Vol 1.25 Routine Operations Flashcards

1
Q

What should a pilot say if a passenger has concerns about the weather?

A

25.01 pg. 1 - The pilot should give a clear description of the weather and what to expect enroute. The pilot should, however, reassure the passengers that the flight will not depart if there is any uncertainty regarding the safe outcome of the flight.

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2
Q

Where do the majority of bird strikes occur?

A

Below 3000’AGL

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3
Q

What do birds instinctively do to avoid a predator? What does this mean for avoiding bird strikes?

A

25.01 pg. 1 - Birds instinctively DIVE when trying to evade a predator. So to best avoid bird strikes one should try and climb over them not duck under them. So if descending level off, if level begin climbing, if climbing increase the rate of climb.

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4
Q

What time of year are birds most prevalent?

A

25.01 pg. 1 - Spring and fall migratory seasons

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5
Q

What can be done to lesson the impact of bird strikes?

A

25.01 pg. 1 - Fly at a slower speed. Vol 1 recommends slowing to early to 210kias if safe and practical during approach to lessen the birds force of impact

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6
Q

What does Frontier consider to be a terrain sensitive airport? What does Frontier do to help pilots identify terrain sensitive airports?

A

25.01 pg. 1 - An airport is terrain sensitive if terrain contours are published on any procedure (SID, STAR, or approach) at that airport. Frontier adds a “Mountainous terrain” flag to the airport information pages AIP to help pilots identify a terrain sensitive airport.

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7
Q

When are terrain contours published on a navigational chart?

A

25.01 pg. 1 - When terrain in the plain view exceeds 4000’ above airport elevation, or when terrain rises to 2000’ above airport elevation within 6nm of the airport.

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8
Q

When are pilots required to use a headset rather than use the aircraft speakers?

A

25.01 pg. 2 - Below 18,000’ MSL a headset must be used. Above 18,000’MSL each pilot has discretion to use either the headset or the aircrafts speakers.

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9
Q

What are the critical phases of flight?

A

25.01 pg. 2 - Ground operations including taxi, takeoff and landings, and all other operations conducted below 10,000’ AFE except cruise flight are all critical phases of flight.

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10
Q

What are the pilots responsibilities during critical phases of flight?

A

25.01 pg. 2 - During critical phases of flight duties are limited to those required for the safe operation of the aircraft. BOTH pilots need to be positioned so that they can access the controls with full authority, NOT just the pilot flying. No distractions are permitted and all electronic devices must be in airplane mode.

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11
Q

What items are always restricted during all phases of flight?

A

25.01 pg. 3 - Using personal electronic devices for anything not pertaining to the safe operation of the flight, reading material not essential or pertinent to the conduct of the flight, or using anything that would decrease cockpit visibility (e.g. non-transparent sun shades, view limiting devices, etc.).

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12
Q

When must a TCAS RA be responded to?

A

25.01 pg. 3 - Always, even if it conflicts with an ATC instruction. The only exception is if the captain determines its unsafe to comply with the instruction

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13
Q

What should the captain do if the first officer has to use VHF to obtain the IFR clearance?

A

25.01 pg. 3 - Workload permitting, he must listen in to the clearance being given

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14
Q

What’s the earliest an IFR clearance can be obtained?

A

25.01 pg. 4 - 30 minutes prior to departure

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15
Q

When is it suggested that the seat belt sign be turned/left off?

A

25.01 pg. 4

-Until the captains “before start” flow is accomplished
-During climb, cruise, and descent when, in the opinion of the captain, no significant turbulence is anticipated
-After coming to a full stop on the ramp with the parking brake set

Note: the parking brake MUST be set to turn off the seat belt sign if an engine is still running at the gate. See “25.30 Opening the Main Cabin Door with an Engine Running” for more information.

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16
Q

When is the seat belt sign required to be turned/left on?

A

25.01 pg. 4

-While the aircraft is in motion on the ground
-During takeoff, initial climb, descent below 18,000’, and during landing
-Prior to entering an area of expected moderate or greater turbulence
-After entering an area of moderate or greater turbulence until conditions improve

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17
Q

What should the captain do if moderate or greater turbulence is known or suspected along the route of flight?

A

25.01 pg. 4 - The PIC should direct the cabin crew to be seated as soon as practical. Upon being seated the cabin crew will contact the flight deck to confirm all crew members are seated. If no call is received it should be assumed that at least one cabin crew is still standing and the PIC’s best judgement should be used while operating in the turbulent are.

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18
Q

Do they FA’s always need to make a PA when the seat belt signs are turned on/off?

A

25.01 pg. 5 - Generally they are required to make a PA. The exception being when the crew cycles the seat belt sign to indicate entering or leaving sterile cockpit

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19
Q

What does 14 CFR 121.99 say about communicating with ATC and dispatch?

A

It states that when conducting domestic and flag (not supplemental, though other requirements for supplemental operations may exist) operations, each aircraft must show that they can communicate with both ATC and dispatch along the entire route of flight. The system for communicating with ATC must be independent of the one for communicating with dispatch. This requirement can be met by using ACARS for communicating with dispatch. If ACAR’s is MEL’d then the appropriate ARINC frequency MUST be tuned AND monitored.

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20
Q

Can Frontier dispatch an aircraft along a route or flight segment with a known ARINC failure?

A

25.10 pg. 1 - Yes, but only if company communications can be maintained with Frontier station radios for that portion of the flight

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21
Q

Can a flight be continued if ARINC fails in flight?

A

25.10 pg. 2 - Yes. Using ATC to maintain company communication if necessary.

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22
Q

When are ops frequencies expected to be set and monitored?

A

25.10 pg. 2 - When preparing the aircraft for departure

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23
Q

What reports can no longer be made automatically if ACARS is inop? How can we manually make those reports?

A

25.10 pg. 2 - The departure and arrival reports cannot be sent automatically if the ACARS is inoperative. The reports can be given as follows.

-Departure report - contact operations with “out” time (brakes released and cabin doors closed), and “off” time, fuel on board at pushback in thousands of pounds, and ETA in UTC for the destination.
-example: “The times are 32, 38, fuel out 12.0, and ETA for Kansas City is 2155Z”

Arrival report - contact operations and tell them the “on” time and the “in” time as well as the fuel on board in pounds.
-example: “The times are 01, 04, and fuel on board is 6.9”

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24
Q

When should an ETA revision report be sent?

A

25.10 pg. 2 - Workload permitting, An ETA revision report should be sent via ACARS with the updated ETA when the ETA generated at WHEELS UP changes by +/-15 minutes.

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25
Q

What is included in the FOB message?

A

25.10 pg. 3 - The FOB at the aircrafts previous arrival (based on the ACARS recorded IN time) as well as the IN time and date. This should be used to perform the fuel reliability check. It can also be used to see how long the aircraft has been sitting on the ground.

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26
Q

When should the ACARS in range report be made?

A

25.10 pg. 3 - 45 minutes prior to arrival. A subsequent report should not be made unless an error message is received or the report information has significantly changed. If a response is not received by 30 minutes from ETA, the in range report should be made via radio on the appropriate ops frequency.

