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Infectious Disease (OSI type) > Virology - Microbio Handout > Flashcards

Virology - Microbio Handout Flashcards

1
Q

DNA virus that is not icosahedral

A

Poxvirus

All DNA virus are icosahedral

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2
Q

RNA virus that is not helical

A

Rhabdovirus - bullet shape

Only RNA virus have helical symmetry

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3
Q

RNA virus wuth icosahedral symmetry

A
  1. PIcorna
  2. Toga
  3. Calici
  4. Hepevirus
  5. REovirus
  6. Flavivirus
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4
Q

[Viral protein]

attachment to host cell

A

surface protein

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5
Q

[Viral protein]

interaction between nucleocapsid and envelope

A

matrix protein

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6
Q

The viral envelope is a lipid membrane that is derived from ___ cell

A

host cell

acquired through budding

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7
Q

Virus that acquired their envelope from nuclear membrane

A

Herpesvirus

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8
Q

Examples of Naked Viruses

A
  1. Calici
  2. Picorna
  3. Reo
  4. Parvo
  5. Adeno
  6. Papilloma
  7. Polyoma

NAKED CPR PAPP

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9
Q

Name the Naked DNA viruses

A
  1. Papilloma
  2. Adeno
  3. Parvo
  4. Polyo

PAPP

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10
Q

Name the naked RNA viruses

A
  1. Calici
  2. Picorna
  3. Reo
  4. Hepe

CPRH

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11
Q

___ space between the nucleocapsid and envelope

A

Tegument

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12
Q

All viruses are haploid except

A

Retrovirus

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13
Q

Name the RNA virus with segmented genome

A
  1. Bunya
  2. Orthomyxo
  3. Arena
  4. Reo

BOAR

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14
Q

To transcribe negative strand to positive strand, these viruses carry what enzyme

A

RNA-dependent polymerase

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15
Q

__ stranded RNA viruses looks like a mRNA thus it can be translated by the host RNA

A

Positive strand

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16
Q

What are your negative stranded RNA virus?

A
  1. Arena
  2. Bunya
  3. Para
  4. Ortho
  5. Filo
  6. Rhabdo

Always Bring Polymerase Or Fail Replication

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17
Q

Which DNA virus has a single stranded DNA genome?

A

Parvo

Most DNA viruses have both positive and negative strand

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18
Q

This double-stranded DNA has a complex structural protein which look like a box

A

Pox = box

All dsDNA have icosahedral symmetry

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19
Q

Between negative and positive strand, which strand is used for transcription to mRNA?

A

Negative strand

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20
Q

[Virus life cycle]

Cite the life cycle of the virus

A
  1. Adsorption
  2. Penetration and Uncoating
  3. Synthesis (DNA/RNA)
  4. Assembly
  5. Release
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21
Q

[Receptors used by viruses]

CMV

A

integrins (heparan sulfate)

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22
Q

[Receptors used by viruses]

EBV

A

CD21

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23
Q

[Receptors used by viruses]

HIV

A
  1. CD4
  2. CXCR4
  3. CCR5
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24
Q

[Receptors used by viruses]

Parvovirus B19

A

P antigen on RBC

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25
Q

[Receptors used by viruses]

Rabies

A

Nicotinic AChR

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26
Q

[Receptors used by viruses]

Rhinovirus

A

ICAM-1

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27
Q

What are examples of your virulence factors?

A
  1. Cytokine decoys (bind to and block cytokines)
  2. Virokines
  3. Antigenic variants
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28
Q

Presence of IgM in serologic test means that the there is ___ infection

A

Current

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29
Q

Presence of IgG in serology means that there is ___ infection

A

past

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30
Q

What is the gold standard in viral diagnosis?

A

Presence of viral DNA or RNA

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31
Q

What are examples of your live vaccines?

A

MISS CRY

  1. MMR
  2. Influenza
  3. Smallpox
  4. Sabin polio
  5. Chicken pox
  6. Rotavirus
  7. Yellow fever
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32
Q

What are examples of your killed vaccines?

