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Year 2 > Urogen Lectures > Flashcards

Urogen Lectures Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of Chronic Kidney Disease CKD?

A

where you have an irreversible loss of the nephron. (loss of function)

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2
Q

What is staging like for CKD?

A

You use GFR levels and Albumin levels in the urine

Albumin should not be in urine but sometimes it goes from blood to urine when there is something wrong

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3
Q

When should a patient go on dialysis?

A

When GFR is less than 15

AEIOU

Acidosis- is a process causing increased acidity in the blood and other body tissues

electrolyte balance- hyperkalemia

intoxication

overload with fluid

uremic symptoms- percarditis and platelet dysfunction

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4
Q

What causes CKD?

A

AKI

Hypertension

Diabetes

Glomeluarenephritis

Polycystic Kidney disease

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5
Q

How can hypertension cause CKD?

A
  • Thickening of blood vessels
  • narrowing of lumen
  • less blood flow to kidneys (afferent arteriole)
  • decrease is filteration
  • so decrease in GFR
  • cells in the glomerulus detect this and release renin
  • stimulate RAAS system
  • further hypotension/thickening/narrowing
  • leads to glomerulosclerosis
  • which leads to ischaemic injury

=loss of nephron

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6
Q

What the four changes that happen in the BC/glomerulus?

A

Mesangial expansion and proliferation,

podocytopathy

Glomerular basement thickening and sclerosis

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7
Q

Explain diabetic neuropathy?

A

Glucose in the start sticking to the protein in the efferent arteriole. And causes it to get stiff and narrower (hyaline arteriosclerosis). This creates an obstruction that makes it difficult for the blood to leave the glomerulus and increase pressure within the glomerulus leading to hyperfiltration. Mesangial cells therefore secrete more structural matrix which expands the size of the glomerulus. Over many years, this process of glomerulosclerosis, once again, diminishes the nephron’s ability to filter the blood and leads to CKD

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8
Q

Markers of CKD

A

Markers of CKD

  • Reduction in GFR
  • Urine
  • Dipstix – Blood, Protein
  • Protein estimation – ACR, 24 Hour urine
  • Microscopy - casts

• Electrolyte abnormalities

-Tubular disorders – Gitelman’s syndrome

  • Abnormalities detected by histology
  • Scan of kidneys
  • Small kidneys, Polycystic kidneys, Hydronephrosis
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9
Q

Investigation to asses renal impairment

A

Urinalysis

Complete blood count

Electrolyte level test

Blood urea nitrogen test

Creatinine test

Parathyroid hormone (PTH) test

Renal ultrasound

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10
Q

Symptoms of CKD

A
  • weight loss and poor appetite.
  • swollen ankles, feet or hands – as a result of water retention (oedema)
  • shortness of breath.
  • tiredness.
  • blood in your pee (urine)
  • an increased need to pee – particularly at night.
  • difficulty sleeping (insomnia)
  • itchy skin.
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11
Q

It is well known that patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) have a strong risk of _____________ _______

A

cardiovascular disease(CVD).

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12
Q

General principles of management of CKD

A
  • life style change, weight loss, smoking cessation
  • tight BP & DM control
  • in patients with Proteinuria RAAS Blockade (+Sodium-Glucose Co-Transporter 2 inhibitors (SGLT2i)
  • Statins
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13
Q

What is AKI?

A

Acute kidney injury is defined as an abrupt (within 48 hours) reduction in kidney function based on an elevation in serum creatinine level, a reduction in urine output, the need for renal replacement therapy (dialysis), or a combination of these factors. It is classified in three stages. Reversible

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14
Q

What staging is used for AKI?

A

Serum creatinine levels

urine output

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15
Q

What are the causes of Pre renal AKI?

A

: renal artery stenosis (narrowing of the spaces which increases pressure), heart failure and haemorrhage

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16
Q

What are the intra renal causes of AKI?

A

Glomerulonephritis, Tubular necrosis, interstitial nephritis, vasculitis/macroangiopathic haemolytic anaemia

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17
Q

What are the post renal causes of AKI?