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27
Q

Should medical assistance be required upon arrival, should that be included in the in-range report?

A

YES!

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28
Q

What should be included in the in range report if the ACARS is inop?

A

25.10 pg. 3

-ETA
-Specials (wheelchairs, aislechairs, UM’s, etc)
-Estimated fuel at arrival, if tankering fuel
-Conditioned air if needed
-Emergency medical assistance required

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29
Q

What’s the “on the ground” report?

A

25.10 pg. 3 - Once on the ground, the crew shall call operations and advise they are on the ground

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30
Q

What is the post-flight report for?

A

25.10 pg. 4 - It helps the company keep track of pilot currency by tracking their takeoff and landings

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31
Q

When is an APU usage report required?

A

25.10 pg. 4 - An APU usage report is required when the APU is started early for whatever reason (No AC, no ground power, etc). Usually the APU is started no more than 10 minutes prior to departure or when the final aircraft loading has been received.

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32
Q

When is a request for a blockout delay automatically requested?

A

25.10 pg. 4 - When the aircrafts OUT time is later than the scheduled departure time by more than 3 minutes. According to the book the request is sent 30 minutes after the OFF time is recorded but I believe its actually 20 minutes

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33
Q

When is a ground delay report required?

A

25.10 pg. 4 - when there’s a delay after blockout exceeding 15 minutes

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34
Q

When must a TOGA report be submitted?

A

25.10 pg. 4 - When a TOGA takeoff is performed for any reason

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35
Q

Where can a comprehensive list of reports to dispatch be found?

A

Vol 1 25.10 pg. 5-6

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36
Q

When does the flight deck door need to be closed and locked prior to departure?

A

25.10 pg. 7 - Before the main cabin door is closed and prior to pushback

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37
Q

What does the captain need to hear from the FA’s prior to pushback?

A

25.10 pg. 7 - He needs to hear “Cabin secure” over the inter phone. If he does not recieve this call he cannot initiate pushback. It may be necessary to call them in case they forget to give the ‘cabin secure’ call.

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38
Q

What should the pilots state on the PA when approaching the takeoff runway? What should the FA’s communicate back if necessary?

A

25.10 pg. 7

Pilots: “Flight attendants prepare for takeoff.”

The FA’s will call the cockpit only if they are not prepared for takeoff, e.g. a passenger is up in the restroom.

The exact phraseology is not meant to exclude added courtesies, but the the exact wording must be in the announcement to avoid misinterpretation, e.g. “Ladies and gentlemen we are number 2 for departure, flight attendants prepare for takeoff.”

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39
Q

When should the seat belt sign be cycled to notify the FA’s of passing through sterile?

A

25.10 pg. 7

-During climb when passing through 10,000’AFE
-During descent when passing through 10,000’AFE or 30NM from the destination, whichever occurs first

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40
Q

When should the pilots notify the FA’s for landing? What should they say?

A

25.10 pg. 7 - They should make a call, “Flight attendants prepare for landing” when passing the final approach fix. The exact phraseology is not meant to exclude added courtesies, but the the exact wording must be in the announcement to avoid misinterpretation, e.g. “Ladies and gentlemen welcome to Phoenix, flight attendants prepare for landing.”

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41
Q

How many people are required on the flight deck at all times during operation? Who can take the place of a pilot during a bathroom break?

A

50.20 pg. 9, brief mention in 25.10 pg. 7

2 people are always required in the flight deck. A flight attendant OR an alternate crew member (ACM) may take the place of a pilot during a break.

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42
Q

What can be used to satisfy the ACM briefing requirements outside of a verbal briefing?

A

50.20 pg. 9 - The ACM briefing card

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43
Q

How long is the flight deck door allowed to be open during a crew member swap? What should be said if the door is open for longer than the permitted time?

A

50.20 pg. 9 - The door is allowed to be open for 3 seconds. If the door is open too long the phrase “three seconds” should be used to prompt them to close the door.

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44
Q

What should be said if any threat to the flight deck is detected while the flight deck door is open?

A

50.20 pg. 9 - “Door, door, door.”

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45
Q

Does the galley cart need to be in position blocking the forward galley in order to conduct a pre-takeoff contamination check?

A

50.20 pg. 10 - No

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46
Q

What the flight deck entry/exit procedure for the pilots?

A

50.20 pg. 9-10

1.) Call FA’s on inter phone to request a break/swap
1A.) A galley cart is not required for a bathroom break per the manual, its at the captains discretion. It’s worth mentioning however that the manual suggests you use it for a bathroom break, but recommends that you do not use it when exiting the flight deck on the ground, e.g. for a pre-takeoff contamination check.
2.) FA’s do all there preparations and then knock on the cockpit door
3.) The pilot or ACM will verify that the area is secure and positively identify the FA’s via the viewing port. If for any reason the area doesn’t seem secure or the FA’s are under duress, the door cannot be opened
4.) Door is opened to allow the FA to enter
5.) Door is closed and the Pilot or ACM will again check that the galley area is clear
6.) Door is opened and Pilot or ACM exits

Same process in reverse for reentering

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47
Q

When is the intercom cockpit call buzzer sound inhibited?

A

25.10 pg. 7 - During takeoff and landing. Even though the buzzer is inhibited, the amber “ATT”, “CALL” and white “ON” emergency call lights are never inhibited

Check vol 3 for more specific info?

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48
Q

Can the overhead panel EVAC switch be selected to CAPT & PURS?

A

25.10 pg. 7 - No. It must be selected to CAPT only

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49
Q

What is the captains responsibility to airworthiness and the aircraft logbook?

A

25.20 pg. 1

-Correct tail number
-No open write ups
-No discrepancy between MEL/CDL/NEF items on the logbook and on the flight release
-All MEL/CDL requirements and special maintenance procedures are complied with
-Notify MCC through the dispatcher of any mechanical irregularities or aircraft damage and entering them in the logbook
-No missing logbook pages

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50
Q

What should be done if a logbook page is missing?

A

25.20 pg. 1 - A discrepancy must be entered in the logbook for the missing pages, and positive contact must be made with MCC through the responsible dispatcher. MX will complete all required to tasks to ensure the aircraft is airworthy and then the plane can be returned to service.

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51
Q

Can Frontier Airlines operate an aircraft with a missing or illegible airworthiness certificate and/or aircraft registration?

A

25.20 pg. 1 - They can on a temporary basis under exemption 18053A. This temporary basis last for 3 days, excluding weekends and federal holidays, up to a total of 5 days. When this is done a logbook entry is required stating that the aircraft is being operated without the particular certificate/registration under the provisions of exemption 18053A.

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52
Q

Can MCC aid the flight crew on aircraft system resets on the ground? In flight?

A

25.20 pg. 2 - On the ground, yes. In flight, no. The exception to the in-flight rule is during an emergency, in which case MCC may give enough guidance only to help the aircraft make a safe landing.

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53
Q

Can the same system be reset twice on one flight?