A
  1. Rabies
  2. Influenza (injected)
  3. Salk polio
  4. Hep A
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33
Q

[DNA virus]

Cite examples of DNA virus

A
  1. Hepadna
  2. Herpes
  3. Herpes
  4. Adeno
  5. Pox
  6. Parvo
  7. Polyoma
  8. Papilloma
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34
Q

All DNA viruses have double stranded DNA except

A

Parvovirus

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35
Q

All DNA viruses have linear DNA except

A
  1. Hepadna
  2. Polyoma
  3. Papilloma
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36
Q

All DNA viruses are icosahedral except

A

Pox

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37
Q

All DNA viruses replicate in the nucleus except

A

Pox

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38
Q

[DNA Virus]

causes 5th disease

A

Parvovirus B19

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39
Q

[Diagnose]

bright red cheek rash
fever
coryza
sore throat

A

Parvovirus

5th Disease

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40
Q

[DNA Virus]

can cause aplastic crisis especially in children with sickle cell anemia, thalassemia, spherocytosis

A

Parvovirus

Chronic B19 infection can cause pancytopenia

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41
Q

[DNA Virus]

can cause hydrops fetalis 2nd trimester

A

parvovirus B19

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42
Q

[DNA Virus]

only virus with fiber

A

adenovirus

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43
Q

[DNA Virus]

adenoviridae can cause ___ cystitis

A

hemorrhagic cystits

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44
Q

[DNA Virus]

Adenoviridae is Cowdry type ___ intranuclear inclusions

A

Type B

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45
Q

[DNA Virus]

HPV affects what genes?

A

Gene E6 = inhibit p53

Gene E7 = inhibit Rb

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46
Q

[DNA Virus]

HPV strain that can cause skin and plantar warts

A

HPV 1-4

Tx if Skin: liquid nitrogen

Tx if plantar: salicylic acid

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47
Q

[DNA Virus]

HPV strain that can cause condyloma acuminata

A

HPV 6, 11

Tx: podophyllin

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48
Q

[DNA Virus]

can cause cervical, penile, anal CA

A

HPV 16, 18, 31, 33

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49
Q

[DNA Virus]

Can cause progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy in patients with AIDS

A

JC polyoma virus

Demyelinating, affects oligodendrocytes - deficit speech, coordination, memory

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50
Q

[DNA Virus]

can cause hemorrhagic cystitis and nephropathy in patients with solid organ (kidney) and bone marrow transplant

A

BK polyoma virus

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51
Q

[DNA Virus]

Cause stomatitis, herpes labialis

temporal lobe encephalitis

A

HSV1

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52
Q

[DNA Virus]

cause herpes genitalis

A

HSV 2

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53
Q

[DNA Virus]

infectious mononucleosis

A

EBV

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54
Q

[DNA Virus]

cause congenital mononunucleosis

A

CMV

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55
Q

[DNA Virus]

can cause kaposi sarcoma

A

HHV 8

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56
Q

[DNA Virus]

Site of latency of HSV 1

A

trigeminal ganglia

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57
Q

[DNA Virus]

Site of latency of HSV 2

A

lumbosacral ganglia

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58
Q

[DNA Virus]

Giving of acyclovir to patients with HSV will lead to __

A
  1. Shortens duration
  2. Reduce extent of shedding
  3. No effect on the latent state
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59
Q

[DNA Virus]

VZV becomes latent in which part of the body?

A

dorsal root ganglia

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60
Q

[Diagnose]

Vesicular centrifugal rash
dewdrop on a rose petal
cause reye syndrome

A

varicella

Tx: acyclovir

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61
Q

[Diagnose]

facial nerve paralysis after a varicela infection

A

Ramsay Hunt Syndrome

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62
Q

[DNA Virus]

CMV virus is cultured where

A

shell tubes

Owl’s eye

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63
Q

[DNA Virus]

CMV has a __ heterophil test

A

negative

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64
Q

What are the features of congenital CMV infection?

most common cause of congenital abnormalities

A
  1. Microcephaly
  2. Seizures
  3. Deafness
  4. Jaundice
  5. Purpura
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65
Q

What is the DOC for CMV?

