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Infectious Disease (OSI type) > Mycobacteria > Flashcards

Mycobacteria Flashcards

1
Q

What factor seen in M. tuberculosis can lead to macrophage activation and TNF-alpha release?

A

Cord factor

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2
Q

Type of leprosy associated with Th2 predominance

A

Lepromatous = low cell mediated

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3
Q

Type of leprosy associated with high cell-mediated immunity

A

TH1 response = tuberculoid

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4
Q

Aside from mycolic acids, the high lipid content in M. tuberculosis cell wall is due to

A

Wax D

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5
Q

___ assay to check for M. tuberculosis drug resistance

A

Luciferase assay

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6
Q

What prevents phagosome-lysosomal fusion of M. tuberculosis?

A

exported repetitive protein (sulfatides)

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7
Q

What triggers cell-mediated immunity, delayed hypersensitivity reaction in M. tuberculosis

A

Tuberculin surface protein

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8
Q

In a M. tuberculosis granuloma, the central area is called

A

Langhan Giant Cells

surrounded by a zone of epitheloid cell

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9
Q

A positive PPD means that ___

A
  1. Current or active disease
  2. Past exposure but not necessarily active disease
  3. BCG vaccination
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10
Q

M. tb drugs that inhibit mycolic acid synthesis

A

Isoniazid

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11
Q

M. tb drug that inhibits arabinosyl transferase

A

Ethambutol

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12
Q

What interleukin mediates presentation of Mtb antigen by macrophage

A

IL-12

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13
Q

What CD4 level does Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex appear?

A

CD4 <50

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14
Q

M. leprae can be cultured in vitro in ____

A
  1. Mouse footpad

2. Armadillo

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15
Q

What are the reservoirs of M. lepae

A
  1. Humans

2. Armadillos

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16
Q

[Tuberculoid/Lepromatous]

few lesions
little tissue destruction
Few AFB in skin
Present CMI
Lepromin positive
A

Tuberculoid

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17
Q

[Tuberculoid/Lepromatous]

many lesions
Marked tissue destruction
Many AFB
Can highly transmit
CMI reduced
Lepromin negative
A

Lepromatous

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18
Q

What are the nerves commonly affected in Hansen disease?

A
  1. Ulnar and median nerve damage - clawed hand
  2. Common peroneal: foot drop
  3. Posterior tibial - plantar insensitivity and clawed toes
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19
Q

______ seen in lepromatous form, tender nodules or humps on both shins

A

Erythema Nodusum Leprosum

Tx: Thalidomide

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20
Q

What is the DOC for tuberculoid leprosy

A
  1. Dapsone

2. Rifampin`

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21
Q

What is the DOC for lepromatous leprosy?

A
  1. Dapsone
  2. Rifampin
  3. Clofazimine
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22
Q

[Etiology]

broken jaw or dental extraction

PE: hard, non-tender with swelling sinus tracts draining sulfur granules

A

Actinomyces Israelii

Tx: Pen G and drainage

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23
Q

What stain is used to identify Nocardia asteroides?

A

Fite-faraco

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24
Q

[Etiology]

Aerobic, filamentous gram-positive rod with aerial hyphae

manifest as mycetomas and lung and brain abscess (orange colony)

A

Nocardiosis

Nocardia asteroides

Tx: TMP-SMX + drainage

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25
Q

What is the smallest free living organism?

A

Mycoplasma pneunoniae

can cause walking pneumonia

Tx: erythromycin or azithromycin

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26
Q

What is the culture media for M. pneumoniae

A

Eaton agent

Needs cholesterol and nucleic acid

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27
Q

What is the microscopic finding of M. pnuemoniae

A
  1. Fried egg appearance OR

2. Mulberry appearance

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28
Q

What causes the attachment and inhibits ciliary motion of M. pneumoniae?

A

TLR2 protein (P1 adhesin)

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29
Q

__ is the only bacteria with sterol in membrane

A

M. pneumoniae

30
Q

T. pallidum cant be cultured in vitro since ___

A

lacks krebs cycle

31
Q

Childhood Syphilis can present with

A
  1. Interstitial keratitis
  2. Hutchinson Teeth
  3. Eight nerve deafness
32
Q

What stage of syphilis can you classify Neurosyphilis that is asymptomatic

A

Secondary

33
Q

What are the components of neurosyphilis?