A

25.20 pg. 2 - No. Only one system reset of the same system is authorized per flight leg. This does not preclude MCC from helping with an unsuccessful reset attempt, which would then only be considered one attempt.

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54
Q

What should be done following a successful system reset?

A

25.20 pg. 2

The captain shall:
-Make a successful system reset entry in the logbook including the captains signature
Ex: “VENT AVNCS SYS FAULT. Reset system successfully per QRH. -signature”
-Contact MCC through the dispatcher to review the logbook for accuracy and maintenance tracking purposes

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55
Q

Is a spurious/ temporary fault that corrects itself considered a reset?

A

25.20 pg. 12 - No.

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56
Q

If MCC helps the flight crew with a reset, can the logbook say “__________ reset successfully per MCC”?

A

25.20 pg. 12 - No. If MCC helps to reset, a reference to the correct MCC manual must be entered in the logbook, e.g. “______________ reset successfully reset per AMM XX-XX-XX-XXX-XXX.”

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57
Q

What should be done following an unsuccessful system reset attempt?

A

25.20 pg. 2

The captain shall:
-Contact MCC through the responsible dispatcher to identify if other system reset guidance is available
-If not other guidance is available, or the further guidance is unsuccessful, the captain will enter the fault as a discrepancy for appropriate maintenance action.

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58
Q

What’s the Cabin Condition Report?

A

25.20 pg. 3

It’s a report of the cabin interior given to the flight crew by the FA’s of discrepancies. It can be discarded once all items are entered into the logbook

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59
Q

What side of the logbook page is the captain responsible for?

A

25.20 pg. 4 - The left side (discrepancies)

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60
Q

What should be done if the captain makes a mistake filling out the discrepancy section of the logbook?

A

25.20 pg. 4

-For a single word or phrase error, a single line should be drawn through the incorrect entry and the correct entry written adjacent to the lined-out item.

-If correcting an entire entry block, a diagonal line shall be drawn through the entry, and write “Entered in Error” or “EIE” on the diagonal line. If necessary, enter the correct information on the next available block.

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61
Q

What should be done if making corrections to the logbook on behalf of another pilot?

A

25.20 pg. 4 - Corrections are made in the same way as if the pilot were correcting his own errors. The only difference is that the initials and employee ID number of the correcting pilot should be included with the correction.

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62
Q

What happens to the white copy of logbook pages after maintenance?

A

25.20 pg. 4

The white sheet is removed by Frontier maintenance as part of the reliability program. At stations with contract maintenance, the mechanic must electronically transmit the white copy to MCC, along with any other associated paperwork, before the aircraft can be returned to service.

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63
Q

Is a logbook entry required for every calendar day?

A

25.20 pg. 5 - No. It’s only required if a maintenance action is performed on that particular day.

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64
Q

Can multiple entries be made on a single logbook page?

A

25.20 pg. 5 - Yes, but ONLY if they occurred on the same calendar day

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65
Q

What information is required to be filled out when starting a new logbook page?

A

25.20 pg. 5

-AC number e.g. 301
-Todays date (based on Denver time)

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66
Q

What’s required to be filled out for an airworthiness sign off?

A

25.20 pg 6

Essentially the entire top two lines of the page. A/C number, date based on MST Denver, type of maintenance check, station, check date MM/DD/YY HH:MM, airworthiness release signature, and employee ID.

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67
Q

What required to be filled out when oil is added to the aircraft?

A

25.20 pg. 6

Essentially the top banner (A/C number and date in MST-Denver time), and the entire oil added section (oil added position, qts, station, date, and employee ID)

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68
Q

What’s required to be filled out by the captain for a discrepancy entry in the logbook?

A

25.20 pg 7

-Top banner (A/C number and date in MST-Denver time)
-Left side of the line above the “discrepancies” box
-Includes FR?, Flight #, Station, Employee ID, and Previous page
-Discrepancies box with type of discrepancy or comment, and if deferred, the appropriate MEL, CDL, or NEF reference number, and/or control number

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69
Q

What does VBM mean in the logbook?

A

Void by maintenance

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70
Q

What are all the reasons for which the flight crew may need to make a logbook entry?

A

25.20 pg. 8

-A discrepancy
-A flight crew placarding (FCP)
-A system reset
-A follow-up required (check the FR? Box as well)
-An overweight landing

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71
Q

What should be done if a discrepancy or comment is too long to fit in one discrepancy box?

A

25.20 pg. 8

Start by filling out the discrepancy box as normal and then continue on subsequent boxes. Be sure to check the “previous item” or “previous page” boxes as appropriate.

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72
Q

Can multiple discrepancies be entered in the same discrepancy box in the logbook?

A

25.20 pg. 9 - No. Each must have their own line. Even if the items are similar or the same (for example multiple tray tables broken) they each must be written up in their own discrepancy box.

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73
Q

What should you do if you don’t know how to enter an item in the logbook?

A

25.20 pg. 9

MCC can provide assistance with the correct wording for the logbook. This should be easy as you already have to call MCC through the dispatcher any time you make a logbook entry.

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74
Q

When is the captains signature required when writing something in the discrepancy section of the logbook?

A

25.20 pg. 9

The captains signature is NOT required when writing in an actual discrepancy. It is required however for a computer reset, follow-up required, or flight crew placard.

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75
Q

What must be done if a discrepancy or malfunction is discovered prior to blockout?

A

25.20 pg. 10

The discrepancy must be either repaired or MEL/CDL/NEF’d prior to block out. The flight crew must obtain an ARTR if an item is deferred.

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76
Q

What should be done if a discrepancy or malfunction is discovered after block-out but before advancing the thrust levers for takeoff?

A

25.20 pg. 10

The flight crew must consult the eQRH and/or contact both dispatch and MCC to determine if a reset may be performed. If a reset cannot be performed or is unsuccessful, the flight may continue without returning to the gate if the item may be deferred using flight crew placarding (FCP) procedures. If FCP procedures are not possible, a return to the gate is required for maintenance to address the issue.

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77
Q

What should be done if a discrepancy is discovered in flight?

A

25.20 pg. 10

All irregularities occurring in flight must be entered in the aircraft logbook upon arrival. Dispatch/MCC should be notified via ACARS in flight if maintenance action will be required on the ground, in order to expedite maintenance action. Again, when making the logbook entry on the ground after arrival, MCC must still be contacted through the dispatcher.

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78
Q

What needs to be done if the decision is made to use flight crew placarding procedures?

A

25.20 pg. 11

MCC will provide the info needed to defer the discrepancy including MEL/CDL/NEF number, Control number, the MCC controllers name and employee ID number, station, and statement that the aircraft may continue. The captains signature IS required. MCC will instruct you to retrieve the appropriate placard, what to fill out, where to place it, and if required, instructions on how to install a circuit breaker collar.

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79
Q

Can the flight crew ever remove a circuit breaker collar?

A

25.20 pg. 11

No, this must always be done by maintenance personnel.

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80
Q

What should be entered following the completion of an FR procedure?

A

25.20 pg. 12

An entry in the discrepancy section of the logbook with a statement about which action was completed and according to which manual.

