular purpuric glove and sock syndrome

77
Q

what is the crisis that can be caused by Erythema Infectiosum - Parvovirus B19

A

Transient aplastic crisis – can infect and destroy erythroid progenitor cells

78
Q

Human Herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6) causes what in infants

A

Exanthem subitum/ roseola infantum, 6th disease

fevers (usually no rash in kids)

79
Q

what is true for all herpesviruses

A

Chronic infection with latent stage and possibility to reactivate

80
Q

what causes Human Herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6)

A

Herpesviridae family, double-stranded DNA

81
Q

where does Human Herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6) replicate in the body and get transmitted

A

replicate in salivary glands and trasmitted through saliva

82
Q

herpes simplex virus- where does it infect

A

1st infects skin or mucosa then to local nerve ends and ganglia to be latent and reactivated

83
Q

types of herpes simplex virus and where they infect

A

HSV-1 oral
HSV-2 genital

84
Q

symptoms of herpes simplex virus

A

Most primary infection are asymptomatic, and most transmission occurs during asymptomatic shedding

85
Q

herpes simplex virus pathogenesis depends on

A

immune function/ competence

IFN and TLR2 mutations increase lesions or encephalitis

dendritic cells and CD8+ T cells localize to sites of reactivation

humeral immunity to reduce viral titers at inoculation sites

86
Q

varicella herpes zoster virus is what initially and upon reactivation turns into what

A

chicken pox –> shingles

87
Q

varicella herpes zoster virus spread?

A

highly contageous

chicken pox on face and scalp then spread to trunk

rose coloured macules to papules

88
Q

how does shingles present (reactivation of Varicella Herpes Zoster Virus)

A

unilateral dermatomal pain and rash

postherpetic neuralgia

89
Q

how does varicella herpes zoster virus (chicken pox) enter the body?

A

mucosa of respiratory tract and oropharynx

disseminated via blood and lymph

90
Q

how long to show sx of chicken pox

A

10-14 days after infection –> larger viremia (post replication)

91
Q

which sensory nerves and ganglia does chicken pox (Varicella Herpes Zoster Virus) travel

A

trigeminal nerve, spinal
sensory ganglia T1-L2

92
Q

how does chicken pox (Varicella Herpes Zoster Virus) circulate

A

via lymphocytes

93
Q

to end and go into latency for Varicella Herpes Zoster Virus (chickenpox) infection what is needed

A

T cell mediated immunity

94
Q

how does Varicella Herpes Zoster Virus get reactivated

A

T cell mediated immunity fails

spread in ganglion

neuropathic pain

destroy neurons and sensory nerves

spread antidromically via sensory nerve and into skin endings –> zoster vesicles

95
Q

human papillomavirus type

A

DNA virus of the Papillomaviruses, nonenveloped, double stranded DNA virus

96
Q

many types of human papillomavirus.. which are high risk for malignancy

A

E6 and E7 proteins have oncogenic effects

97
Q

what does human papillomavirus infect

A

keratinocytes

replicate when in basal epidermal keratinocytes (E6 and E7 proteins for amplification)

98
Q

human papillomavirus causes what skin symptoms

A

Common warts:
HPV-2, 27, 57 and HPV-4 and HPV-1

Butcher’s warts (wet meat handling) - HPV-7