Protozoan - Microbio Handout Flashcards

1
Q

[Types of host]

Parasite attans sexual maturity

A

definitive or final host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

[Types of host]

harbos asexual or larval stage

A

intermediate host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

[Types of host]

does not develop further to later stages

A

paratenic host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

[Types of host]

allow life cycle to continue and become additional sources of human infection

A

reservoir host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

__ infected individual further infected with same species leading to massive infection

A

superinfection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

[Arthropods]

intense itching, pimple-like skin rash

spread by direct, prolonged, skin-to-skin contact

distributed in the finger webs, wrist, axillae, areaola, umbilicus, lower abdomen, genitalia, buttocks

A

Scabies

Tx: permethrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the components of the circle of hebra?

A

finger webs, wrist, axillae, areaola, umbilicus, lower abdomen, genitalia, buttocks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Scabies mite fecal matter is called

A

Scybala

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Under a microscope, what do you look for to know if it is scabies?

A
  1. Mite
  2. Eggs
  3. Mite fecal matter
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

[Arthropods]

pruritus iof scalp or trunk, nits on hair shadr

A

P. humanus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

[Arthropods]

pruritus in pubic area, nits on hair shaft

A

Pthirus pubis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

[Arthropods]

pruritic, painful and erythematous nodule

A

Dermatobia hominis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

[Arthropods]

pruritic, erythematous wheal, bite marks arranged in a line or cluster

A

Bedbug

Cimex lectularius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

[Arthropods]

Drug that is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor

A

malathion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

[Arthropods]

drug that blocks GABA channel, can cause neurotoxicity

A

Lindane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

[Arthropods]

drug that cause neuronal membrane depolarization via Na channel

A

permethrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Cite examples of your protozoans of medical importance

A
  1. Sarcodina (amebas)
  2. Sporozoa
  3. Mastigophora (flagellates)
  4. Ciliata (ciliates)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

[Protozoa]

Protozoans that infect the intestinal tract

A
  1. E. hystolitica
  2. G. lamblia
  3. C. parvum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

[Protozoa]

Preferentially infect the urogenital tract

A

T. vaginalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

[Protozoa]

Infects blood and tissue

A
  1. Plasmodium spp
  2. T. gondii
  3. Trypanosoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

[Protozoa]

pseudopod-forming, non-flaggelated protozoa; eukaryote that lacks membrane bound organelle

A

E. hystolitica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

[Protozoa]

In E. hystolitica, egg type is seen in the diarrheal stools?

A

trohozoite

contain ingested RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

[Protozoa]

In E. hystolitica, this egg is found in non-diarrheal stool

A

Cyst

has 4 nuclei (entamoeba coli has 8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

[Protozoa]

in E. Hystolitica, excystation happens in what part of the body?

A

small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

[Protozoa]

what are the virulence factors of E. hystolitica

A
  1. Lectin - mediates adherence
  2. Amebapores for penetration
  3. Cysteine protease for cytopathic effect
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

[Protozoa]

Cause dysentery without fever; flask-shaped colon ulcers

A

E. hystolitica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

[Protozoa]

E. hystolitica can cause mass like lesion called ameboma which is commonly seen in which part of the intestine?

A
  1. Cecal or rectosigmoid area
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

[Protozoa]

What is the most common extraintestinal form of E. hystolitica infection?

A

Ameboc liver abscess

Anchovy sauce-like aspirate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

[Protozoa]

The most common location of Amebic liver abscess

A
  1. superior-anterior aspect
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

[Protozoa]

falling leaf motility, covered with variant surface proteins

A

G. lamblia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

[Protozoa]

G lamblia preferentially reside in which part of the intestine?

A

duodenum
jejunum
upper ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

[Protozoa]

G. lambia cyst is found in

A

both diarrheal and formed stool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

[Protozoa]

string test is used to detect

A

G. lamblia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

[Protozoa]

old man with eye glasses in Kohn stain

A

G. duodenalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

[Protozoa]

What facilitates G. lamblia’s attachment to avoid peristalsis?

A
  1. adhesive disc

2. letin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

[Protozoa]

trophozoite of G. lamblia causes inflammation of which part of the GIT?