Ex: Accomplished MEL 80-11-01A FR action per the MEL/CDL manual prior to departure. -Signature

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81
Q

What should be done if when inspecting the logbook, a previous captains signature is found missing? Is the aircraft considered airworthy?

A

25.20 pg. 13

The aircraft IS considered airworthy but the write-up is considered incomplete. On a new discrepancies section the captain should write the log page number and item number where the captains signature is missing, the fact that it was missing previous captains signature, and then sign his name. This will close out the write up. Do NOT sign the original write up.

Note: This procedure can only be done if no maintenance action was required and nothing was entered on the right/maintenance section of the logbook for that entry. It can also only be done if the signing captain is sure that everything else was done correctly, and it’s ONLY missing the captains signature.

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82
Q

Where can a list of other aircraft irregularities and associated required reports be found?

A

25.20 pg. 15-16

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83
Q

What are some examples of non-ecam related aircraft irregularities/occurrences that require a report/logbook entry?

A

25.20 pg. 15-18

-Aborted takeoff if it was the result of a mechanical fault. Include details of the aborted TO, e.g. speed, temp, weight, etc. An incident report is required within 36 hours of completing the sequence.
-Airframe vibration. Airframe vibration report and logbook entry required.
-Unsatisfactory autoland. Logbook entry only required if unsatisfactory due to aircraft associated problem.
-Bird/wildlife/lightning strikes. Logbook entry required.
-Flight through extreme dust conditions. Logbook entry required.
-Engine failure/shutdown in flight. A logbook entry and incident report are required
-Flap overspeed. Logbook entry and incident report required.
-Gear pin instillation and removal
-Hail. Logbook entry if hail is suspected to have caused damage to the aircraft
-Overweight/hard landing (load report 15). Logbook entry and incident report required. If the hard landing happened in an overweight condition, two entries are required. One for the hard landing and one for the overweight landing.
-Odor, smoke/fume event. Cabin odor form must be filled out as well as a logbook entry. The odor form is available in the diversion kit.
-Nosewheel vibration report and logbook entry
-RVSM deviation of 300ft or more due to aircraft system failure requires a logbook entry as well as an incident report. Deviations due to meteorological phenomena do not require a logbook entry but may still require an incident report
-Taxi outside of hard surface or defined taxi area. Logbook entry required as well as maintenance inspection. Aircraft must be towed off unless the aircraft did not move off of a hard surface and the captain determines it’s safe to taxi. Incident report required.
-Severe or greater turbulence requires a logbook entry and incident report
-Volcanic ash. Flight through ash requires a logbook entry and an incident report. Additionally the location of ash, altitude, and time of occurrence (UTC) should be communicated to dispatch as soon as possible.

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84
Q

Who has operational control of an aircraft when a discrepancy is entered in the logbook?

A

25.20 pg. 18

MCC has operational control of the aircraft until it is returned to service.

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85
Q

When can the A/C out of service placard be removed?

A

25.20 pg. 18

It can be removed by maintenance or by the flight crew when directed by dispatch

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86
Q

Can an item be deferred if it is not listed in the MEL/CDL/NEF manuals?

A

25.20 pg. 19

It could possibly be deferred under the guidance of an engineering authorization.

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87
Q

What are the two ways that damage to fan blades are addressed?

A

25.20 pg. 20

Either an “X” in black is drawn next to the damaged area indicating that the damage is within limits, or the damage is blended. If damage is discovered and no “X” or evidence of blending is present, the captain must log the damage and contact MCC.

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88
Q

Can a pilot do the walk around without a safety vest?

A

25.30 pg. 1 - Yes, but only after unsuccessfully making every attempt to obtain one

89
Q

When should be mentioned in a taxi brief?

A

25.30 pg. 2 -

-Notams and ATIS for taxiway closures, surface contamination, construction, and other airport specific risks
-Charted hot spots
-Standard taxi routes
-Signage, markings, and lighting
-Any additional concerns such as complex taxi design, intersecting runways, etc.

90
Q

What’s a potential pitfall of a taxi route brief?

A

25.30 pg. 3 - expectation bias

91
Q

How long should you line up and wait for takeoff before querying ATC?

A

25.30 pg. 4 - 90 seconds. But only if you weren’t given a specific reason for the LUAW clearance.

92
Q

What are the suggested aircraft lighting practices?

A

25.30 pg. 7

Nav and log lights - On anytime the aircraft is powered
Beacon - On whenever the engine is running or is about to be turned on
Taxi light - Whenever the crew is taxiing. Can be turned off after coming to a stop
All lights - Everything on when cleared onto the runway, either for takeoff, landing, or just crossing

93
Q

Are wing walkers required to park the plane?

A

25.30 pg. 8 - The top paragraph of this page says that they are only preferred, not required. Of course the Marshaller is required.

94
Q

Can you park the plane if the Marshaller/wingwalkers don’t have lighted wands?

A

25.30 pg. 8 - Yes, but only if the marshaller’s directions are clearly visible and the captain determines that safety will not be compromised by the lack of lighted wands

95
Q

What’s the J-line?

A

The line you park on at the gate

96
Q

What’s a severe weather aircraft parking system (SWAPS)?

A

25.30 pg. 8 - It’s a vehicle with lights on the roof to guide in an aircraft in conditions in which it may not be safe for a marshaller outside, e.g. thunderstorms, blizzards, etc.

97
Q

What do the lights on a SWAPS vehicle means?

A

25.30 pg. 9

Green - Proceed on the j-line at a normal speed
Yellow - 15 feet from the final stopping position, slow down and prepare to stop
Red - Stop the aircraft and set the parking brake
Left arrow - steer left
Right arrow - steer right

98
Q

What should you do to let ground crews know that the parking brake is set after docking the aircraft if the parking brake light on the nose gear is inoperative?

A

25.30 pg. 9 - Flash the runway turnoff lights

99
Q

What mistake is easy to make after parking the plane with the SWAPS or other time when the ramp is closed?

A

25.30 pg. 9 - Releasing the parking brake without being chocked. Remember that after using SWAPS the won’t chock the plane because the ramp is closed and it’s not safe for them outside. Do not release the brakes until you get visual confirmation from ramp personnel that the aircraft is chocked.

100
Q

Can two parking methods, i.e. the marshaller and the advanced visual docking guidance system (A-VDGS), be used at the same time?

A

25.30 pg 9 - No. Use must use one or the other. The only exception is if the advanced visual docking guidance system (A-VDGS) becomes inoperative during the parking process, switching to a marshaller may become necessary.

101
Q

What should the pilots be looking out for when using the advanced visual guidance docking system (A-VDGS)?

A

25.30 pg. 9

-Never enter the gate unless the correct aircraft type is displayed and running arrows are displayed on the pilot display
-Never enter the gate area unless you can see that the safety zone is clear and it is safe to enter
-Never move the nose of the aircraft past the jet bridge unless the A-VDGS is displaying the guidance screen with centerline indicator
-Always stop the aircraft when the A-VDGS displays “WAIT” or “STOP”

102
Q

What should the pilots consider after parking the plane with the ramp closed?

