uworld incorrects Flashcards

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1
Q

course of ansa cervicalis

A

It courses deep to the sternocleidomastoid muscle and loops around the internal jugular vein. Branches from the ansa cervicalis innervate the sternohyoid, sternothyroid, and omohyoid muscles.

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2
Q

where does the phrenic nerve pass thorugh

A

between the pericardium and mediastinal pleura.

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3
Q

explain the principle of radioimmunoassay

A

competitive antbodies to antigens

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4
Q

posterior femor dislocation

what is

A

leg with a posterior hip dislocation appears shortened and internally rotated, with the hip held in flexion and adducti

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5
Q

what is atmoxietene

A

Atomoxetine is a norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor used in attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder.

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6
Q

what causes ankylosis in RA

A

Ossification of the pannus can lead to fusion of the bones across the affected joint (bony ankylosis).

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7
Q

buprior MOA

A

Bupropion is an antidepressant that does not cause sexual dysfunction. It is classified as a norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake inhibitor.

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8
Q

what is myositis ossificans

A

a benign condition that develops after contusion to large muscle groups (eg, quadriceps femoris), not small muscles such as the lumbricals. Patients typically report pain in the affected muscle and a palpab

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9
Q

which factor mimics factor 8

A

Emicizumab, a bispecific monoclonal antibody, mimics the normal physiologic function of factor VIII and can be used to prevent or treat bleeding in patients who have factor VIII inhibitors. This antibody has 2 binding sites; one site binds to factor IXa and the other binds to factor X, which brings them into close proximity and allows factor IXa to cleave factor X into its active form (Xa).

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10
Q

what happens if aromatase not present in female

A

no breast amenorrhea

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11
Q

how to diagnosie an anxiety disorder

A

rule out medical condiotons, if patient has no psychaitry history or prominent physical exam finding it is likely due to a medial disorder

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12
Q

causes of pancytopenia

A

Aplastic anemia
Infection (eg, parvovirus, HIV, viral hepatitis)
Nutritional deficiency (eg, vitamin B12/folate)
Medications (eg, hydroxyurea)

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13
Q

amyloid angiopathy ocurs on which areas of the brain generally

A

parietoocciptal lobe

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14
Q

nalaxone has what half life

A

short

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15
Q

acetiminophn toxicity

A

cetaminophen poisoning typically causes nausea, vomiting, and malaise in the first 24 hours after ingestion. Liver failure occurs later, and patients typically have jaundice, tachypnea, and confusion (ie, hepatic encephalopathy) that may progress to coma.

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16
Q

why pericardial effusionc asues decrease v clear lung firleds

A

Clear lung fields are typically seen because the increase in pericardial pressure (due to pericardial fluid accumulation) affects the lower pressure, right-sided heart chambers more than the left-sided heart chambers. When right-sided obstruction to blood flow is greater than left-sided obstruction, pulmonary edema is unlikely to develop.

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17
Q

what happens to circulation on elevated body temp

A

Appropriate responses to elevated temperature include decreased vasodilation (ie, vasoconstriction) of the splanchnic vasculature, which promotes blood flow from the internal organs to the skin, and peripheral vasodilation, which allows for heat dissipation.

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18
Q

how does dendritic cell become active

A

When activated, dendritic cells migrate to the lymph nodes and spleen where they display antigen with MHC II and co-stimulatory molecules to activate T-cells and B-cells.

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19
Q

when does MS occur in rheumatic fever

A

in middle aged ppl fish mouth deformity

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20
Q

excercise associated collapse

A

EAC
endurance athletes
higher CO
strenous excercise significant pressure in venous system/ if excercise stops blood stop moving forward inability to meet caridac demands=collapse

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21
Q

worst type of breast cancer tumor

A

HER2 overexpression (positivity) is associated with poorly differentiated, rapidly growing tumors. Clinically, HER2 status is used to predict therapeutic response to anti-HER2 monoclonal antibod

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22
Q

GAD vs somatic symotom disorder

A

somatic symotm disorder only one complained GAD several

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23
Q

if a patient has social anxiety + stressor aftwerwards what will happen

A

exacceberate symotoms

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24
Q

social anxiety vs GAD

A

social=resrticted to social situations vs gad multiple worries

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25
Q

oxygen dissociation curve

A

methhegobblin

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26
Q

most accurate marker for heb infection

A

Because IgM anti-HBc is present in the “window period,” it is an important tool for diagnosis when HBsAg has been cleared and anti-HBs is not yet detectable. Thus IgM anti-HBc is the most specific marker for diagnosis of acute hepati

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27
Q

profolol

A

include vasodilation, which can result in hypotension and an increase in serum triglycerides and lipase.