A

duodenum

this steatorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

[Protozoa]

intestinal protozoa that undergoes schizogonu and gametogony;

autoinfection in ICC

A

C. parvum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

[Protozoa]

What is the infective stage of C. parvum?

A

thick-walled oocyts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

[Protozoa: diagnose]

preferentially infects jejunum, self-limited non-bloody diarrhea, after oocyst excystation

A

C. parvum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

[Protozoa]

what is the DOC for immunocompetent individuals with C. parvum?

A

Nitazoxanide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

[Protozoa]

What is the DOC for immunocompromised patients with C. parvum?

A

HAART

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

[Protozoa]

pear-shaped, flagellated trophozoites

Exist only as trophozoites

A

T. vaginalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

[Protozoa]

female
watery, foul-smelling, greenish vaginal discharge

itching, burning, strawberry cervic

A

Trichomoniasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the DOC for T. vaginalis?

A

Metronidazle 2g SD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

[Protozoa]

Most important parasitic disease in man

A

plasmodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

[Protozoa]

in malaria, the asexual stage of plasmodium are ____

A

Schizogony and gametogony

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

[Protozoa]

In malaria, the sexual life cycle involves

A

sporogony

48
Q

[Protozoa]

What is the vector of malaria?

A

Anopheles flavirostris minimus

49
Q

[Protozoa]

what is the infective stage of plasmodium?

A

sporozoites

50
Q

[Protozoa]

The specific trophozoite as diagnostic of plasmodium

A

ring forms

51
Q

Plasmodium species with dormant stage

A

P. vivax

P. ovale

52
Q

[Malaria]

___ infect RBC

A

merozoits

53
Q

[Malaria]

ookinetes (elongated plasmodium zygotes) preferentially invade which part of the mosquito

A

midgut wall

54
Q

[Plasmodium species]

banana shaped

A

P. falciparum = maurer dots = coarse granulation

Parum = maruer = coarse

55
Q

[Plasmodium species]

large round, Schuffner dots

A

P. vivax = Schuffner = punctate granulations

56
Q

[Plasmodium species]

compact, Zieman dots

A

P. malariae = fine dots = Ziemann

Fine Zieman

57
Q

[Plasmodium species]

malignant tertian

A

P. falciparum

58
Q

[Plasmodium species]

benign tertian

A

P. vivax

59
Q

[Plasmodium species]

Benign quartan

A

P. malariae

60
Q

[Plasmodium species]

benign tertian

A

P. ovale

61
Q

[Plasmodium species]

Can have cerebral malaria

A

p. falciparum

62
Q

[Plasmodium species]

recrudescence

A

P. falciparum

P. malariae

63
Q

[Plasmodium species]

relapse

A

P. ovale

P. vivax

64
Q

[Malaria]

can be diagnosed by thick and thin smears with __ stain

A

Giemsa

65
Q

[Malaria]

granulomas found in cerebral malaria

A

Durck granulomas

66
Q

[Malaria]

blackwater fever presents as ___

A

acute renal failure

67
Q

[Malaria]

malaria that presents as septic shock

A

algid malaria

68
Q

[Malaria]

Tissue schizontocides

A

Primaquine

69
Q

[Malaria]

blood schizonticide

A

Chlorquine, Quinine

70
Q

[Malaria]

gametocide

A

primacuine

71
Q

[Malaria]

sporonticide

A
  1. proguanil

2. Pyrimethamine

72
Q

[Protozoan]

definitive host is domestic cat

A

T. gondii

73
Q

What test is used to diagnose acute and congenital infection of T. gondii

A

IgM antibody

74
Q

Microscopic examination of T. gondii using giemsa stained preparation shows ___

A

Crescent-shaped trophozoites

75
Q

What is the infective stage of T. gondii?

A

fecal oocyts

Diagnostic stage = bradyzoites

76
Q

What limits the rapidly multiplying tachyzoites of T. gondii?

A

CMI

77
Q

What is the most important tissue diagnosis to detect slowly multiplying bradyzoites?

A

tissue diagnosis

78
Q

What is the CT scan finding of brain encephalitis in ICC

A

ring enhancing lesions

79
Q

What are the features of congenital toxoplasmosis?