A

25.30 pg. 10

-Ground power and air will not be hooked up. APU must be used
-All passengers will be required to disembark with their bags, even those on a through flight
-Checked bags will not be removed until the ramp reopens, this includes all gate-checks
-Plane must be secured unless the crew is continuing or an oncoming crew is there and available
-A postflight inspection should not be conducted until/unless the ramp is re-opened. If the aircraft is a RON and a postflight has not been accomplished, contact MCC through the dispatcher to arrange for maintenance to do the postflight.

103
Q

What should the pilots consider after parking the plane with the ramp closed?

A

25.30 pg. 10

-Ground power and air will not be hooked up. APU must be used
-All passengers will be required to disembark with their bags, even those on a through flight
-Checked bags will not be removed until the ramp reopens, this includes all gate-checks
-Plane must be secured unless the crew is continuing or an oncoming crew is there and available
-A postflight inspection should not be conducted until/unless the ramp is re-opened. If the aircraft is a RON and a postflight has not been accomplished, contact MCC through the dispatcher to arrange for maintenance to do the postflight.

104
Q

What is the procedure for aircraft sitting to be parked during a ramp closure with an inoperative APU?

A

25.30 pg. 10 - No aircraft without an operative APU will be parked during a ramp closure unless an emergency requires the aircraft to be parked at the gate, or the aircraft is approaching the 3 hour limit for tarmac delays.

105
Q

What must be done in order to safely open the main cabin door with an engine running?

A

25.30 pg. 10

-Either the captain or first officer must be seated in the cockpit to ensure that the aircraft doesn’t not move
-The parking brake must be set and remain ON until the engine is shut down and the aircraft is chocked
-Doors may not be opened nor may passengers disembark unless a bridge is positioned with the canopy extended
-Doors may not be left armed for emergency purposes on the side of the operating engine

106
Q

Can a Frontier aircraft depart VFR?

A

25.40 pg. 1 - Yes, under the following circumstances

-It’s not possible to obtain an IFR clearance on the ground
-Performance data (AWP or TLR) must be available to ensure obstacle clearance
-Must have VMC conditions (3sm vis, ceiling greater than 1000’)
-Must maintain required VFR cloud clearances
-Must remain in VMC the whole time and have sufficient conditions to visually avoid obstacles, maneuver, and maintain minimum altitudes
-Must obtain IFR clearance as soon as practical after departure, but under no circumstances farther than 50nm from the departure airport

107
Q

What does RNAV 1 mean?

A

25.40 pg. 2 - A system error of not more than 1nm must be maintained 95% of the time, i.e. RNP 1.0

108
Q

What must cross-track error/deviation be limited to during an RNAV SID or STAR?

A

25.40 pg. 2 - 0.5nm

109
Q

Is the flight director required to be on during an RNAV SID or STAR?

A

25.40 pg. 2 - Yes, or at least the autopilot

110
Q

Can RNAV procedures (SID’s and STAR’s) be flown with GPS inoperative?

A

25.40 pg. 2 - Yes, as long as Nav Accuracy is “HIGH”. If any other failures result in a loss of RNAV capability, i.e. NAV ACCURACY DOWNGRADE, the flight crew must advise ATC as soon as possible and state intentions.

111
Q

What equipment is required to enter and operate in RVSM airspace?

A

25.40 pg. 2

-Two primary altitude measuring systems
-One autopliot system
-One altitude altering device
-One altitude reporting transponder

112
Q

What altitude should be flown if ATC does not specify an altitude?

A

25.45 pg. 1 - The minimum IFR altitude as published on the applicable enroute, STAR, or approach charts.

113
Q

What altitude should be flown if ATC does not specify an altitude?

A

25.45 pg. 1 - The minimum IFR altitude as published on the applicable enroute, STAR, or approach charts.

114
Q

What’s the lowest legal altitude that can even be flown regardless of ATC instructions?

A

25.45 pg 1

-No aircraft may fly below an altitude that allows for an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface if an engine fails
-No aircraft may fly over an congested area, town, or settlement, or any open air assembly of persons, at an altitude of less than 1000’ above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2000’ of the aircraft.

115
Q

What are the VFR takeoff minimums for part 121 ops on domestic flights?

A

25.45 pg. 2

Day ops - 1000’ ceilings and 1sm visibility
Night ops - 1000’ ceilings and 2 miles visibility

Visibility may be reduced to 1/2sm due to a local surface visibility restriction (e.g. smoke, dust, blowing snow or sand) if all turns after takeoff, before landing, and all flight beyond one mile from the airport boundary can be accomplished above or outside the area of local surface visibility restriction.

116
Q

Where can a list be found of airports where special VFR operations are prohibited?

A

Vol 1, 25.45 pg. 2 table 1

117
Q

In the absence of an ATC clearance what are the basic VFR weather minima that must be observed?

A

25.45 pg. 2

Class B
- 3sm visibility and clear of clouds
Class C and D
- 3sm visibility, 500’ below, 1000’ above, and 2000’ horizontally from clouds
Class E and below 10,000’MSL
- 3sm visibility, 500’ below, 1000’ above, and 2000’ horizontally from clouds
Class E at or above 10,000’MSL
- 5sm visibility, 1000’ below, 1000’ above, and 1nm horizontally from clouds
Class G at or less than 1200’AGL regardless of MSL altitude
- Day: 1sm visibility and clear of clouds
-Night: 3sm visibility, 500’ below, 1000’ above, and 2000’ horizontally from clouds
Class G above 1200’AGL but less than 10,000MSL
- Day: 1sm visibility, 500’ below, 1000’ above, and 2000’ horizontally from clouds
- Night: 3sm visibility, 500’ below, 1000’ above, and 2000’ horizontally from clouds
Class G above 1200’AGL and at or above 10,000’ MSL
-5sm visibility, 1000’ below, 1000’ above, and 1sm horizontally from clouds

118
Q

Where can I find minimum altitude and weather info in our manuals?

A

Vol 1, 25.45

119
Q

How often do altimeters need to be cross checked in RVSM airspace? Where can the maximum differences between altimeters be found?

A

25.50 pg. 1 - Atleast once an hour. The maximum permissible differences between altimeters can be found in Vol 2, 5.50 pg. 1

120
Q

When is it required to cross-check fuel burn and flight time regardless of the type of airspace?

A

25.50 pg. 1

-At top-of-climb (TOC) once cruise altitude is reached, either the filed cruise, or another cruise altitude requested or assigned.
-At least once every hour while enroute
-While once an hour is good, it’s better to do it crossing each fix, or abeam each fix, on the flight plan
On flights shorter than 1 hour the flight crew should cross check the fuel atleast during TOC at cruise
And atleast one other time during the flight

121
Q

What should you do if your fuel crosscheck detects a significantly higher fuel burn than anticipated?

A

25.50 pg. 2 - Contact the dispatcher via ACARS/ARINC to consult on the best course of action

122
Q

What is class 2 navigation?

