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Infectious Disease (OSI type) > Gram Positive > Flashcards

Gram Positive Flashcards

1
Q

What are your gram positive, aerobic bacilli?

A
  1. Listeria
  2. Bacillus
  3. Corynebacterium
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2
Q

What are your gram positive, anaerobic bacilli

A

Clostridium

Propionibacterium

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3
Q

What are your gram positive, aerobic, branching filaments

A

Nocardia

weakly acid fast

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4
Q

What are your gram positive, anaerobic, branching filaments

A

Actinomyces

not acid fast

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5
Q

Catalase positive facultative cocci

A

Staphylococcus

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6
Q

Catalase negative facultative cocci

A

Streptococcus

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7
Q

Catalase positive, coagulase positive cocci in clusters

A

S. aureus

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8
Q

Catalase positive, coagulase negative, novobiocin sensitive cocci in clusters

A

S. epidermidis

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9
Q

Catalase positive, coagulase negative, not novobiocin sensitive cocci in clusters

A

S. saprophyticus

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10
Q

[Hemolysis in streptococci]

green, partial

A

alpha hemolysis

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11
Q

[Hemolysis in streptococci]

comple, clear

A

beta hemolysis

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12
Q

[Hemolysis in streptococci]

no hemolysis, grows in bile

A

gamma hemolysis

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13
Q

to differentiate viridans and S. pneumoniae

A

Optochin Sensitivity

Bile solubility

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14
Q

Optochin sensitive,
alpha hemolytic
catalase negative cocci

A

S. pneumoniae

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15
Q

Optochin insensitive
Alpha hemolytic
Catalase negative
cocci

A

Viridans streptococci

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16
Q

How will you differentiate S. agalactiae and S. oyogenes?

A

Bacitracin

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17
Q

Bacitracin sensitive
beta hemolytic
coagulase negative
cocci

A

Group A
S. pyogenes

Bacitracin = beta

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18
Q

Bacitracin insensitive
Beta hemolytic
Catalase negative
cocci

A

Group B S agalactiae

Beta=Bacitracin= group B is negative bacit

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19
Q

How will you differentiate S. bovis from E. faecium and E. faecalis?

A

Growth in 6.5% NaCl

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20
Q

Grows in 6.5% NaCl
Gamma hemolysis
Catalase negative
cocci

A

Group D (Enterococcus)

E. faecium
E. faecalis

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21
Q

Does not grow in 6.5% NaCl
Gamma hemolysis
Catalase negative
cocci

A

S. bovis

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22
Q

The gold color of staphylococcus is due to the pigment:

A

staphyloxanthin

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23
Q

What are the immunomodulators of S. aureus

A
  1. Protein A
  2. Coagulase
  3. Cytotoxin
  4. PV Leukocidin
  5. Catalase
  6. Penicillinase
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24
Q

What are the compounds found in S. aureus that plays a role in tissue penetrans?

A
  1. Hyaluronidase
  2. Fibrinolysin
  3. Lipase
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25
Q

Which is an immunomodulator found in S. aureus

Hyaluronidase or Coagulase

A

Coagulase

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26
Q

What are the toxins produce by Staphylococcus

A
  1. Exfoliatin
  2. Enterotoxin
  3. TSST-1
  4. Alpha toxin
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27
Q

Toxin found in S. aureus that can cause marked necrosis of the skin and hemolysis

A

Alpha toxin

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28
Q

Toxin in S. aureus that can cause epidermal separation

A

Exfoliatin

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29
Q

What is the most common cause of acute endocarditis?

A

S. aureus

preferentially infects Tricuspid valve

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30
Q

___ abscess os a sequestered focus of osteomyelitis arising in the metaphyseal area of a long bone infected by S. aureus

A

Brodie abscess

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31
Q

S. aureus presents as acute onset gastroenteritis due to presence of ____

A

preformed heat-stable enterotoxin

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32
Q

___ disease

caused by exfoliatin found in S. aureus that cleaves desmoglein

A

Ritter disease (SSSS)

separation of epidermis at stratum granulosus

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33
Q

Lyell disease is distringuished from SSS since the separation occurs at the ____

A

Dermo-epidermal junction

Lyell Disease = TEN

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34
Q

[Diagnose]

fever, hypotension, strawberry tongue, desquamating rash, multiorgan involvement

Blood CS negative

A

Toxic Shock Syndrome

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35
Q

What is the DOC for MSSA?