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28
Q

etomidate

A

However, it inhibits cortisol synthesis, which can lead to (reversible) adrenocortical suppression.

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29
Q

ketamine

A

preseves respiratory drive\
bronchodilation
ketamine stimulates catecholamines release, increase HR/BP/ICp

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30
Q

how is ubq proteasome pathway involved in virus

A

The ubiquitin proteasome pathway (UPP) is essential to this process because of its role in breaking down native and foreign intracellular proteins. Ubiquitin ligase initiates the UPP by recognizing specific protein substrates and catalyzing the attachment of ubiquitin. The proteins tagged with ubiquitin are then broken down by a proteasome to peptide fragments which can be recycled into amino acids.

The peptide fragments produced during this process can also be coupled to major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class I molecules in the endoplasmic reticulum and then presented on the cell surface.

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31
Q

arcoroda

A

r skin tags, are benign and often pedunculated outgrowths of normal skin. They often develop in locations that experience frequent friction, such as beneath breast tissue or the axillae.

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32
Q

stroke volume

A

stroke volume and LV systolic pressure

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33
Q

what is differential media

A

Differential media help identify cultured organisms based on their metabolic and biochemical properties

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34
Q

enrichment media

A

Enrichment media contain special growth factors required for some organisms. Examples include the X and V factors required by Haemophilus or the anaerobic conditions needed by Clostridium species.

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35
Q

alzehmiers early and late findings

A

early disease alzehmiers has=senile plaques

late disease -aneurysm formation

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36
Q

vasuliar dementia bipsy

A

glial scar

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37
Q

causes of congenital hypothyrodism /hyperthyrodism(graves)

A

Genetic defect in thyroid hormone production
Maternal antithyroid medication (eg, propylthiouracil)
Excessive or deficient maternal iodin

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38
Q

talk about the urea cycle

A

2 segments involved
ascending loop
collecting duct

passively secreted into the tubular lumen goes to the collecting duct and reabsobed

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39
Q

What is mood reactivity

A

mdd with atypical features what is used maoi

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40
Q

pericardial effusion due to malignancy

A

hemorrhagic atypical cells

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41
Q

why efficacy warfarin increases steadily

A

warfarin fucks up new carboxylation of factors, whereas it takes time for the existing factors to get used up

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42
Q

schistoma

A

However, adult worms shed eggs into the circulation that travel through host tissues and induce eosinophilic granulomatous inflammation and fibrosis (as seen in the image above).

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43
Q

metastatic liver disease

A

Multiple hypodense masses on CT
• Often outgrow vasculature > central necrosis
Hepatic adenoma
• Benign epithelial tumor usually in right lobe
• Associated with contraceptive and anabolic steroids
• Prone to rupture Hepatic angiosarcoma
• Vinyl chloride, arsenic, thorotrast Hepatoblastoma
• Associated with FAP and Beckwith Wiedmann
• Children HCC
• Usually unifocal but can be multiple Cholangiocarcinoma
• Primary sclerosing cholangitis, fibropolycystic liver dz

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44
Q

hepatoblastoma associated

A

beckwith widdleman, children and FAP

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45
Q

2 ways in which chronic alcohol can fuck up nutrition

A

pancreatitis and intestinal injury

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46
Q

intimial tear and medial degeneration is a common complication of

A

Aortic dissection

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47
Q

charcot marie tooth disease

A

harcot-Marie-Tooth disease is due to mutation of the genes responsible for myelin synthesis.

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48
Q

dermatomyositis vs polymyositis histopath

A

Endomysial inflammatory infiltration is found on muscle biopsy in polymyositis. Dermatomyositis is associated with perifascicular inflammation.

