hematology Flashcards

1
Q

different degenrative diseases of back explain

RADUCLOPathy,spondyloarthopathy, spinal metastasis

A

Relieved with rest
• Cervical and lumbosacral
Radiculopathy
• Radiates to leg, positive straight leg raise
test Spinal stenosis
• Pain with standing, relieved with flexion
Spondyloarthropathy
• Relieved with exercise Spinal mets
• Constant pain, worse at night, no
response to position change Osteomyelitis
• Focal tenderness, fever, night sweats
Bone mets PB/KTL
• Prostate, Breast, Kidney, Thyroid, Lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

explain pathogeneisis of HEmochromatosis

A

HFE protein normally interacts with
transferrin recognizing Fe uptake from GI
tract > mutation leads to falsely low
detection of Fe > no hepcidin production >
increased DMT1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how to ifferentiate between hemophilia and antiphospholipid antibody syndrome

A

use mixing study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how to differentiate between pilocytic astrocytoma, and medulloblastoma

A
Pilocytic astrocytomas are the
most common brain tumors in
children. They frequently arise in
the cerebellum and can be
differentiated from
medulloblastomas by the presence
of both cystic and solid
components on imaging.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

histopath of brain tumora

A
Medulloblastoma
• 2nd MC (MC malignant)
• MC in vermis
• Small blue cells with drop mets
Ependymomas
• Perivascular rosettes
• Usually in ventricle causing
hydrocephalus
Adults GBM
• Pseudopalisading
Oligodendroglioma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

why vitk supplemetation necessary in newborn

A
Newborns who don't receive
prophylactic supplementation are
at risk for bleeding complications.
Pts w/ CF are also at risk for vitK
defic due to poor absorption of fatsoluble
vits.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

problems with antiphospholipid syndrome

A

Pts w/
antiphospholipid Abs are at risk
for venous and arterial TE and
unexplained, recurrent preg loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what if we give a person B9 with a b12 deficiency how to differentiate between b12 and folate

A
If megaloblastic
anaemia due to vitB12 defic is
mistakenly Tx w/ vitB9 alone, the
neuro dysfxn can worsen.
B12 def
• High MMA and homocysteine, peripheral
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

how do you diagnose multiple myeloma

A

system). A
bone marrow sample w/ >10%
plasma cells is strongly
suggestive of MM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how does hypothyroid present with

A

Macrocytic RBC without hypersegmentel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the classic signs seen in hereditary spherocytosis how to diagnose it

A
hemolytic anaemia, jaundice, and
splenomegaly
↑ osmotic fragility
on acidified glycerol lysis testing
confirms the Dx.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

manifestations of g6pd deficiency

A

Infections, dapsone, antimalarials, TMp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

explain mechanism of cachexia

A

TNF-a is thought to mediate PNP
cachexia in humans by
suppressing appetite and ↑ BMR

Anorexia, malaise, anemia, weight loss,
muscle wasting all driven by TNFalpha
(aka cachectin)
• Produced by macrophages
• Inhibits appetite in hypothalamus,
increases BMR
• Mediates symptoms of septic shock and
causes liver to release acute phase reactants
IFNalpha
• Antiviral and anti tumor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

RAS oncogene
ERB1
ERB2

A

cholangiocarcinoma, pancreatic
adenocarcinoma
ERB1 (EGFR): lung adenocarcinoma
ERB2 (HER2): breast cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

explain metalloproteinase

A
Zn containing enzymes
• Degrades ECM and BM (laminin and
collagen type 3 and 7)
Cancer invasion
• Tumor cell detach by decreasing e
cadherins
• Tumor cell ahere to BM (facilitated by
laminin)
• Tumor cell produce metalloporteinase
and cathepsin D protease to invade
Random
Acid hydrolase: lysosomal enzyme
Alk Phos: bone or biliary process issue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are leukoerythroblasts