A

: Benign prostatic hyperplasia and tumour

obstruction

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18
Q

Pathophysiology of Acute tubular necrosis

A

Damage and death of the epithelial cells of the renal tubules

most common cause of AKI

the damage is due to ischaemia or toxins

the epithelial cells are replaced so that is why it is reversible.

Things like renal hyporperfusion and nephrotoxic medications (like aminoglycosides, chemotherapies, myoglobin) can lead to ATN.

Decreased renal perfusion can be related to reduced circulating volume (e.g. hypovolaemia), reduced cardiac output (e.g. cardiac failure), systemic vasodilatation (e.g. sepsis) or arteriolar changes (e.g. secondary to ACE-inhibitor or NSAID use).

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19
Q

Clinical features of AKI

A

Asymptomatic

but severe patients may be symptomatic like confusion, fatigue, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, weight gain, or oedema

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20
Q

Investigation for AKi

A

Serum creatinine level

Urinalysis

Urine electrolytes

Imaging studies- Renal ultrasonography

Renal biopsy

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21
Q

What is the purpose of dialysis?

A

excretion of metabolic waste products and foreign chemicals. It also gives us any solutes/fluid that we are lacking. Regulates water and electrolyte balance as well as acid base balance.

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22
Q

What are the two types of dialysis?

A

Haemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis

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23
Q

What is the difference between haemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis

A

Haemodialysis is a way of replacing some of the functions of your kidney by using a machine to filter and clean your blood. Blood is pumped out of your body to the machine where it is passed through a series of tiny tubes, in an ‘artificial kidney’ or ‘hemodialyzer’. Changes to your diet will be needed

Peritoneal Dialysis: blood is cleaned through a lining inside your abdomen (specifically your peritoneum). So you put a tube near the belly button into the peritoneum and insert a solution called dialysate solution and leave it for a few hours. The solution diffuses out the waste products out of your blood. The tube is then drained and the process starts again.

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24
Q

What are the types of the peritoneal dialysis? explain them?

A

Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (capd)- 4 exchanges you perform yourself everyday using bags of dialysis fluid. You move around with the bag.

Automated peritoneal dialysis- a machine does the exchanged for you at night just before you go to bed. You might have some fluid in your body during the day but you are free to move.

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25
Q

What is the basic mechanism of diaylsis?

A

Through diffusion/osmoisis

Blood is pumped around an extracorporeal circuit and through a semipermeable membrane (dialyser) before being returned to the circulation. In the dialyser dialysate flowing in the opposite direction is in close contact with blood. Small solutes (but not cells and larger-molecular-weight proteins) can cross the membrane, and move by diffusion down a concentration gradient. A trans membrane pressure allows controlled fluid removal by ultrafiltration (and with fluid, more solute removal by convection

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26
Q

What are the indication of renal replacement therapy? (dialysis)

A

Less than GFR 15

Acidiosis

Intoxication

Overload with fluid

Electrolyte balance

Uraemic symtoms

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27
Q

Key principles of Kidney Transplantation

A

When you have a transplant, it is important to:

  • Reduce your risk for heart and blood vessel disease.
  • Manage high blood pressure, diabetes, high cholesterol.
  • Maintain a healthy weight.
  • Keep a healthy red blood cell count.
  • Reduce your risk for cancer and infection.
  • Take your immunosuppressant medications as prescribed
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28
Q

Compare and contrast each RRT method

A
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29
Q

What does kidney injury have a strong link to?

A

CVS disease

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30
Q

Kidney Cancer

Incidence:

Risk Factors:

Age;

Sex:

Geographical Distribution:

A

Incidence: 7th most common

Risk Factors:

  • Smoking. Smoking increases the risk of developing renal cell carcinoma (RCC). …
  • Obesity. People who are very overweight have a higher risk of developing RCC. …
  • High blood pressure. …
  • Family history of kidney cancer. …
  • Thyroid cancer
  • Chronic renal failure and dialysis
  • Gender. …
  • Race. …
  • Certain medicines.