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49
Q

ebv the way it acts when latent

A

Promote periodic viral reactivation from memory B-cells, leading to recurrent (asymptomatic) mucosal infections.

encodes antiapoptotic proteins=maignant transformation

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50
Q

JArxier herihimer reaction

A

6-48 hr after initiating treatment for syphilis (most commonly primary or secondary)
May also be seen with treatment of other spirochetes (eg, Lyme disease, leptospirosis) or atypical (eg, Bartonella) organisms
Massive destruction of organisms → lipoproteins released into the circulation → transient inflammatory response

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51
Q

CLL how it looks like

A

mature B Cells

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52
Q

prolactin is similar to what

A

prolactin=similar to growth hormone

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53
Q

what is the cause of acute morbitidy in rheumatic feever

A

pancarditis

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54
Q

what are syphillitic gummas associated with

A

pain and fever

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55
Q

growth hormone arthirits

A

yperplasia of articular chondrocytes and synovial hypertrophy, which may appear on x-ray as widening of the joint space. As acromegalic arthropathy continues, there is degeneration of articular cartilage and periarticular bone resembling osteoarthritis.

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56
Q

what does thyroid hormone do to the bone

A

Thyroid hormone stimulates osteoclast differentiation and activity, bone resorption, and release of calcium into circulation.

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57
Q

uti due to std is frequently asociated with what

A

vaginal discharge

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58
Q

pencillamine due to wilsons diseae

A

membranous nephropathy

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59
Q

where is transcription factor 2 gene present

A

Transcription factor II D binds to the TATA promoter sequence located ~25 bases upstream from the coding region of the gene.

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60
Q

Branching, “chicken-wire” vasculature seen in

angiomyolupoma where it arrises from

what does renal oncytoma have

A

RCC however chicken wire looping oligondendroglioma
perivascular epithelioid cells
associated with TSC

central stellate scars

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61
Q

vegf induced proliferation

A

However, if VEGF-induced tissue proliferation continues unchecked, the resulting hypergranulation tissue prevents wound epithelialization and remodeling. T

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62
Q

esonophilic dermal deposits is what

A

Cutaneous amyloidosis is caused by the deposition of insoluble fibers derived from precursor proteins (eg, immunoglobulin light chains) into the superficial dermis. It can have a varied gross appearance (eg, macular, nodular, lichenous) but would be characterized histologically by homogenous, eosinophilic dermal deposits.

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63
Q

why are neutrophils essential for iwound healing, what happens in excessive of neutrophils

A

Neutrophils are essential to the normal inflammatory response in wound healing; they prevent infection and release cytokines and growth factors that allow wound healing to progress. However, protracted inflammation and excessive release of reactive oxygen species by neutrophils in a wound can cause tissue damage that delays wound healing, resulting in a chronic, nonhealing wound.

64
Q

arachnoid trabeulae

A

Arachnoid trabeculae pass from the arachnoid through the subarachnoid space to the pia mater.

65
Q

why do we have continous murmur at the back in coarctation of aorta

A

Flow through collateral blood vessels accounts for the continuous murmur auscultated over the back in this patient. Left ventricular hypertrophy also can develop due to the aortic obstruction, resulting in an S4 gallop (as seen in this case).

left paravertebral area

66
Q

what murmur u hea on 2nd right ic space in asd

A

ejection murmur due to increased flow

67
Q

where do hear PDA

A

Patent ductus arteriosus causes a continuous murmur best heard over the left infraclavicular area

68
Q

what is bronchiolitis

A

Bronchiolitis is a lower respiratory tract infection that typically affects children age <2 years, usually during the fall and winter. The most common cause is respiratory syncytial virus (RSV).

69
Q

different colour variations of melanoma signify what

A

Red areas are due to vessel ectasia (dilation) and local inflammation

Brown or black, flared areas along the border are due to advancing, neoplastic melanocytes (Choice C).
White and gray areas appear when cytotoxic T lymphocytes recognize tumor antigens (eg, melan-A) and induce apoptosis, leading to malignant melanocyte regression

70
Q

where do lymphangiomas occur

A

Lymphangiomas tend to occur subepidermally, in the head, neck, and axilla. They consist of networks of endothelium-lined lymph spaces. Because they do not contain pigmented cells or red blood cells, lymphangiomas would be unlikely to have a bluish appearance.