A
  1. Nafcillin
  2. Oxacillin
  3. Dicloxacillin
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36
Q

What is the DOC for VRSA?

A

Linezolid

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37
Q

Component of S. aureus that prevents complement actiation

A

Protein A

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38
Q

Bacteria that are novobiocin senstiive

A

Novo resistant Saprophyticus

Novo sensitive epidermidis

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39
Q

____ that adheres well to foreign bodies and form biofilms (like in prosthetic joints amd vpl shunts)

A

S. epidermidis

Tx: Remove prosthetic device, treat with vancomycin

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40
Q

What is the second most common cause of UTI in sexually active women?

nitrite negative

A

S. saprophyticus

DOC: TMP-SMX

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41
Q

___ test

measures hydrolysis of 1-pyrrolidonyl beta naphthylamide and release of beta napththylamine

A

PYR test

Postive in S. pyogenes

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42
Q

Bacitracin sensitive organisms

A

Bacitracin
B Resistant
A Sensitive

Remember: BRAS

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43
Q

What is the spreading factor of S. pyogenes?

A

Hyaluronidase

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44
Q

What activates plasminogen in Streptococcus?

A

Streptokinase

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45
Q

What virulence enzyme present in

S. pyogenes that degrades DNA in exudates or necrotic tissue

A

DNAse or Streptodornase

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46
Q

What virulence enzyme present in

S. pyogenes that inactivates complement C5A

A

C5A peptidase

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47
Q

What toxin in S. pyogenes that cause scarlet fever?

A

Erythrogenic toxin

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48
Q

What toxin found in S. pyogenes that is highly antigenic that causes antibody formation?

A

Streptolysin O

Oxygen-labile

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49
Q

Toxin of S. pyogenes that is oxygen-stable and is similar to TSST?

A

Pyrogenic Exotoxin

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50
Q

Toxin of S. pyogenes that is oxygen-stable that is a protease that rapidly destroys tissue

A

Exotoxin B

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51
Q

What is the major virulence factor for group A strep which inhibits the activation of complement and protects the organism from phagocytosis

A

M protein

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52
Q

___ is the titer used to document antecedent pharyngitis

A

ASO

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53
Q

___ is the titer used to document antecedent strep skin infection

A

Anti-DNAse B

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54
Q

____ presence of this decrease the efficacy of streptokinase in managing MI

A

Anti-streptokinase

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55
Q

In impetigo contangiosa, neturophils accumulate in ___

A

beneath stratum corneum

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56
Q

Superficial infection of S. pyogenes that extends to dermal lymphatics

A

Erysipelas

57
Q

Deeper skin infection caused by S. pyogenes extending to SQ facilitated by hyaluronidase

A

Cellulitis

58
Q

Necrotizing fasciitis due to S. pyogenes is facilitated by

A

Exotoxin B

NecFas = deep SQ tissue, but not hyaluronidase

59
Q

Quincy abscess due to S. pyogenes is seen in which part of the body

A

Retropharyngeal

60
Q

[Diagnosis]

fever, strawberry -like, centrifugal sandpaper-like centrifugal rash, pastia lines, desquamation

A

Scarlet fever

61
Q

___ is the method of susceptibility to scarlet fever by injection into the skin of 0.1 cm3 of scarlet fever toxin

A

Dick Test

Dick = Scarlet

62
Q

___ is the method od diphteria toxin susceptibility testing

A

Schick test

Schick = Diptherria

63
Q

Streptococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome is milder than S. aureus TSS. This is due to what toxin ___

Blood culture are often positive

A

Pyrogenic Exotoxin A

64
Q

Antibodies developing due to S.pyogenes infection is due to what toxin ____

A

M proteins

65
Q

What is the most common cause acute rheumatic fever?