Age: highest in people aged 90+

Sex: - 38% of kidney cancer deaths in the UK are in females, and 62% are in males

Geographical Distribution:

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31
Q

Bladder Cancer

Incidence:

Risk Factors:

Age;

Sex:

Geographical Distribution:

A

Incidence: 10th most common

Risk Factors:

  • Smoking. Smoking is the most important risk factor for bladder cancer. …
  • Workplace exposures. Certain industrial chemicals like dye industry people, painters, gas workers, hairdressers and rubber industry people
  • Certain medicines or herbal supplements. …
  • Arsenic in drinking water. …
  • Not drinking enough fluids. …
  • Race and ethnicity. …
  • Age. …
  • Gender

Age: Age-specific mortality rates rise steeply (more so in males) from around age 55-59.

Sex: White males and females more likely to get it. 32% of bladder cancer deaths in the UK are in females, and 68% are in males

Geographical Distribution:

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32
Q

How does staging work with cancer?

A
  • Tumor (T): How large is the primary tumor? Where is it located? TX, T0, T1-4
  • Node (N): Has the tumor spread to the lymph nodes? If so, where and how many? NX, N0-3
  • Metastasis (M): Has the cancer spread to other parts of the body? If so, where and how much? M0,M1
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33
Q

Prostrate Cancer

Incidence:

Common Presentations:

Risk Factors:

A

Incidence: in 8 men will be diagnosed with prostate cancer in their lifetime

Common Presentations:

  • A painful or burning sensation during urination or ejaculation.
  • Frequent urination, particularly at night.
  • Difficulty stopping or starting urination.
  • Sudden erectile dysfunction.
  • Blood in urine or semen.

Risk Factors:

  • Old Age
  • Obesity
  • Race
  • North American or northern European location. …
  • Family history. …
  • Hereditary breast and ovarian cancer (HBOC) syndrome. …
  • Other genetic changes. …
  • Agent Orange exposure. …
  • Eating habits (high fat low fibre)
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34
Q

What is the importance of Prostate specific antigen PSA?

A

The PSA test is a blood test used primarily to screen for prostate cancer. The test measures the amount of prostate-specific antigen (PSA) in your blood. PSA is a protein produced by both cancerous and noncancerous tissue in the prostate, a small gland that sits below the bladder in men

When you have prostrate cancer there is an elevation of PSA.

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35
Q

What genes are linked to prostrate cancer?

A

Mutations in two genes

Genes BRCA1 on chromosome 17 and BRCA2 on chromosome 13

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36
Q

Prostrate Cancer

Common sites of metastases?

A

If metastatic, it commonly spread to the bones like vertebrae or pelvis resulting in hip or lower back pain.

37
Q

Investigations of prostrate cancer?

A

Prostrate cancer is detected by a rectal examination. Tumour would feel like a hard lump. Sometimes the tumour can be out of reach.

Transrectal ultrasound or MRI to imagine the prostrate

Diagnosis of prostate cancer requires a biopsy

The cells in the biopsy will be scored using the Gleason grading system.

38
Q

What is the gleason scale?

A

The Gleason scale identifies the two most common cell patterns within the prostate tissue and assigns a score between one and five to both. A score of 1 represents normal, and a score of 5 represents highly abnormal cells that barely resemble the normal prostate tissue. Primary and secondary patterns are both numbered and added together resulting in a score between 2-10

39
Q

What are the layers of the scrotum?

A
40
Q

What is hydrocele?

A

type of swelling in the scrotum that occurs when fluid collects in the thin sheath surrounding a testicle. Hydrocele is common in newborns and usually disappears without treatment by age 1. Older boys and adult men can develop a hydrocele due to inflammation or injury within the scrotum.

41
Q

What is varicocele?

A

) is an enlargement of the veins within the loose bag of skin that holds your testicles (scrotum). A varicocele is similar to a varicose vein you might see in your leg. Varicoceles are a common cause of low sperm production and decreased sperm quality, which can cause infertility

42
Q

What is epidydimal cyst?

A

An epididymal cyst is a non-cancerous (benign) growth filled with clear liquid which is found at the top end of the testis (testicle) where the spermatic cord (vas deferens) is attached. This area is known as the epididymis. Men are most likely to develop these cysts around the age of 40

43
Q

Tumour of testies?