71
Q

tinea pedis vs scabies

A

between the toes (interdigital pattern) but in chronic cases can cause a hyperkeratotic rash extending up the sides of the feet (moccasin pattern).

Permethrin is used for scabies, which can affect the interdigital skin but presents with small papules, pustules, and burrows. Microscopy of skin scrapings shows mites or ova and fecal matter.

72
Q

zika virus

A

nfect and destroy fetal neural progenitor cells, causing congenital Zika syndrome and possible fetal demise.\

microcephaly( facial abnormalities POOP
arthrogryosis( contractures)
loss of brain mass( cortical thinning and ventriculomegaly)

73
Q

loss of vaginal lubrication

A

Although declining levels of estrogen in peri- and post-menopausal women may be associated with decreased sexual interest in some patients, this is typically accompanied by decreased vaginal lubrication, which this woman does not describe.

74
Q

CD 4 cell deficit

A

However, these patients typically have failure to thrive, persistent mucosal candidiasis, and severe infections with opportunistic organisms (eg, Pneumocystis) at a much younger age (~6 months).

75
Q

pahthophys of eczeatous dermatitis

A

Acute eczematous dermatitis is characterized histologically by spongiosis, an accumulation of edema fluid in the intercellular spaces of the epidermis. The intercellular bridges become more distinctive in an edematous background, and the epidermis is often described as “spongy.” Eventually, the edema can become so marked as to form intraepidermal vesicles. A perivascular infiltrate of lymphocytes and eosinophils may also be seen; this may involve only the superficial dermis (if due to exposure to a surface antigen) or extend to include the deeper vessels (if due to a systemic antigen exposure [eg, drugs]).

76
Q

what is dyskeratosis

A

Dyskeratosis is abnormal, premature keratinization of individual keratinocytes below the stratum granulosum. Dyskeratosis can be due to genetic mutations (dyskeratosis congenita) or may be found in diseases such as squamous cell carcinoma

77
Q

hypergranulosis

A

lichen planus

78
Q

antibiotics have two methods of action

A

concentration dependant and time dependant

79
Q

conc dependat ab killin=

A

Concentration-dependent killing: Antibiotics with this pattern of activity (eg, aminoglycosides, fluoroquinolones) have a persistent, suppressive effect on bacterial growth following a limited exposure, resulting in increased killing ability when drug levels at the site of infection are maximized. The higher the peak drug level compared to the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC), the greater the antimicrobial activity. As such, higher-dose, extended-interval (ie, once-daily) regimens are frequently used to optimize bacterial killing.

80
Q

time dependant killing

A

Time-dependent killing: Antibiotics with this activity pattern (eg, beta-lactams [penicillins, cephalosporins], clindamycin) have minimal persistent effects and are dependent on long exposure durations for their antimicrobial activity. They are more effective when serum concentrations exceed the MIC for a prolonged period. Therefore, more frequent, multiple-daily dosing regimens are used to maintain plasma concentrations greater than the MIC for as long as possible.

81
Q

candida

A

can infect proximal bowel degment if there is perforation

82
Q

new onset of gerf should suspect

A

errosive esophagitis

83
Q

candida antigen test

A

Candida antigen test: tests for T cell response

84
Q

localised candida vs systemic candida

A

Local defense against Candida is performed by T cells, whereas systemic infection is prevented by neutrophils. For this reason, localized candidiasis is common in patients who have HIV, but neutropenic individuals are more likely to have the systemic form of the disease.

85
Q

opthalmoscopy could be used for which fungi

serologic testing is used for

A

candida endophtalmitis= decreased visual acquity

ASPergilosus

86
Q

cutaneus candida

A

erythema, vesiculopapular rash, maceration and fissuring

87
Q

staph aureus caused osteomyeleitis

A

adherence to collagen

88
Q

iv drug user osteomyletirs

A

pseudomans

89
Q

typhoid fever different stages of

A

Salmonella Typhi
• Transmitted by fecaL oral route
• Phagocytosed by M cells and survives within macrophages Week 1
• Rising fever, bacteremia, bradycardia Week 2
• Abdominal pain, rose spots on trunk and abdomen Week 3
• Hepatosplenomegaly, intestinal bleeding and perforation
• Chronic carriers, especially those with cholelithiasis or other biliary tract abnormalities