A

Ganciclovir

CMV is largely resistant to acyclovir

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66
Q

[DNA Virus]

EBV preferentially infects what lymphocytes?

A

B lymphocyte

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67
Q

[DNA Virus]

“Kissing disease”

A

Infectious mononucleosis = EBV

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68
Q

[DNA Virus]

what is a rare complication of infectious mononucleosis?

A

splenic rupture

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69
Q

[DNA Virus]

What are the associated malignancies in EBV common in african people?

A

Burkitt Lymphoma

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70
Q

[DNA Virus]

What CA is associated with EBV infection that is common in chinese people?

A

NPCA

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71
Q

[DNA Virus]

CA in HIV patients that is associated with EBV infection

A

Hairy Leukoplakia

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72
Q

[DNA Virus]

rose-clored macules appear AFTER a high fever with erythematous papules on soft palate and base of uvula

A

HHV-6 = Roseola = Exanthem Subitum = 6th disease

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73
Q

Nagayama spots refer to?

A

erythematous papules on soft palate and base of uvula

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74
Q

[DNA Virus]

red or purple patches on the skin

A

Kaposi = HHV 8

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75
Q

[DNA Virus]

Classic kaposi sarcoma affects middle aged and elderly men of what race

A

Mediterranean/Ashkenazi Jews

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76
Q

[DNA Virus]

Due to their similarity, kaposi sarcoma should be differentiated from ____

A

bacillary angiomatosis (bartonella)

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77
Q

[DNA Virus]

Largest DNA virus

A

poxviridae

Only virus that is complex

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78
Q

[DNA Virus]

Guarnieri bodies

A

small pox

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79
Q

[DNA Virus]

Henderson-Paterson bodies

A

Molluscum contangiosusm

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80
Q

[DNA Virus]

What is the DOC for molluscum contangiosum

A

Cidofovir

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81
Q

[DNA Virus]

Hepatitis virus with incomplete circular double-stranded DNA

A

hepatitis B

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82
Q

[DNA Virus]

___ only DNA virus that produces DNA by reverse transcriptase with mRNA as the template

A

Hep B

IT HAS NO CYTOPATHIC EFFECT

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83
Q

[DNA Virus]

What is the soluble component of the viral core (in HBV)

A

HBeAg

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84
Q

[DNA Virus]

What is the DOC for HBV?

A
  1. Interferon alpha

2. Lamivudine

85
Q

What virus is associated with polyarteritis nodosa?

A

HBV

86
Q

All RNA viruses have single stranded DNA except

A
  1. Reo

2. Rota

87
Q

All DNA viruses replicate in the cytoplasm except

A
  1. Retro

2. Influenza

88
Q

[RNA Virus]

What are examples of your Picornaviridae viruses?

A
  1. Poliovirus
  2. Echovirus
  3. Rhinovirus
  4. Coxsackie
  5. Hep A
  6. Picorna

PERCHed on a PIC

89
Q

[RNA Virus]

Poliovirus replicates in which part of the body

A

Motor neurons in anterior horn of the spinal cord

90
Q

[Polio spectrum of disease]

most common clinical form, mild, febrile illness with headache, sore throat, nausea, vomiting

A

Abortive poliomyelitis

91
Q

[Polio spectrum of disease]

flaccid paralysis, permanent motor nerve damage

A

paralytic poliomyelitis

92
Q

Polio virus is classified as Cowdry type ___ intranuclear inclusion

A

Type B

93
Q

Polio vaccine that is live, attenuated?