A
  1. Abortion
  2. Stillbirth
  3. hydrocephalus
  4. encephalitis
  5. Chorioretinitis
  6. hepatosplenomegaly
  7. intracranial calcifications
80
Q

What is the DOC for T. gondii

A

Sulfadiazing plus pyrimethamine

81
Q

What is the DOC for T. gondii for patients allergic for sulfadiazine

A

Clindamycin

82
Q

[Protozoan]

What is the vector of trypanosma?

A

Reduviid bug

(Triatoma) bite

83
Q

[Protozoan]

what is the infective stage of T. cruzii

A

Reduviid bug

84
Q

[Protozoan]

what is the diagnostic stage of T. cruzii

A

Trypomastigotes

85
Q

[Protozoan]

what is the most frequently effective tissue in T. cruzii

A

cardiac muscle

86
Q

[Diagnosis]

unilateral palpebral swelling, nodule near bite, fever, LAD, hepatosplemegaly

A

Acute chagas

87
Q

___ sign

unilateral palpebral swelling in Acute Chagas disease

A

Romana sigh

88
Q

___

nodular near bine in acute chagas disease

A

chagoma

89
Q

What is the most leading cause of CHF in latin america?

A

Chronic Chagas Disease

90
Q

What is the DOC of Chagas disease

A

Nifurtimox

91
Q

What is the cause of sleeping sickness?

A

T. brucei gambiense

T. brucei rhodesinse

92
Q

What is the cause of american chagas disease?

A

T. cruzi

93
Q

What is the vector of of T. bruceii

A

Tsetse fly (glossina)

94
Q

[Sleeping sickness]

Winterbottom sign

A

posterior cervical LN

95
Q

[Sleeping sickness]

___ sign
deep hyperesthesia

A

Kerandel sign

96
Q

[Sleeping sickness]

plasma cells with cytoplasmic Ig

A

Morula cells mott

97
Q

What transmit T. brucei gambiense

A

Glossina palpalis

98
Q

What transmits east african sleeping sickness?

A

Glossina morsitans

99
Q

[Protozoa]

skin or eyes during trauma, immunocompromised,

keratitis

A

Acanthomoeba castellanii

DOC: Pentamidine, ketoconazole, flucytosine

100
Q

[Protozoa]

swimming in comtaminated pool, can cause primary amenid meningoencephalitis

can penetrate the nasal mucosa and cribiform

A

Naegleria fowleri

DOC: pentamidine

101
Q

[Protozoa]

only ciliated protozoan to cause human disease

A

balantidium coli

102
Q

[Protozoa]

what is the main reservoir of balantidium coli?

A

pigs

103
Q

[Protozoa]

large ciliated trophozoites or large cyst, characteristic V-shaped nucleus;

round-based, wide-necked intestinal ulcers

A

Balantidum coli

DOC: tetracycline, metronidazole

104
Q

[Protozoa]

What transmits Babesia microti

A

Ixodes tick

105
Q

[Protozoa]

Intraerythrocytic ring-ring shaped trophozoites, maltese cross

A

Babesia microti

DOC: Atovaquone + Azithromycin; Quinidine + clindamycin

106
Q

[Protozoa]

what transmits sandfly

A

Phlebotumus (sandfly)

107
Q

[Protozoa]

what is the DOC for Leishmania?

A
  1. Sodium stibogluconate (pentavalent antimonial)
108
Q

What is the 2nd line agent for Leishmania spp

A

Ampho B pentamidine

109
Q

What causes cutaneous leshmania?

A
  1. L. tropica

2. L. mexicana

110
Q

What is the cause of Leishmaniasis mucocutaneous?

A

L. braziliensis

111
Q

What causes visceral leishmania?

A

L. donovani

112
Q

Can be a cause of of diarrhea in immunocompromised patients?

A
  1. Cyclospora cayetanensis

2. Isospora belli

113
Q

What is the most common cause of red tide in algal bloom?

A

Pyrodinium bahamense var. compressum

114
Q

[Shellfish Toxin]

facial paresthesia, total paralysis, respiratory failure

A

Saxitoxon

115
Q

[Shellfish Toxin]

Facial paresthesia, slurred speech, ataxia, diarrhea

A

Brevetoxin

116
Q

[Shellfish Toxin]

Diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain

A

okaidaic acid

117
Q

[Shellfish Toxin]

diarrhea, short-term memory loss, seizures

A

Domoic acid