90
Q

second cause of hematogenous osteomyelitis

what causes vertebral steomeyelitis after uti

A

Metaphysis in kids
• Epiphysis in adults Child: S aureus then GAS

enterococcus

91
Q

pathophys of osteomyelitis

A

Bone pains develops as abscess expands in bone > bone necrosis > periosteal disruption

92
Q

medicaion to cause aspergillosis c9lonises

A

•Aspergillus fumigatus: contaminated glucocorticoid preparation
previous TB, Emphysema or Sarcoidosi

93
Q

Fx of nadph

A

maintin glutahion 6 p dh

94
Q

thyroid hormone resistance

A

thyroid hormone reistance?

-thyroid hormone beta mutation therefore decrease thyroid hormone sennstivity in pitutary

whereas thyroid hormone alpha mutation has normal senstivity therefore presents with ADHD and tachycarida alpha receptroo are in cns and heart

95
Q

leukotriene b4

A

Leukotriene B4 and the leukotriene precursor 5-HETE stimulate neutrophil migration to the site of inflammation (but not leukotriene C4).

96
Q

Moa of rota virus

A

Rotavirus invades the villous epithelium of the duodenum and proximal jejunum. Infection causes diarrhea via multiple mechanisms including villous blunting (loss of absorptive capacity), proliferation of secretory crypt cells (secretory diarrhea), and reduced brush border enzymes (accumulation of unmetabolized disaccharides in the small intestine lumen

97
Q

why mannitol increases sodium excretion

A

it is due to solvent drag

98
Q

what plays an important role in gonoccoal antibiotic resistance

A

Plasmid conjugation plays an important role in gonococcal antibiotic resistance.

99
Q

dysplasia in infants

A

Dysplasia is the proliferation of abnormal cells, which can lead to the abnormal formation of an organ, such as the acetabulum in patients with developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH). Restrictive, extrinsic forces can also contribute to DDH, but examination would reveal a hip clunk on examination due to femoral head dislocation.

100
Q

single defect abnormality =group of symotoms

A

sequence

101
Q

in myelodysplastic syndrome how do neutrophils look

A

Neutrophils are typically hypolobulated and hypogranular.

102
Q

how would metastatis to the bone look on histology and pbs

A

Metastatic adenocarcinoma (atypical gland-forming cells) can infiltrate the bone marrow, leading to pancytopenia. Although reticulocytes would be diminished, peripheral blood smear would not show signs of abnormal granulocyte development (eg, hyposegmentation).

103
Q

erb b1 vs erb b2

A

erb b1 sq and erbb2 breast and ovarian

104
Q

epidermolysis bullosa

A

Epidermolysis bullosa
path=utation in keratin genes
friction induced blisters
lesions heal with resuidual scarring=chronic thikening of feet

105
Q

transposition of great vessels presents as what on chest xray

A

Echocardiography
Chest x-ray: narrow mediastinum ± cardiomegaly (“egg on a string”)
Hyperoxia test: little to no change in blood oxygenation