A

Sabin OPV

94
Q

[Salk/Sabin]

induces intestinal IgA, affords secondary protection

A

Sabin

95
Q

[Salk/Sabin]

interrupts transmission, interferes replication,

A

Sabin

96
Q

[Salk/Sabin]

Induces humoral IgG

A

Salk

97
Q

[RNA Virus]

Vesicular rash on hands and feet

ulceration in the mouth

A

HFMD

Coxsackie virus

98
Q

[RNA Virus]

Fever, sore throat, tender vesicle in oropharynx

no vesicular rash on hands and feet

A

Coxsackie - Herpengina

99
Q

[RNA Virus]

Most common cause of viral myocarditis and pericarditis

A

Coxsackie

100
Q

[RNA Virus]

most common cause of asceptic meningitis

A

Coxsackie

101
Q

[RNA Virus]

Rhinovirus replicate better at what temperature?

A

33 deg C

102
Q

[RNA Virus]

What is the most important test to detect Hep A

A

Anti-HAV IgM

103
Q

[RNA Virus]

Also known as enterovirus 72

A

HAV

104
Q

[RNA Virus]

Hepatitis E has a high mortality in this special group

A

pregnat

105
Q

[RNA Virus]

most common cause of nonbacterial diarrhea in ADULTS

A

Norovirus

106
Q

[RNA Virus]

most common cause of childhood diarrhea

A

Rotavirus - Reoviridae

107
Q

[RNA Virus]

the type of diarrhea in rotavirus infection?

A

Malabsorption

NOT SECRETORY

108
Q

[RNA Virus]

What are the major antigens in influenza?

A
  1. Hemeagglutinin

2. Neuraminidase

109
Q

[RNA Virus]

What influenza strain can cause worldwide epidemics?

A

Influenza A

110
Q

[RNA Virus]

What influenza strain can cause outbreaks?

A

Influenza B

111
Q

[RNA Virus]

in influenza, what enzyme cleaves the membrane to release progeny virus from infected cell?

A

Neuraminidase

112
Q

[RNA Virus]

in influenza, what binds to the cell to the cell surface receptor to initiate infection of the cell

A

Hemagglutinin

113
Q

[RNA Virus]

In influenza, what is the target of neutralizing antibody

A

Hemagglutinin

114
Q

[RNA Virus]

Which influenza virus has no animal source of new RNA segments?

A

Influenza B

115
Q

Influenza pandemics are caused by ___ (shift/drift)

A

Antigenic Shift

116
Q

Epidemics are caused by ___ (shift/drigt)

A

Antigenic drifts

117
Q

What is the DOC for influenza A?

A

Amantadine

Rimantadine

118
Q

What is the DOC for Influenza in general?

A

Oseltamivir

Zanamivir

119
Q

What is the potential CNS complication of measles?

A

subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

120
Q

What are you paramyxoviruses?

A
  1. Parainfluenza
  2. RSV
  3. Measles
  4. Mumps
121
Q

[RNA Virus]

Warthin-Finkeldey bodies

A

Measles

122
Q

Measles transiently depress ___ (cell-mediated/humoral)?

A

cell-mediated immunity

123
Q

[RNA Virus]

Koplik spots

A

MEASLES

124
Q

[Diagnose]

bright red lesions in a white, central dot on buccal mucosa

maculopapular rash on the face, trunk, palms, sols

cough, eye redness, stringy eye discharge,

A

Measles

125
Q

[RNA Virus]

What vitamin reduces severity of measles infection?

A

Vitamin A

126
Q

[RNA Virus]

Mumps initially travel to what organ prior to invading the blood stream?

A

local lymph nodes

127
Q

[RNA Virus]

increased pain when drinking citrus juice, swelling of parotid glands

A

Mumps

128
Q

What are the complications of Mumps?

A
  1. Parotitis
  2. Orchitis
  3. Meningitis (asceptiv)
129
Q

[RNA Virus]

What are the spikes of RSV virus?

A

Fusion proteins

not hemagglutinins or neuraminidase

130
Q

What is the most important cause of bronchiolitis in infants?