A

Teardrop cells
• Nucleated RBC
• Marrow fibrosis and mets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

funtion of tdt

A

Adds nucleotides to V,D and J region to

increase Ab diversity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

AMl cuses anemia

A

• Myeloblast unable to differentiate >
suppress other cells
• Anemia, thrombocytopenia, neutropeni

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

which diseases have psitive coombs in autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A

SLE, Hodgkin, NHL, mycoplasma, EBV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

heritditary spherocytosis

A

mchc over 36

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

how to compare LR with CML

A

LR LAP normal or Increased, in cml decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are the complication of ebv in hiv

A
Latent EBV can reactive > can cause B
cell lymphoma, burkitts and CNS
lymphoma
BK virus
• Typically post transplant nephropathy or
hemorrhagic cystitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

EBV

A

• CMV, HIV and Toxo:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what characterizes a tissue anaplastic

A
  • Loss of cell polarity and architecture
  • Variation in shape and size
  • High N:C ration
  • Many mitotic figures
  • Giant, multinucleated tumor cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
talk about kapsoki sarcoma
``` s. This tumour arises from primitive mesenchymal cells and is strongly a/w HHV-8. Late stage spread to lungs and GI tract • Spindle and endothelial cell proliferation, RBC extravasation and inflammation • HHV8 ```
26
aplasticanemia causes
``` Autoimmune • Parvo and EBV • Carbamazepine, chloramphenical, sulfonamides • Benzene or radiation Dx • Hypocellular bone marrow composed of fat • ```
27
pure red cell aplasia
``` • IgG against erythropoietic precursors and progenits • Associated with thymomas and lymphcytic leukemia and Parvo B19 • Thymectomy usually cures ```
28
fanconi anemia
Causes aplastic anemia • Short stature • Absent thumbs • High risk of malignanc
29
myeodysplasia
Defect in stem cell maturation > | pancytopenia
30
why reticulocytes are blue
``` ↑ bone marrow EPO results in an accelerated release of immature RBCs (reticulocytes) into the bloodstream. Reticulocytes contain bluish cytoplasm and reticular precipitates of residual ribosomal RNA. ```
31
mediastinal mass
Large anterior mediastinal mass can compress great vessels (SVC syndrome), cause esophageal dysphagia, compress trachea (stridor and dyspnea)
32
talk about different spleen patho
``` Splenic hyperplasia/hypertrophy • Infection Splenic pressure atrophy • Tumor Splenic lipid accumulation • Lysosomal lipid storage disorder (Gaucher's) ```
33
b12 deficiency
Give B12 and will see • Immediate rise and then fall in reticulocyte coun
34
what does erythroid cells in spleen indicate
``` The presence of erythroid precursors in organs such as the liver and spleen is indicative of EMH, a condition characterised by EPO-stim, hyperplastic marrow cell invasion of EM organs. ```
35
extramedullary hematopoeisis
``` Caused by chronic hemolysis • Can see "crew cut" on xray or chipmunk facies • Intrahepatic extramedullar hematopoiesis can cause portal HTN ```
36
why normal serum fe in aplastic anemia
because absent HPO stem cells cant use iron
37
what does lead poisoning do to rbc
• Basophilic stippling on hypochromic microcytic anemia > abnormal degradation of rRNA
38
what does integrin bind to
``` Adhesion of cells to the ECM involves integrin-mediated binding to fibronectin, collagen, and laminin s integrins, matric collagen, GAG ```
39
function of GAGS
``` GAG that contributes to H2O retention in ECM and determines stiffness of matric Keraton sulfate: GAG in ECM that maintains type 1 collagen fibrill organization (like cornea) ```