A

25.50 pg. 2 - Any navigation outside of standard service volumes of navaids

123
Q

Where can the standard service volumes be found?

A

Vol 1, 25.50 pg. 2-3, AIM 1-1-8

124
Q

What are Q and T routes? What’s the RNP requirement for these routes?

A

25.50 pg. 4 - They are high and low RNAV routes. They require RNP 2.0 except in Alaska or the Gulf of Mexico where there is no RNP requirement and the standard airway dimensions apply (8nm wide, 4 on each side of the course)

125
Q

Can Q and T routes be loaded by manually inserting each fix along route?

A

25.50 pg. 4 - Yes, but it’s not the preferred method.

126
Q

What should be done if RNAV equipment fails in Class A airspace?

A

25.50 pg. 4 - The crew shall obtain permission to navigate using ground based navigational facilities

127
Q

Is there any class 2 airspace in the contiguous US?

A

25.50 pg. 4 - No. There is sufficient NAVIAD coverage to cover the entire contiguous US. It is possible however for an VOR outage to create a pocket of class 2 navigation.

128
Q

What is the maximum permissible cross-track error in class 2 navigation where no RNP standard has been established?

A

25.50 pg. 4 - 25nm

129
Q

Which OpSpec allows Frontier Airbus aircraft to conduct class II navigation with long range navigation systems?

A

25.50 pg. 5 - OpSpec B036

130
Q

What areas are authorized for enroute operations?

A

25.50 pg 5.

-US contiguous 48 states
-US state of Alaska
-Atlantic ocean, WAT (also known as WATRS, see 35.35)
-To operate in the “New York Oceanic” (KZWY) portion of the WAT the aircraft must be equipped with Long
Range Communications Systems (LRCS)
-Canada (excluding the Canadian MNPS airspace
-Mexico
-Gulf of Mexico
-Caribbean Sea - e.g. Jamaican, Dominican Republic
-Central America - e.g., Costa Rica

131
Q

What RNP is required for oceanic and remote airspace?

A

25.50 pg. 5 - RNP 10

132
Q

What lateral separation does RNP 10 airspace provide?

A

25.50 pg. 5 - 50nm lateral separation

133
Q

What errors are included in the umbrella of “cross-track error” (XTK)?

A

25.50 pg. 5

-Positioning error
-Flight technical error (FTE)
-Path definition error
-Display error

134
Q

What’s the minimum equipment to dispatch RNP 10?

A

25.50 pg. 5

-2 FMGC’s
-2 MCDU
-2 IRS
-2 ND’s

135
Q

What is GoMex CTA?

A

It’s the Gulf of Mexico Oceanic Control Area

136
Q

How far from the shore can a “non-overwater” aircraft fly?

A

25.50 pg. 6 - no further than 50nm from the shore

137
Q

How far from land may an “extended overwater aircraft” fly? How can the pilots know that an aircraft is “extended overwater” approved?

A

25.50 pg. 6 - No further than one hour away from an adequate airport, in still air, one engine inoperative, in ISA conditions. You can know that it’s approved if there’s “extended overwater” notation on the aircrafts logbook, and there are no MEL’s for emergency equipment that would restrict extended overwater operations.

138
Q

What’s a “limited overwater aircraft”?

A

25.50 pg. 7 - It’s an extended overwater aircraft that’s been prohibited from extended overwater operations due to an equipment restriction.

139
Q

Where can information be found about the restrictions on limited overwater aircraft?

A

25.50 pg. 7 and the MEL/CDL manuals

140
Q

Which OpSpecs allow an aircraft with emergency equipment restrictions to operate in a limited overwater capacity?

A

25.50 pg. 7 - OpSpec A005, A013, and B050

141
Q

Is Frontier authorized to conduct Extended Range Operations (ETOPS)?

A

25.50 pg. 7 - Not currently, though they would like to in the future

142
Q

What altitudes are classified as RVSM?

A

25.50 pg. 7 - FL290-FL410

143
Q

Is it required to use the autopilot in RVSM airspace?

A

25.50 pg. 7 - It is, unless turbulence or other circumstances require disengagement.

144
Q

What’s the maximum permissible altitude undershoot/overshoot when leveling off at a cleared altitude in RVSM airspace?

A

25.50 pg. 8 - +/-150’

145
Q

What should the crew do if the aircraft becomes non-RVSM compliant while in flight, or if weather conditions make it difficult for the aircraft to maintain the assigned flight level?

A

25.50 pg. 8 - Notify ATC, monitor TCAS, and turn on exterior lighting to increase visibility to other aircraft

146
Q

What altitude keeping errors require the captain to submit an incident report within 36hrs?

A

25.50 pg. 8

-Total vertical error of 300’ or more
-Altimetry system error of 245’ or more
-Assigned flight level deviation of 300’ or more

147
Q

Where can examples of RVSM equipment failures be found and what to do in each scenario?

A

Vol 1, 25.50 pg. 8

148
Q

What does FIR stand for?

A

Flight information region

149
Q

What must be done prior to crossing a FIR boundary or commencing extended overwater operations, whichever begins first?

A

25.50 pg. 9 - Obtain the latest METAR and TAF at the destination and alternate

150
Q

Is a current weather report required to conduct operations at a station?

A

25.50 pg. 9 - yes

151
Q

What if anything can be done if an automated weather system fails to report temperature and/or altimeter setting?

A

25.50 pg. 9 - The National Weather Service Real-Time Mesoscale Analysis (RTMA) data can be used in lieu of the automated station. This information can be provided by dispatch.

152
Q

At what frequency does a National Weather Service Real-Time Mesoscale Analysis (NWS RTMA) provide a report of airport temperature and pressure?

A

25.50 pg. 9 - Every hour, 24 hours a day

153
Q

If dispatched with RTMA data, will the raw RTMA data be sent to the pilots, or the adjusted data?

A

25.50 pg. 10 - Only the raw data will be sent. This will help prevent double application of the adjustment procedure.

154
Q

What can the crew do AFTER departure if the destination temperature and altimeter setting become inoperative?

A

25.50 pg. 10 - Contact dispatch via ACARS or ARINC in order to get the most recent RTMA data. That data must then be adjusted by the pilots for the sake of performance calculations.

155
Q

What will happen if you send for the landing data via ACARS, and the temperature and pressure are not reporting?

A

25.50 pg. 10 - AeroData will return an error message requiring the missing data to be entered manually.

156
Q

Can RTMA data be used when freezing precipitation is present of deicing/anti-ing procedures and holdover-time calculation are necessary?

A

25.50 pg. 10 - No

157
Q

What weather reports should be made to dispatch?

A

25.50 pg. 10 - Any weather conditions that may affect other Frontier flight (e.g. unforecasted turbulence)

158
Q

What should be done if the crew encounters weather induced altitude deviations of approximately 200’ or more?

A

25.50 pg. 11 - Contact ATC and tell them, “Unable RVSM due to (state reason)”. If vectors are not supplied to avoid other traffic the pilots should request vectors.

159
Q

Where can a table of turbulence/chop severity be found?