106
Q

what sort of antigen causes meningtits of ecoli

A

K1 prevents phagocystosis/complement mediated action

107
Q

what is pirfernidone

A

Pirfenidone is an antifibrotic agent that inhibits TGF-B

108
Q

how does arterial embolism manifest as

A

mi or stroke

109
Q

dermatomyosistis can it involove esophagus,myocarditis

A

yes anything that is skeletal muscle

110
Q

dermatomyosistis can it involove esophagus,myocarditis

A

yes anything that is skeletal muscle

111
Q

restless leg syndrome

A

cns iron deficinecy and dopaminergic pathway problem

112
Q

prolonged hypoglycemia increases what

A

cortiol and growth hormone to stimulate increase in gluconeogenic enzymes

113
Q

how to differentiate betwee acute and chronic adrenal insufficiency

A

acute =severe refractory shock , and hypoglycemia

114
Q

dunction of acth

A

hyperpigmentationa nd androgenization

115
Q

why ain adrenal crisis u will use vasopressors such as adh

A

refractory to shock

116
Q

function of adiponectin

A

Adiponectin=increases adipocytes and stimulates fatty acid oxidatrion

117
Q

a patient has galactorrhea due to BH4 deficiency why

A

decreased dopamine synthesi

118
Q

how rto differentiate adenomyosis from fibroid

A

adenomyosis uniform fibroid not uniform

119
Q

why right ovarian torsion more common

A

Right-sided torsion is more common because of the greater length of the right uteroovarian ligament and because the rectosigmoid colon takes up space around the left ovary acute appendicitis has fever and leukocytosis, fever in ovarian torsion if necrotic rebound tenderness if ovary necrotic tubuovarian abscess=leukocytosis

120
Q

uterus rupture

A

fetal parts palabale and sever pain

121
Q

misoprostol vs mifeprostone

A

pfe1 antagonist and progestrogne antagonist and lucorticod antagonist

122
Q

cardiovasuclar changes in oregnancy

A

pregnancy-decreased svr increased release of peripheral vasodilators /decreased vascular sensitivity to vasoconstrictors (eg, norepinephrine,

high-flow, low-resistance circuit within the uterus and placenta also contributes to decreased SVR.( parallel circuitDecreased SVR induces +RAAS

normal central venous pressure due to vasodilation of pulmonary vessels /decreased blood oncotic pressure;=edema

123
Q

why low dose aspirin prevents preclampsia

A

aspirin prevents preclampsia by inhibiting cytokine release due to inflammation

124
Q

cystic differnetial

A

Dull pain/menstrual cycle abnormalities

-estrogen production

Multiple gestation,moles,clomiphen

Pregnancy-hemorrhagic and rupture
Neoplasm older woman

125
Q

pathogenesis of gynecomastia

A

increased estrogen to androgen ratio

=ductal hyperplasia

126
Q

why kallmann syndrome cause less pubic hair

A

due to adrenarche

127
Q

how doe sunilateral orchiectomy affect other testis

A

Loss of semineforous tubules low inhibin high fsh increased spermatogenesis in other testis, however low sperm count

128
Q

physiological erectile dysfucntion

A

Physiologic causes of ED =aging, maintain an erection, longer refractory period/ less forceful ejaculations

129
Q

why secretin test used for gastrinoma how is aicidtiy increase in helicobacter pylori

A

why infusing secretin stimulate gastrinomas?

  • secretin paradoxically stimulates gastrin release from gastrinomas due to abnormal adenylate cyclase activation.
130
Q

why doe we have strictures in crihns

A

thinckening of muscularis mucosa

131
Q

how do fibrates work

A

basically they inhibit 7 apha hydroxlase, this enzyme is involved in synthesis of bile acids.

therefore this buile acid production results in decrease soliability of bile

132
Q

hereditary pancreatitis

A

Pancreas enzymes=secreted in - form these + by trypsin(cleaved from duodenal enterokinase)

SPINK1=trypsin inhibitor

trypsin=self inhibor cleaving active trypsin molecules at a second site, rendering them inactive.

Hereditary pancreatitis =a small amount of trypsinogen normally activates prematurely within the pancreatic acini and ducts

133
Q

leptin and ghrelin

A

leptin inhibts oxreogenic +anorexogenic via POMC.NPY reduced

-it is directly proptional to adipocyte stores so will be low in anorexic individuals

134
Q

why eating stimulates pancreatiits

A

cck stimulation

135
Q

how pancreatitis cause hypernatremia

A

large volume loss and decreased renal perfusion

136
Q

patient has night blindness and cirhosis what can she have

A

primary biliary cholangitis

137
Q

where does glans penis drain into

A

it drains into deep inguinal node

138
Q

what is acrodermatitis enteropathica

A

zinc not absorbed in jejenum

139
Q

symtooms of retroperitoneal fibrosis

A

fibrosis of proximal ureter, can result in mesenteric ischemia(anorexia and nausea),pedeal edema as a result of ivc compressio

140
Q

paraesophegal vs esophegal hrnia

A

-esophegal=laxity of pleural phrenoesophegal membrane, however paraesophegal defect in phrenoesophegal membrane

141
Q

ascites is always associated with what

A

irrhosis-splachnic vasodilation =increased portal venous flow-> this overwhelms lymph capacity