40
what are the causes of splenic infarction
• Sickle cell, infectious endocarditis and | myeloproliferative disorder
41
explain peneerace of VWD
. It has an AD pattern of inheritance and variable penetrance.
42
what is dysfibrongeimas
Abnormal fibrinogen causing excessing bleeding or thrombophilia • Normal bleeding time • Abnormal TT, PT, and PTT
43
transglutaminase crosslinking deficiency
=bleeding
44
pathophys of itb
``` Ab to GP2b/3a • Low platelets • Normal rest of labs • Secondary ITP associated with HIV or Hep C ```
45
hypotyrodisim ffect on rbc
Fe deficiency anemia or pernicious | anemia
46
whch bacteria sickle cell ppl get
``` Bone necrosis leading to osteomyelitis (Salmonella and Staph) • Splenic infarction > scarring, fibrosis and atrophy • Infant: splenic sequestration crisis (pooling of RBC) > low Hb, rapidly enlarging spleen and hypovolemic shock ```
47
what is sickle cell crisis
• Infant: splenic sequestration crisis (pooling of RBC) > low Hb, rapidly enlarging spleen and hypovolemic shock
48
what sort f anemia is seen in sickel cell disease
``` An MCV >110μm3 is highly suggestive of megaloblastic anaemia, such as that caused by vitB9 or vitB12 defic. Pts w/ chronic hemolytic anaemia have ↑ vitb9 req due to ↑ erythrocyte turnover and are predisposed to devel macrocytosis. ```
49
can extramedullary hemtoporisi cause macrocyic anemia
Extramedullary erythropoiesis in sickle cell can cause macrocytic anemia BUT you must check reticulocyte index (if elevated retic index > adequate marrow response)
50
exain her 2
``` The HER2 oncogene encodes for a transmembrane glycoprotein w/ intrinsic tyrosine kinase activity and is a member of the family of EGFRs. Overexpression of this protein is a/w a worse prognosis and ↑ risk of disease recurrence. ```
51
explain pathogenessi of ebv
``` Binds CD21 infecting B cells • CD21 (CR2) binds C3d • Atypical CD8 cells have abundant cytoplasm, eccentrically placed nucleus, and skirting ```
52
active plasma cell
wagon wheel apperaence because of perinuclear clearing
53
genetics of non small cell carcinoma
• Chromosome 2 fusion between EML4 | and ALK >
54
mutation in pcv
• V617F mutation involving JAK2 gene resulting in more sensitive receptor to EPO and TPO
55
how does hypoxa present in copd and osa
COPD, OSA | • SaO2 < 92; PaO2 < 65
56
which cancers present with EC epo
• RCC, HCC, pheo, hemangioblasoma, | leiomyoma
57
in leukmoid reaction what des the peripheral smear look like
``` peri smear can show ↑ bands, early mature neutrophil precursors (e.g. myelocytes), and granules (e.g. Dohle bodies) in the neutroph Will also see increase bands, toxic granulations and cytoplasmic vacuoles ```
58
how to treat ttp how o dy/dx from dic
Need hemolytic anemia to dx Tx: plasmapheresis pt and ptt
59
classic triad of HSP
• Palpabale purpura, abdominal pain, arthralgia • Normal platelet count
60
bone lytic cancers
MM, non small cell of lung, NHL, | RCC and melanom
61
bone blastic cancer
: prostate (blacks at higher risk), | small cell of lung, Hodgki
62
how does pnh destroy nephron
• Chronic hemolysis > Fe deposits in | nephron (especially PCT) > hemosiderosis
63
explain process f cancer cahcexia leading to mucle loss
``` In carelated cachexia, high lvls of proinflammatory cytokines lead to ↑ ubiquitination of sarcomeric muscle proteins, which in turn leads to extensive skeletal muscle loss. ```
64
most likely caus of opc cnacner
hpv
65
explain histopath of melanoam
``` s. Dx is gen made when a histopath sample shows cellular atypia w/ cells containing brown pigment (melanin granules); immunostaining for melanin/melanoma markers (e.g. S-100, HMB-45) is gen (+). ```
66
histopath f mm
Histopath will show replacement of the normal bone marrow w/ plasma cells and blasts.