A

Vol 1, 25.50 pg. 12

160
Q

What’s the difference between chop and turbulence?

A

25.50 pg. 12 - Chop causes sudden jolts but doesn’t appreciably change the attitude or altitude of the aircraft. Turbulence also causes jolts, but also causes appreciable changes in attitude, altitude, or both.

161
Q

What must be done if encounter severe or greater turbulence?

A

25.50 pg. 11

-Fly at the turbulence penetration speed
-A logbook entry must be made upon arrival
-Report to ATC and dispatch

162
Q

What is are the definitions of occasional, intermittent, and continuous when it comes to turbulence reporting?

A

25.50 pg. 13

Occasional - Less than 1/3 of the time
Intermittent - 1/3 to 2/3 of the time
Continuous - More than 2/3 of the time

163
Q

What are the maximum hold speeds in the USA?

A

25.50 pg. 13

Up to 6000’……………………………200kias
6,001’ to 14,000’…………………….230kias
Above 14,000’………………………..265kias

164
Q

Where can I find the maximum hold speed for Mexico and the Dominican Republic?

A

Vol 1, 25.50 pg. 13

165
Q

What’s the standard holding direction?

A

Right turns

166
Q

Hold should all turns be made while holding?

A

25.50 pg. 14

-3º per second, or
-30º bank angle, or,
-25º-30º bank angle while using a flight director

167
Q

At what altitude does the standard hold time change from 1 minute to 1.5 minutes?

A

25.50 pg. 14

At or below 14,000’MSL……………………1 minute
Above 14,000’MSL……………………………1.5 minutes

168
Q

Which leg in a hold is required to be 1 minute or 1.5 minutes depending on altitude, the inbound or outbound leg?

A

25.50 pg. 14 - The initial outbound leg should be flown for the correct time. Then upon seeing how long the first inbound leg ended up being, the subsequent outbound legs are adjust to insure that the INBOUND leg is flown the proper amount of time the rest of the hold.

169
Q

What should you do if you believe the maximum hold speeds are too slow to be flown safely for whatever reason (e.g. turbulence)?

A

25.50 pg. 14 - Advise ATC immediately of the need for a higher than normal speed

170
Q

Are radio navaids required to identify an airport and runways during a visual approach?

A

25.60 pg. 1 - Yes, as long as they are operational.

171
Q

Will the company hold the pilots accountable for on-time performance, fuel conservation, passengers connections, or other non-safety items due to a go-around/missed approach?

A

25.60 pg. 1 - No

172
Q

Can an approach be continued before the initial approach fix if the visibility falls below the required visibility on the chart?

A

25.60 pg. 2 - No. A missed approach would have to be executed by the FAF

173
Q

When can an aircraft descend below DA/MDA to touchdown?

A

25.60 pg. 2

1.) The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to landing can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers
2.) The flight path of the aircraft will allow touchdown to occur in the touchdown zone
3.) The “flight visibility” is not less than the visibility on the approach chart
4.) One of the following items is distinctly visible and identifiable
-The approach lighting system, except that the pilot may only descend to 100’ATZE using the approach
lights as a reference unless the red terminating bars or red side row bars are also distinctly visible and
Identifiable
-The threshold, touchdown zone, or runway, itself, its lights or its markings.
-The visual approach slope indicator
-The runway and identifier lights

174
Q

Can Frontier substitute RNAV for an out-of-service navaid?

A

25.60 pg. 3 - Yes, as long as that out of service navaid isn’t the primary means of navigation for the approach.

175
Q

Can Frontier substitute RNAV for an out-of-service navaid?

A

25.60 pg. 3 - Yes, as long as that out of service navaid isn’t the primary means of navigation for the approach.

176
Q

When must an approach be briefed and flown as an autoland?

A

25.60 pg. 4

It must be briefed and flown as an autoland when the following conditions are met:

-The ATIS-reported RVR/visibility is at or below 2400RVR or 1/2sm
-A CAT II or CAT III runway is available
-The aircraft is autoland capable
-Both crew members are trained

177
Q

Is Frontier authorized to perform CAT II/III operations outside the US?

A

25.60 pg. 4 - No

178
Q

Is the First Officer allowed to be the pilot flying during CAT II/III operations?

A

25.60 pg. 4 - No

179
Q

When can Frontier pilots accept a visual approach?

A

25.60 pg. 5

When all of the following are true:
-The weather conditions allow the crew to see and avoid obstacles, safely maneuver using external visual references, and maintain minimum altitudes
-The approach is operated in Class B, C, or D airspace, or within 35nm of the destination airport in class E airspace
-The flight in under ATC control
-The flight crew can maintain VFR cloud clearances

180
Q

Can Frontier crews cancel IFR and operate under VFR in the terminal area?

A

25.60 pg. 6 - yes, provided the following are true

-VMC conditions (3sm and 1000’ ceilings)
-Crew must maintain bas cloud clearances
-Ceilings and cloud clearances must be enough to all the crew to maintain minimum altitudes
-In controlled airports
-Flight is in class B, C, D airspace, or within 10nm of of the destination in E airspace and never enters
class G airspace
-Flight crew requests and uses traffic advisories
-The flight is in communication with ATC
-In uncontrolled airports
-The crew is in communication with an air/ground facility that provides traffic advisories
-The flight is operated within 10nm of the destination or visual reference with the landing surface is
established and can be maintained throughout the approach and landing

181
Q

Where can I find more information about what the requirements are for flying to uncontrolled airports? And which uncontrolled airports are approved?

A

Vol 1, 25.60 pg. 7-8

182
Q

How far out should straight-in approaches be made to a non-towered airport?

A

25.60 pg. 9 - No closer than 4.3nm from the landing runway

183
Q

What are ways you can cancel your IFR flight plan when landing at a non-towered airport?

A

25.60 pg. 9 - On a controllers frequency, through flight service (either on the radio or by phone), or by contacting the dispatcher via ACARS or phone and asking them to cancel the flight plan.

184
Q

When can the captain accept a LAHSO clearance?

A

25.60 pg. 10

-Runway is dry
-Ceiling and visibility of 1500’ and 5sm when no PAPI or VASI is available.
-Cieling and visibility of 1000’ and 3sm when a PAPI or VASI is available
-No reported wind shear
-Tailwind less than 3 knots
-Aircraft must touchdown in the 1st 1/3rd of the runways available landing distance or 3000’, whichever is shorter. If not must reject the landing.
-Must review any special rejected landing procedure
-LAHSO landing data must be computed before accepting a LAHSO clearance

185
Q

Can you accept a LAHSO clearance with a tailwind greater than 3 knots?

A

25.60 pg. 10 - No

186
Q

Can you accept a LAHSO clearance with a tailwind greater than 3 knots?

A

25.60 pg. 10 - No

187
Q

Can you accept a LAHSO clearance if any MEL/CDL is applied to the aircraft that affects landing performance? What about if you have an inflight failure that affects landing performance?