Transudate fluid move across the liver, mesentry and intestine into peritoneal cavity.Always associated with sinusoidal htn because that’s where lymphatic are located

142
Q

diaeufolys lesion

A

Abnormal submucosal vessel,causes hematemesis and epigastric pain

Location-proximal stomach Abnormal submucosal vessel,causes hematemesis and epigastric pain

Location-proximal stomach

143
Q

diaeufolys lesion

A

Abnormal submucosal vessel,causes hematemesis and epigastric pain

Location-proximal stomach Abnormal submucosal vessel,causes hematemesis and epigastric pain

Location-proximal stomach

144
Q

persitent pulmonary hypertension of newborn

A

Abnormal persistence of elevated fetal pulmonary vascular resistance
Right-to-left shunting across ductus arteriosus
Risk factors

Lung hypoplasia (eg, congenital diaphragmatic hernia)
Meconium aspiration syndrome
Infection (eg, neonatal pneumonia)

145
Q

acute epidydimitis

A

Age <35: sexually transmitted (chlamydia, gonorrhea)Age >35: bladder outlet obstruction (coliform bacteria)
Unilateral testicular painEpididymal edemaDysuria, frequency (with coliform infection)
NAAT for chlamydia and gonorrheaUrinalysis/culture

146
Q

which viral proteins are glycosylated of hiv

A

The only glycosylated HIV polyprotein is gp160, the product of the env gene. gp160 is extensively glycosylated in the rough endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus. It is then cleaved into the envelope proteins gp120, which mediates viral attachment, and gp41, which mediates viral fusion with the host cell. Glycosylation of these proteins is crucial for:

Immune evasion – Glycosylation acts as a shield for the conserved regions of these surface proteins, masking them from immune recognition.
Host cell binding
Proper protein folding

147
Q

contact dermatitis pathophys

A

In the sensitization phase, cutaneous Langerhans cells take up haptens (ie, allergens) and present them to naive CD4+ and CD8+ T cells in the regional lymph nodes, resulting in clonal expansion of hapten-sensitive T cells. This phase takes 10-14 days and does not result in cutaneous lesions.

On reexposure to the hapten, cutaneous antigen-presenting cells present the hapten to sensitized T cells recruited to the skin. When activated, these T cells mediate tissue damage that manifests as pruritic erythema, vesicles, and/or bullae. This elicitation phase occurs 2-3 days following reexposure to the hapten

148
Q

what causes granulomatous kaeratouveitis

A

Herpes zoster reactivation can cause granulomatous keratouveitis (ie, anterior chamber inflammation). However, herpes zoster typically reactivates in a single ganglion, leading to unilateral symptoms.

149
Q

how can Hemoraghic telengectasia induce pulmonay hypertension

A

HHT can induce pulmonary hypertension (progressive dyspnea, loud P2 [pulmonic component of S2]) in some patients. This is usually due to extensive systemic AVMs (eg, hepatic) provoking chronic, high-output heart failure (widened pulse pressure, tachycardia) that elevates mean pulmonary arterial pressure.

150
Q

what is food protein induced allergic protolitis

A

Non–IgE-mediated reaction
Eosinophilic inflammation of rectosigmoid colon
Common triggers: cow’s milk & soy protein

151
Q

histopath of food induced allergic protcolitis

A

inflammation (ie, erythema, edema) confined to the distal colon and rectum. Histopathology findings include infiltration of eosinophils and/or eosinophilic abscesses within the lamina propria and muscularis mucosa.

152
Q

platelet activating factor

A

Platelet-activating factor is released by endothelium, platelets, and immune cells, and is involved in leukocyte function (eg, endothelium attachment, phagocytosis, degranulation), platelet stimulation, and changes to vascular tone and permeability.

153
Q

lipid accumulation in muscle fibres is

A

Lipid accumulation within muscle fibers is seen in lipid myopathies such as carnitine palmitoyltransferase deficiency.

154
Q

what is osteopetrosis histopath

A

primary spongiosa in medullary cavity

155
Q

bone histopathy in hyperpth

A

one resorption in cortical bone with subperiosteal thinning and cystic degeneration (osteitis fibrosa cystica).