A

S. pyogenes

DOC: pen G

66
Q

[Diagnose]

Hematuria, hypertension, periorbital edema after tonsillitis

A

PSGN

67
Q

Rheumatic fever is a classified as what type of hypersensitivityreaction?

A

Type II = IgG and IgM mediated

68
Q

PSGN is what type of hypersensitivity reaction/

A

Type III = Immune complex

69
Q

What are the predisposing factors for S. agalactiae infection?

A
  1. Intrapartum fever >38 degC
  2. PROM >18h
  3. Vaginal colonization
  4. Complement deficiency
70
Q

All pregnant women should be screened for GBS colonization at ___ weeks

A

35 to 37 weeks AOG

71
Q

Streptococcus that can cause UTI due to indwelling urinary catheter and urinary tract instrumentation

A

GDStrep

72
Q

___ cause endocardities in patients who underwent GIT surgery

A

E. faecalis

73
Q

Marantic endocarditis in patients with abdominal malignancy is due to ____

A

S. bovis

DOC: Penicilin + gentamicin

74
Q

Cephalosporins are not active agains what microbes

A
  1. Enterococci
  2. Listeria monocytogenes
  3. MRSA
75
Q

Lancet shaped, G+

A

S. pneumonieae

76
Q

Optochin sensitive streptococcus

A

Optochin

Viridans Resistant
Pneumonia Sensitive

OVeR PaSS

77
Q

What are your encapsulated bacteria?

A
  1. S. pneumoniae
  2. K. pneumoniae
  3. H. influenzae
  4. P. aeruginosa
  5. N. meningitidis
  6. S. typhi
  7. B group strep
78
Q

What substance plays a role in colonization of S. pneumoniae?

A

IgA protease

79
Q

What substance present in S. pneumoniae reacts with CRP

A

c-substance

80
Q

[Diagnose]

Cough
blood-tinged, pink or rusty sputum
Pneumonia

A

S. pneumonia

most common cause of pneumonia

DOC: pen G

81
Q

S. pneumoniae vaccin is conjugated with what carrier protein

A

Diphtheria toxoid

82
Q

Viridans mutans enter the bloodstream during ____

A

dental procedures

83
Q

Viridans step are known to cause damage in heart valves due to the presence of ___-

A

glycocalyx

84
Q

Viridans mutans that can cause subacute bacterial endocarditis (most common cause of subacute and native valve endocarditis)

A

S. sanguis

85
Q

Viridans mutans that can cause brain abscess

A

S. intermedius

86
Q

box car shape

A

B. anthracis

87
Q

Aerobic, motile, reheated fried rice

A

B. cereus

88
Q

tennis racket like, anaeribic

A

C. tetani

89
Q

Anaerobic, bulging cans

A

C. botulinum

90
Q

Anaerobic, gas forming, lecithinase

A

C. perfringes

91
Q

Anaerobic, pseudomembranous colitis

A

Clostridiodes difficile

92
Q

chinese characters, curved, aerobic, non motile

A

C. diphtheriae

93
Q

tumbling motility

aerobic, curved

A

L. monocytogenes

94
Q

___ dry, ground glass surface and irregular edges with projection along lines of inoculation of B anthracis

A

Medusa head morphology

95
Q

Woolsorters disease

A

B. anthracis

96
Q

[B. anthracis virulence factors]

calmodulin-dependent adenylate cyclase

A

edema factor

97
Q

[B. anthracis virulence factors]

inhibit signal transduction in cell division

A

lethal factor

98
Q

[B. anthracis virulence factors]

mediates entry of the EF and LF

A

protective antigen

99
Q

In inhalational anthax, what lymph nodes are massively enlarged

A

mediastinal

100
Q

What is the DOC for cutaneous anthrax

A

ciprofloxacin

101
Q

Most common cause of death is pulmonary hemorrhage in these organisms

A
  1. Anthrax
  2. Leptospirosis (Weil’s)
  3. Congenital syphilis
102
Q

Toxin found in B. cereus that cause cholera-like enterotoxin

A

Heat-labile enterotoxin

103
Q

Rapid onset vomiting after ingestion of B. cereus is due to what type of toxin

A

heat-stable toxin

104
Q

Diarrhea after intake of fried rice is due to what toxin found in B. cereus?