A
  1. Tabes dorsalis
  2. Argyll-Robertson pupil or prostitues pupil
  3. Dementia paralytica
34
Q

Argyll-Robertson Pupul presents as

A
  1. Able to accommodate when looking at near objects

2. Does not constrict with light

35
Q

[Stage in Syphilis]

Endarteritis obliterans

A

Tertiary

36
Q

___ sign

unilateral enlargement of the sternoclavicular portion of the clavicle, leads to detachment

A

Higoumenakis sign

37
Q

Synovitis in Congenital syphilis is termed

A

Clutton Jint

38
Q

[Stage in Syphilis]

Condyloma lata

A

Secondary

39
Q

[Stage in Syphilis]

aortitis

A

tertiary

40
Q

Best screening test for syphilis

A

Non-treponemal (VDRL/RPR)

41
Q

Test for confirmation of syphilis

A

Treponemal antibody test

TPEIA

42
Q

What are the causes of false positive VDRL results

A
  1. Viruses - EBV, Hep
  2. Drugs - marijuana
  3. Rheumatic fever, RA
  4. Lupus, Leprosy
43
Q

____ influenza-like symptoms few hours after receiving penicillin

A

Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction

44
Q

What is the largest medically-important bacteria

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

45
Q

What stain is used to for B. burgdorfori

A

Aniline dyes (Giemsa or Wright stain)

46
Q

What are the animal reservoirs of B. burgdorfori

A
  1. White-footed mouse

2. White-tailed deer

47
Q

What tick transmits B. burgdorfori?

A

Deer ticks

Ixodes scapularis
Ixodes pacificus

48
Q

[Stage og Lyme Disease]

Erythema chronicum migrans

A

Stage 1

49
Q

[Stage og Lyme Disease]

AV block

A

Stage 2

50
Q

[Stage og Lyme Disease]

Onion skin, acrodermatitis chronica atrophicans

A

Late Stage

51
Q

What are the SSx of Lyme disease

A
  1. Bells palsy
  2. Arthritis
  3. Kardiak block
  4. Erythema chronicum migran
52
Q

What is the DOC for Lyme disease

A
  1. Doxycycline
53
Q

“Sheperd’s crook’

A

L. interrogans

54
Q

Leptospires enter the human body by penetrating thorugh ___

A

intac mucous membrane

55
Q

The meningitis and glomerulonephritis in Leptospirosis is due to

A

Immune complex deposition

56
Q

Best source to detect organism in early stages of letospirosis

A

Bood, CSF

57
Q

What is the gold standard to detect leptospirosis?

A

LeptoMAT

58
Q

What is the CXR finding in leptospirosis with pulmonary involvement?

A

Snow-flake lesions

59
Q

Asceptic meningitis due to leptospirosis coincides with ____

A

appearance of Ab titers

60
Q

What is the triad of Weild Syndrome?

A

Jaundice
Bleeding
Uremia

61
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis grow in ____

A

Cycloheximide culture

62
Q

What are your obligate intracellular bacteria

A
  1. Ricketssia

2. Chlamydia

63
Q

___ form of Chlamydia that is inactive, extracelular and enters via endocytosis

A 
Elementary body
Extracellular
Enactive
Enters via
Endocytosis
64
Q

____ form of Chlamydia that is metabolically active, and intracellular

A

Reticulate Body

65
Q

What is the most common cause of STD overall?

A

Chlamydia

66
Q

___ inclusions associated with Trachoma/Chlamydia Trachomatis

A

Halberstadter-Prowazek Inclusion

Round to oval near the nuclei of cinjunctival epithelial cells in trachoma

67
Q

Trachoma can lead to ____

A

chronic infection and keratoconjunctivitis then to blindness

68
Q

Most common cause of non-gonoccocal urethritis in males

A

C. trachomatis

69
Q

Neonatal pneumonia due to C. trachomatis can present as

A
  1. Stricking tachypnea
  2. Paroxysmal cough (staccato cough)
  3. Abscence of fever
  4. Eosinophilia
70
Q

__ test to check for C. tranchomatis (LGV) by intradermal injection of antigen

A

Frei test

71
Q

__ cause atypical pneumonia and associated with atherosclerosis

A

C. pneumoniae

Infectious Disease (OSI type) (24 decks)

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