67
diagnosis of cll based on
``` en CBC reveals dramatic leukocytosis, and FC subsequently shows a clonal population of leukocytes w/ typical B-cell markers such as CD19, CD20, and CD23. ```
68
what is the histopath in parvo virus infection of cell
pronormoblasts w/ glassy, | intranuclear viral inclusions.
69
histopath of ewin sarcoma
``` It most commonly involves the lower extremity and pelvis and often metastasizes to the lungs. Histopathology is Chx by uniform, small, round, cells; fibrous septae; and patches of necrosis and hemorrhage. ```
70
difference between band neutrophil vs segmented
Band neutrophils are slightly less mature than segmented neutrophils and have indented, unsegmented "C" or "S" shaped nuclei. Band neutrophils normally account for approximately 5-10% of peripheral blood leukocytes. An increased proportion of band neutrophils can be seen in infectious and inflammatory conditions.
71
monocyes morph
Here is a monocyte. It is slightly larger than a lymphocyte and has a folded nucleus. Monocytes can migrate out of the bloodstream and become tissue macrophages under the influence of cytokines. Note the many small smudgy blue platelets between the RBC's.
72
what is left shift
A very high WBC count (>50,000) with pronounced left shift that is not a leukemia is known as a "leukemoid reaction".
73
lead posionng basophilic stippling
Basophilic stippling due to inhibition of | 5' nucleotidase resulting in retained RNA
74
what is hoell olly odies
DNA remnant in RBC with asplenic pt
75
explain pathogensis of warfin induced necrosis
thrombotic occlusion of the | microvasc w/ skin necrosis.
76
antitrombin3 deficiency
AD • Presents with venous thrombosis • No change in PTT with hep > blast with hep until you can bridge to warfarin
77
pathophys of beta thalessemia
transcription, processing, and | translation of beta-globin mRNA
78
how are target cells gformed
erythrocytes decrease volme and excessive membrane
79
why do pts with splenectomy develop target cells
``` Pts who undergo splenectomy usually develop target cells b/c the spleen is the 1ary organ that prunes excessive RBC membrane. ```
80
molecular pathogenesis of MM
``` Myeloma cells stim osteoclast devel by secreting RANKL and destroying OPG, which incr RANK activity and results in osteoclast diff. ```
81
when do rbc sickle
• RBC sickle when deoxygenated or dehydrated (causing chain polymerization via hydrophobic bonds)
82
gardos
Gardos (Ca dependent) K channel blockers prevent dehydration by prevent K efflux
83
opiods tolerance symtoms
* Pruritis is mild and tolerance develops * Nausea develops tolerance * Can decrease micturation reflex
84
explain the MDR 1
ATp dependent efflux pump (normal in nephron and BBB) • Verapamil, diltiazem, ketoconazole: reduce action of pump ``` he human MDR1 gene codes for P-gp, a transmembrane ATPdependent efflux pump protein that has a broad specificity for hydrophobic compounds. This protein can both ↓ the influx of drugs into the cytosol and can ↑ efflux from the cytosol, thereby ```
85
why never give leuovorin
5• Fluoruracil • Inhibits thymidylate synthetase • Leucovorin potentiates the cytotoxic effect
86
how to cancer cells avoid imune suppression
Ca cells avoid immune recognition by overexpression PDL1, which binds to the PD-1 receptor on Tc cells and inhibs their response (T-cell exhaustion). mAbs that block PDL1 and PD-1 are effective against ca that express high lvls of neoAgs on their surface b/c these tumours are particularly susceptible to immune recognition by Tc cell
87
cdks 4/6
g1-s
88
what is Emicizumab
``` hemophilia A is an XL disorder a/w a defic of FVIII. Emicizumab — a bispecific, mAb — mimics the activity of FVIII by binding to both FIXa and FX, bringing them into close proximity to allow for FX activation. ```