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mqle repro Flashcards

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USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

lymphma grenolum pathophys and complications

A

Fibrotic changes; strictures in the anogenital tract
Genital elephantiasis; chronic lymphedema
Infertility

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2
Q

klebsilla granulomatosis

A

genital lesion: begin as one or more nodules; eventually ulcerate to form large, beefy-red lesions that bleed easily could cause pseudogenital enphelatitis

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3
Q

an immigrant comes with scrotal swelling at the groin why :O

A

probably filarisis, or lymphadectomy

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4
Q

injury of bulbous urethra why

A

lacks the corpora cavernosa.

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5
Q

how do bladder injuries manifest

A

Bladder injuries typically manifest with gross hematuria or an inability to urinate, lower abdominal pain, and/or distension.

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6
Q

mechanism of erection

A

Vasodilation of the small vessels in the corpus cavernosum is part of the physiologic mechanism of a penile erection

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7
Q

function of pudenal nerve in ejaculation

A

bulbospongiosus and ischiocavernosus muscles that are responsible for ejaculation.

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8
Q

physiological erection explain what is emision( when secretions are emitted from the glands done by sympathetic glands what shoots the ejaculation

A

Parasympathetic → Point (erection)

  1. Sympathetic → Squeeze (emission)
  2. Somatic (pudendal nerve) → Shoot (expulsion
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9
Q

hesselbach triangle

A

Bordered medially by the lateral margin of the rectus sheath, laterally by the inferior epigastric vessels, and inferiorly by the inguinal ligament. This triangle helps differentiate direct (inside the triangle) from indirect (outside the triangle) inguinal hernias.

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10
Q

mechanism of direct hernia vs indirect hernia

A

direct hernia transversalis fascia weakness, indirect hernia =process vaginalis failure to close

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11
Q

which. nerve is injured in radical prostatomy

A

obviously cavernous nerve

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12
Q

lifting testicle releives pain in what

A

epidydimitis

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13
Q

perineall hypospadias

A

unfused labioscrotal folds

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14
Q

clocal membrane made up of

A

protoectoderm

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15
Q

how do most of the UG anamolies form

A

defect in urorectal septum failure to divide into anus

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16
Q

episapdias vs hypospadias mechanism

A

The extrophy results from failure of the primitive streak mesoderm to migrate around the cloacal membrane, and it occurs often in combination with epispadias. Penile hypospa- dias is characterized by a failure of fusion of the labioscrotal folds, with the external urethral orifice located between the two unfused halves of the scrotum.

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17
Q

urachal cust

A

The persistence of the epithelial lining of the urachus can give rise to a urachal cyst

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18
Q

what is allantois

A

protusion of yolk sac that connects to the bladder,gives rise to median umbilical ligament

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19
Q

what is urachus

A

a duct that connects yolk sac and urinary bladder,

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20
Q

failure of labioscrotal folds to close would result in

A

urethra between scrotum

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21
Q

what causes epispadias

A

failure of spongy urethra to close which results in malpositioned genital tubercle
The genital tubercle would not directly cause epispadias, as the tubercle still continues to develop, but it is located more dorsall

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22
Q

where does the transfer of ova fromt he ovary occur

A

he trans- fer of ova from the ovary to the fimbriae occurs on the posterior side of the broad ligament.

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23
Q

which lobe involved in prostatic hypertrophy

A

median

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24
Q

which muscle when damaged contributes to fecal continence

and which muscle when damaged contributes to urinary incontinence

A

fecal incontinece is pubococcygeus

urinary continence is UG diphragm

25
Q

what is “Calvin Klein syndrome”

A

lateral femoral cutaneus nerve compression

26
Q

position of the uterus

A

Normally, the uterus is anteflexed at the junc- tion of the cervix and the body and anteverted at the junction of the vagina and the cervical cana

27
Q

which ligament provides direct support to uterus

A

The cardinal ligament, also known as Mack- enrodt’s ligament or transverse cervical ligament, is composed of condensations of fibromuscular tissues that accompany the uterine vessels. These bands

28
Q

cut of the cardinal ligament will cause

A

uterus prolapse

29
Q

what will cause a cystocele

A

pubocervical fascia that covers the anterior wall of the vagina and assists in supporting the bladder.

30
Q

superficial perineal space

A

superficial perineal space or cleft lies between the external perineal fascia of Gallaudet (fascia of inferior perineal muscles in the superficial perineal compartment) and the membranous layer of Colles’ fascia

31
Q

deep perineal space

A

ug diphragm

32
Q

pathophysiology of vaginisumus

A

disten- sion of the cavernous tissues and the bulbospongiosus and transverse perineal muscles, t

33
Q

what is the arcus tendinous fascia

A

The arcus tendineus fascia pelvis joins the muscle fascia of the levator ani to the pubocervical
fascia on the vagina and is not directly associated with the uterus or its ligaments.