A

RSV

131
Q

What is the most important cause of pneumonia in infants

A

RSV

132
Q

Severe RSV disease in infants is due to immunologic cross reaction with what antibodies?

A

Maternal antibodies

133
Q

[Diagnose]

inspiratory stridor, cough, hoarseness, steeple sign

A

Croup = LTB = Parainfluenza Virus

134
Q

[RNA Virus]

Wine bottle sign

A

Croup = LTB = Parainfluenza

135
Q

[RNA Virus]

bullet shaped

A

rabies

136
Q

[RNA Virus]

negri bodies

A

rabies

137
Q

[RNA Virus]

Rabies virus moves ___ to CNS

A

axonal transport

virus spreads centripetally up the nerve to the CNS

138
Q

[RNA Virus]

Rabies stays in the ___ (gray/white) matter of the brain

A

Gray

139
Q

[RNA Virus]

What are the prodromal symptoms suggestive of rabies?

A
  1. Paresthesia

2. Fasciculations at around the bite site

140
Q

[RNA Virus]

___ phase of rabies

Excessive motor activity, excitation, agitation, periods of mental abberation, lucid intervals

A

Encephalitic phase

141
Q

[RNA Virus]

____ testing i demonstrates rabies antibodies from the CSF

A

Flourescent Antibody Testing

142
Q

What is the preferred test to detect rabies if the sample is from the saliva?

A

RT-PCR

143
Q

What is the optimal sample for definitive post mortem diagnosis of rabies in animal

A

brain

144
Q

What is the reservoir of coronavirus?

A

Horseshoe bat

145
Q

What is the intermediate host of coronavirus?

A

civet cat

146
Q

Coronavirus causing atypical pneumonia preferentially binds to what receptor

A

ACE-2

147
Q

What is the characteristic x-ray of coronavirus pneumonia?

A

non-cavitary ground glass appearance

148
Q

What transmits dengue virus?

A

Aedes aegypti mosquito

149
Q

[RNA Virus]

breakbone fever

A

dengue

150
Q

[RNA Virus]

hemorrhagic shock in dengue is due to

A

increased cross-reacting antibody during 2nd dengue infection

151
Q

[RNA Virus]

Hepatitis virus with hypervariable region in envelope glycoprotein

A

Hep C

152
Q

[RNA Virus]

What are the serologic markers to diagnose Hep C virus?

A
  1. Anti-HCV

2. HCV RNA

153
Q

What is the most prevalent blood-borne pathogen

A

Hep C

154
Q

Replication of hep C virus in the liver is enhanced by ___

A

liver specific micro RNA

155
Q

[RNA Virus]

Hep C has an autoimmune reactions with what porphyrin subtype

A

porphyria cutanea tarda

156
Q

What is the main cause of essential mixed cryoglobulinemia

A

Hep C

157
Q

[Diagnose]

Fever
3 day maculopapular rash + posterior auricular LAD

A

German measles = rubella

158
Q

[RNA Virus]

can cause immune complex polyarthritis in adults

A

rubella = german measles

159
Q

[RNA Virus]

What are the associated abnormalities in Congenital Rubella Syndrome?

A
  1. PDA
  2. Congenital cataracts
  3. Sensorineural deafness
  4. Mental retardation
160
Q

[RNA Virus]

What is the fusion protein in HIV?

A

gp 41

161
Q

[RNA Virus]

What is the surface protein of HIV?

A

gp120

162
Q

p24 refers to the ___ of HIV

A

icosahedral core

163
Q

[RNA Virus]

what directs the entry of the dsDNA provirus into the nucleus

A

MA (p17)

164
Q

[RNA Virus]

HIV RNA is tightly complexed with a basic protein called ___

A

NC p7

165
Q

[HIV proviral genome]

What is the binding site for host transcription factors?