A

heat-labile

105
Q

Tetanospasmin cleaves proteins involved in the release of glycine from what cels in the spinal cord

A

Renshaw cells

106
Q

Tetanospasmin cleaves GABA release by cleaving ____

A

synaptobrevin 2

107
Q

What organism is seen in alkaline vegetables like green beans, pepper, mushroom that produces toxin?

A

C. botulinum

108
Q

The flaccid paralysis in botulinum toxin ingestion has a __ _ pattern

A

Descending

109
Q

Botox is a commercial preparation of what botulinum toxin

A

Toxin A

110
Q

What are the bulbar signs of food-borne botulism

A
  1. Diplopia
  2. Dysphonia
  3. Dysarthria
  4. Dysphagia
111
Q

What are the initial symptoms of C. botulinum?

A

muscle aches, trismus, myalgia

112
Q

At the presynaptic terminal, tetanus toxin inhibits ___

A

release of GABA, resulting to rigidity

113
Q

At the NMJ, tetanospasmin ____ release

A

blocks NT release, this weakness and paralysis

114
Q

[Daignose]

symmetric descending flaccid paralysis, absence of fever, intact sensorium

A

Botulism

115
Q

Infant botulism can happen after ingestion of household dust or honey because there is __-

A

absence of competitive bowel microbes

116
Q

___ double hemolysis on blood agar

A

C. perfringes

117
Q

Gas gangrene due to C. perfringes is due to ___

A
  1. alpha toxin (lecithenase)
118
Q

Exotoxin in stool of this organism is detected by cytopathic effect in culture

A

Clostridioides difficile

119
Q

What drugs are associated with C. difficile overgrowth?

A
  1. Clindamycin
  2. 2nd and 3rd generation cephalosporin
  3. Ampicillin
120
Q

In C. difficile, these toxins inhibits GTPases leading to apoptosis of enterocytes

A
  1. Exotoxin A (enterotoxin)
  2. Exotoxin B (cytotoxin)

This results to pseudomembrane

121
Q

What bacteria is implicated in flare ups of UC

A

C. difficile

122
Q

What is the DOC for C. difficile?

A

Vancomycin

123
Q

___ is associated with toxic shock syndrome associated with septic abortion

A

S. sordellii

124
Q

Box-car shaped rods but lipase negative, lecithinase positive

A

C. perfringes

125
Q

Horse-barn odor, ground glass appearing colonies

A

C. difficile

126
Q

In potassium tellurite, corynebacterium grow as ____ colones

A

dark black

127
Q

Loeffler’s medium is used for C. diptheriae. the stain used is

A

methylene blue

128
Q

What test is used to detect toxigenicity of C. diphtheriae

A

Modified Elek Test

129
Q

C. diptheriae has an exotoxin that inhibits protein synthesis by adding ADP ribose to ___

A

Elongation factor 2

130
Q

Which exotoxin of C. diphteriae has ADP ribosylating activity?

A

Subunit A

131
Q

Which exotoxin of C. diphteriae binds the toxin to cell surface?

A

Subunit B

132
Q

What encosed C. diphtheriae exotoxin

A

beta-prophage

133
Q

What are the characters of diphteria?

A 
ADP-ribosylation
Beta-prophage
Corynebacterium
Diphteriae
Elongation
Factor 2
Granules are metachromatic
134
Q

V or L shape; paradoxical growth in cold temperature

A

L. monocytogenes

135
Q

___ toxin of L. monocytogenes that interacts with E-cadherin

A

Internalin

136
Q

___ toxin of L. monocytogenes that helps it escape from phagosome

A

listeriolysin

137
Q

___ toxin of L. monocytogenes that helps the bacteria propel through the membrane of one human cell into anotehr

A

Actin rockets (actin polymers)

138
Q

What are the characteristics of early onset neonatal listeriosis or granulomatosis infantiseptica?

A
  1. Late miscarriage or birth complicated by sepsis
  2. multiorgan abscess
  3. disseminated granulomas
139
Q

What is the DOC for L. monocytogenes?

A

Ampicillin

Infectious Disease (OSI type) (24 decks)

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