A

25.60 pg. 10 - In both cases the answer is no

188
Q

Can you accept a LAHSO clearance if any MEL/CDL is applied to the aircraft that affects landing performance? What about if you have an inflight failure that affects landing performance?

A

25.60 pg. 10 - In both cases the answer is no

189
Q

Can you accept a LAHSO clearance with reported wind shear at the airport?

A

25.60 pg. 10 - No

190
Q

Can you accept a LAHSO clearance with reported wind shear at the airport?

A

25.60 pg. 10 - No

191
Q

Can you accept a LAHSO clearance on a wet/contaminated runway?

A

25.60 pg. 10 - No

192
Q

Can you accept a LAHSO clearance on a wet/contaminated runway?

A

25.60 pg. 10 - No

193
Q

Can you accept a LAHSO clearance when on approach at 1200’ AFE? At 800’AFE?

A

25.60 pg. 10 - Yes at 1200’ AFE but not at 800’AFE. The cutoff is at 1000’AFE. Below that altitude a LAHSO clearance would have to be rejected.

194
Q

What’s an RLP?

A

25.60 pg. 11 - It’s a published “rejected landing procedure” for use due to challenging LAHSO configurations

195
Q

What’s an RLP? t

A

25.60 pg. 11 - It’s a published “rejected landing procedure” for use due to challenging LAHSO configurations

196
Q

Where can you find information about RLP procedures?

A

25.60 pg. 11 - In the commercial navigation charting service (or via NOTAM if it’s not charted yet), and also in the AvioBooks Airports module

197
Q

When should you comply with the published RLP if executing a go-around after accepting a LAHSO clearance?

A

25.60 pg. 11 - You should only execute the published RLP below 1000’AFE and in VMC. In all other circumstances, either at or above 1000’AFE or in VMC you should execute the published missed approach procedure.

198
Q

What are some things that we can do to conserve fuel?

A

25.70 pg. 1

-Reduce APU use
-Single engine taxi
-Climb at green dot after wrong direction takeoff
-Climbing and cruising at CI speed instead of going faster
-Cruise at optimum altitude
-Route shortcuts
-Delaying flap extension until necessary
-Avoiding unnecessary speed brake use
-Using idle reverse when conditions permit

199
Q

What are some things that we can do to conserve fuel?

A

25.70 pg. 1

-Reduce APU use
-Single engine taxi
-Climb at green dot after wrong direction takeoff
-Climbing and cruising at CI speed instead of going faster
-Cruise at optimum altitude
-Route shortcuts
-Delaying flap extension until necessary
-Avoiding unnecessary speed brake use
-Using idle reverse when conditions permit

200
Q

What is cost index?

A

25.70 pg. 1 - It’s the ratio of time costs to fuel costs. CI = Time costs / fuel costs

201
Q

What does the FMGS use the cost index for?

A

25.70 pg. 1 - By knowing the ratio of time costs to fuel costs it can maximum cost efficiency by speeding up when time costs are relatively more expensive, and slowing down and conserving fuel when fuel costs are relatively more expensive.

202
Q

What is the approximate time cost value used to compute the cost index?

A

25.70 pg. 1 - about $300USD/hour

203
Q

When does the manual say you can increase the cost index?

A

25.70 pg. 2

-When the flight is 5+ minutes OVER-BLOCK (not late, but overblock), in this case the cost index should be doubled
-If ATC requests a speed up to facilitate flight handling
-If SOC requests you speed up to ensure a flight arrives before a time limit (curfew, time-out, etc)

204
Q

What’s a good rule of thumb as to how much extra fuel you’ll burn because of an increased weight?

A

25.70 pg. 2 - A good rule of thumb is that for each additional 1000lbs of weight, you’ll burn an additional 40lbs of fuel per hour. This means that for each 1000lbs of fuel put on board, 4% is lost just transporting the fuel. That means that the fuel must be greater than 4% cheaper at the departure airport before tankering fuel becomes economical.

205
Q

What is the rough fuel burn of the APU?

A

25.70 pg. 3

-It burns about 275lbs/hour when running both the electrics and A/C
-It burns about 165lbs/hour when powered on, but neither supplying electrics nor A/C
-It burns 210-220lbs/hour when running either the electrics or the A/C but not both. It costs slightly more fuel for the A/C than the electrics

206
Q

If using the APU for A/C, how much fuel is saved by leaving the ground power on?

A

25.70 pg. 3 - about 55lbs/hour

207
Q

How much fuel is saved per minute of single engine taxiing?

A

25.70 pg. 3 - Approximately 10lbs/minute

208
Q

If you’re single engine taxiing and waiting in line for departure, approximately when does the manual say to start your second engine?

A

25.70 pg. 3 - The manual says it takes 4 aircraft, 3 minutes to depart. Which means with a 3 minute warm up time you should start up the second engine when you’re number roughly number 5 in line. For a 5 minute warm up like for the P&W GTF engines, you’d want to do it when roughly number 8 in line.

209
Q

What uses more fuel, an APU engine start, or a cross bleed start?

A

25.70 pg. 4 - An APU start burns about twice as much fuel as a cross bleed start (10lbs vs. 5 lbs). Because of this if you have a ground delay and only have one engine running, it uses less fuel to do a crossbreed start on the second engine than to start the APU to start the second engine normally.

210
Q

How can you save fuel when taking off a runway thats facing the wrong direction from your departure?

A

25.70 pg. 4 - Using green dot to climb instead of 250kias until on course can save a considerable amount of fuel.

211
Q

How does flying 2000’ lower than the optimum altitude affect fuel burn?

A

2.570 pg. 5 - It increases the fuel burn by approximately 100lbs/hour at the same speed

212
Q

Where can you find a table that describes what winds are required to offset not flying at the optimum altitude?

A

25.70 pg. 6

213
Q

Does turbulence and passenger comfort take precedence over fuel burn when choosing a cruise altitude?

A

25.70 pg. 6 - Yes!

214
Q

If given a descent well before the calculated TOD, what can be done to save fuel?

A

25.70 pg. 8 - Descend slowly,but atleast at 500fpm as that the lowest ATC requires without other approval.

215
Q

What uses more fuel, a high speed descent or a low speed descent?

A

25.70 pg 8-9 - Counterintuitively, a slow speed descent uses less fuel, even though the descent takes longer. The fuel burn during a slightly longer cruise portion during a high speed descent more than offsets the longer total descent time during a slow speed descent.

216
Q

What burns more fuel, holds with long or short legs?

A

25.70 pg. 11 - Short legs burn more fuel do to more time turning. The increased load factor in the turn increases the fuel burn to compensate for the increased drag.

217
Q

When should you declare min fuel?

A

25.70 pg. 11 - The crew should declare min fuel if at any time the crew determines that any change to the existing clearance will result in landing with less than the reserve fuel

218
Q

When should a fuel emergency be declared?

A

25.70 pg. 11 - When landing at the nearest suitable airport will leave less than the minimum reserve fuel, a fuel emergency should be declared

219
Q

How much more fuel is used during max reverser than idle reverser on landing?

A

25.70 pg. 13 - about 30 lbs