A

LTR

166
Q

[HIV proviral genome]

what codes for reverse transcriptase, protease, integrase, ribonuclease

A

pol

167
Q

[HIV proviral genome]

what codes for capsid, matrix protein, nucleocapsid protein

A

gag

168
Q

[HIV proviral genome]

what codes to promote infectivity of cell-free virus

A

vif

169
Q

[HIV proviral genome]

what is its transcriptional activator

A

vpr

170
Q

[HIV proviral genome]

what encodes for efficient virion budding

A

vpu

171
Q

[HIV proviral genome]

what codes for envelope glycoproteins

A

env

172
Q

[HIV proviral genome]

what is essential for efficient viral replication

A

nef

173
Q

[HIV proviral genome]

what regulate the structural gene expression

A

tat, rev

174
Q

[HIV proviral genome]

gag encodes for

A
  1. p17
  2. p24
  3. p7
  4. p9
175
Q

[HIV proviral genome]

pol encodes for

A
  1. Protease
  2. Reverse transcriptase
  3. Endonuclease
176
Q

[HIV proviral genome]

env encodese for

A
  1. gp 160

2. gp 160 splits into gp 120 and gp41

177
Q

[HIV]

protein component of nucleocapsid

A

p24, p7

178
Q

[HIV]

protein component of matrix

A

p17

179
Q

[HIV]

protein in which antigenicity changes rapidly

A

gp120

180
Q

[HIV]

serologic markers detect antibodies against this protein

A

p24

181
Q

[HIV]

in gp120, which part is the most immunogenic region

A

V3 loop

182
Q

[HIV]

antibody to this neutralizes HIV infectivity

A

gp120

183
Q

[HIV]

what protein activates transcription of viral genes?

A

tat

184
Q

[HIV]

what protein transport of late mRNAs to cytoplasm

A

rev

185
Q

[HIV]

what protein enhances hypermutation

A

vif

186
Q

[HIV]

what protein transport in nondividing cells

A

vpr

187
Q

[HIV]

enhances virion release

A

vpu

188
Q

[HIV Phase]

rapid viral replication, HIV test negative

A

phase 1

189
Q

[HIV Phase]

peak of viral load, positive HIV test, mild flu-like illness

A

phase 2 seroconversion

190
Q

[HIV Phase]

asymptomatic, CD4 goes down

A

latent

191
Q

[AIDS defining illness: CD4 level]

HSV esophagitis

A

<500

192
Q

[AIDS defining illness: CD4 level]

esophageal candidiasis

A

<500

193
Q

[AIDS defining illness: CD4 level]

kaposi sarcoma

A

<500

194
Q

[AIDS defining illness: CD4 level]

disseminated TB

A

<500

195
Q

[AIDS defining illness: CD4 level]

cerebral toxiplasmosis

A

<200

196
Q

[AIDS defining illness: CD4 level]

coccidiodomycosis

A

<200

197
Q

[AIDS defining illness: CD4 level]

chronic diarrhea

A

<200

C. parvum

198
Q

[AIDS defining illness: CD4 level]

meningoencephalitis

A

<200

C. neoformans

199
Q

[AIDS defining illness: CD4 level]

invasive pulmonary disease

A

<50

M. avium

200
Q

[AIDS defining illness: CD4 level]

histoplasmosis

A

<50

H. capsulatum

201
Q

[AIDS defining illness: CD4 level]

CMV retinitis

A

<50

202
Q

Presumptive diagnosis is detected via

A

ELISA

203
Q

Definitive diagnosis of HIV?

A

Western blot

204
Q

[Diagnosis]

flower shaped nucleus

A

HTLV

205
Q

[Diagnosis]

retrovirus causing adult Tcell leukemia and mmyelopathy

A

HTLV

206
Q

[Diagnosis]

Thread like virus

A

Ebola

207
Q

[Diagnosis]

most common cause of epidemic encephalitis

A

Japanese B encephalitis

208
Q

[Diagnosis]

JE encephalitis presents as ___ in CT

A

thalamic infarcts

209
Q

[Diagnosis]

JE encephalitis is transmitted by

A

Culex mosquito

Infectious Disease (OSI type) (24 decks)

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