34
Q

cremasteric reflex branches

A

ilioinguinal nerve effernt output is genitofemoral

35
Q

how does pain fibres from uterus differ

A

if above pelivc pain line superior hypogastric if inferior sucha s cervix it is splahnic nerve

36
Q

bradykinin antaonist

A

The autosomal dominant defect in patients with hereditary angioedema causes a deficiency of C1 inhibitor, which physiologically suppresses steps in the complement pathways and inactivates kallikrein. Because kallikrein normally converts kininogen to bradykinin, increased levels of kallikrein lead to a buildup of bradykinin, and eventual angioedema. First-line therapies are focused either on antagonizing the bradykinin-B2-receptor (icatibant), preventing further generation of bradykinin with kallikrein inhibitor therapy (ecallantide), or replacing the defective enzyme with intravenous injection of purified C1-INH.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION

37
Q

reactive arthiritis

A

uveithis urethritis and arthiritis( enthesitis) sacroiliitis, dactylitis, oral lesions, and keratoderma blennorrha-
A skin lesion characterized by hyperkeratosis of the palms and soles. Can be yellow-brown in color and have a waxy texture. Often appears in conjunction with reactive arthritis.Psoartic arthritis like lesion of gland penis

38
Q

which lupus antibody is assoicated with nephrrotoxicity

A

anti ds DNA

39
Q

radiographic sign of psoartic arthiritis

A

and pencil-in-cup deformity of the distal interphalangeal joints (DIPs) on x-r

40
Q

acanthosis

A

epidermal hyperplasia of the stratum spinosum.

41
Q

which skin codition associated with parkinsons

A

sebarrhoric dermatitis

42
Q

defect in IL17

A

Deficiency of IL-17 causes chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis.

43
Q

when is cathespin released

A

Cathepsin is a lysosomal enzyme released by neutrophils during type III hypersensitivity reactions, as seen in vasculitides and serum sickness

44
Q

how doe snessiera gonorrhea evade immune system

A

N. gonorrhoeae is a facultative intracellular organism, as it resides and replicates within neutrophilic granulocytes (and epithelial cells) to evade the immune system

45
Q

how does nessiera mengitis evade phagocytosis

A

due to polysacchride capsule

46
Q

how a patient wit c3 deficiency presents

A

recurent infections by capsulated organisms because they are involved in opsonization

47
Q

what is the cause of antigen drift

A

random point mutations

48
Q

what is the purpose of CD28/B7

A

complex involves secondary activation proliferation of immature t lymphocytes

49
Q

function of IL2 and aldesleukin

A

activated NK and t cells, recognize abscencse of MHC class 1

50
Q

cytokines that increase CRP

A

IL-1β, tumor necrosis factor (TNF-α), and interferon gamma (IFN-γ). IL-6

51
Q

functiono f ITFalpha and beta

A

Besides promoting the expression of MHC class I proteins on the surface of virus-infected cells, interferon α and interferon β induce the activation of various enzymes that promote the antiviral state of the cell, including ribonuclease L. Ribonuclease L is an enzyme that mediates the degradation of cellular and viral RNA and thereby inhibits viral protein synthesis. The enzyme is only activated upon binding to double-stranded RNA, which ensures that breakdown of intracellular RNA occurs preferentially in virus-infected cells.

52
Q

how do you identify antibody induced damage

A

he absence of C4d staining (a marker of antibody-mediated damage) and the presence of inflammatory infiltrate within the wall of tubules (tubulitis) indicate that the most likely mechanism for graft rejection in this patient is acute cellular rejection.

53
Q

accumulation of DTATP

A

Accumulation of dATP also inhibits the function of ribonucleotide reductase, which is essential for the generation of deoxynucleotides, thereby impairing the proliferation of lymphocytes.

54
Q

antibody medicalted cell toxicity is used for which defense

A

helminth ige wraps around degranulation mast cells and eosinophils

55
Q

how to differentiate between NADPH OXIDASE and myeloperoxidase

A

NAdph oxidase fails to turn blue

56
Q

pathophys of crohns

A

However, mutations in the NOD2 receptor, as seen in this patient with Crohn disease, alter NF-κB activity, leading to a dysfunctional innate immune response.

57
Q

nod 2 seen in

A

sarcodisos,crohns and graft vs host

58
Q

carfilzombib

A

Carfilzomib decreases protein degradation by proteasomes and exerts an antitumor effect by disrupting protein homeostasis, which results in cell cycle arrest at the G2 checkpoint.

usmle (38 decks)

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