A

Although testicular cancer can be derived from any cell type found in the testicles, more than 95% of testicular cancers are germ cell tumors (GCTs). Most of the remaining 5% are sex cord–gonadal stromal tumours derived from Leydig cells or Sertoli cells.

44
Q

Testicular Cancer

Incidence:

Age:

Risk Factors:

A

Incidence: Around 2,300 men are diagnosed with testicular cancer each year in the UK. about 1 of every 250 males will develop testicular cancer at some point during their lifetime.

Age: The average age at the time of diagnosis of testicular cancer is about 33.

Risk Factors:

  • An undescended testicle.
  • Family history of testicular cancer.
  • HIV infection.
  • Carcinoma in situ of the testicle.
  • Having had testicular cancer before.
  • Being of a certain race/ethnicity.
  • Body size.
45
Q

Types of testicular cancer?

A

The most common type of testicular cancer is germ cell testicular cancer, which accounts for around 95% of all cases. Germ cells are a type of cell that the body uses to create sperm.

There are 2 main subtypes of germ cell testicular cancer. They are:

  • seminomas – which have become more common in the past 20 years and now account for 40 to 45% of testicular cancers. Slow growing and usually does not metastasize
  • non-seminomas – which account for most of the rest and include teratomas, embryonal carcinomas, choriocarcinomas and yolk sac tumours. It is more aggressive and more resistant to radiation therapy.

Less common types of testicular cancer include:

  • Leydig cell tumours – which account for around 1 to 3% of cases
  • Sertoli cell tumours – which account for less than 1% of casesSertoli cell tumours – which account for less than 1% of cases
46
Q

Tumour markers that may be used to detect testicular cancer include:

A
  • alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
  • lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
  • human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG).
47
Q

What is the difference between physiological and pathological phimosis?

A

Phimosis is a condition in which the prepuce cannot be retracted over the glans penis. True pathologic phimosis exists when failure to retract is secondary to distal scarring of the prepuce. … In contrast, physiologic phimosis consists of a pliant, unscarred preputial orifice.

48
Q

UTI

What is a complicated and uncomplicated UTI?

A

Uncomplicated UTI – infection in a healthy, non-pregnant, pre-menopausal female patient with anatomically and functionally normal urinary tract. A complicated UTI is an infection associated with a condition, such as structural or functional abnormalities of the genitourinary tract or the presence of an underlying disease, which increases the risks of acquiring an infection or of failing therapy.

49
Q

UTI

Upper vs Lower UTI?

A

Your urinary tract is made up of your kidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethra. Most UTIs only involve the urethra and bladder, in the lower tract. However, UTIs can involve the ureters and kidneys, in the upper tract. Although upper tract UTIs are more rare than lower tract UTIs, they’re also usually more severe.

50
Q

What is sterile pyuria?

A

Sterile pyuria can be broadly defined as the presence of leucocytes in the urine in the absence of demonstrable urinary tract infection.

51
Q

What is Asymptomatic Bacteriuria?

A

Asymptomatic bacteriuria is a condition in which larger than normal numbers of bacteria are present in the urine but symptoms do not result. (See also Overview of Urinary Tract Infections

52
Q

Pathogenesis of UTI

A

Bacteria enter the urethra and colonise the bladder.

  1. Contamination- bacteria contaminates the lower urinary tract. (E.coli)
  2. Colonisation of urethra and bladder
  3. Inflammatory response- triggered in the lower urinary tract
  4. Neutrophils recruited in this area.
  5. Bacteria multiply and evade immune system- this is because there are certain verlan factors. So E. coli can hide from immune cells. Eventually the bacteria produces biofilms (where the microorganisms stick together and adhere to surfaces)
  6. Ascension to the kidneys
  7. Colonisation of kidney
  8. Bacteraemia- bacteria spreading to the circulation via renal vein causing things like sepic shock.
53
Q

What are the common bacterias that cause UTI?

A

mainly E. coli but other include enterobacteria, proteus mirabilis and klebsiella

54
Q

Bacteria usually causes a lower UTI. This can be either:

A

cystitis (inflammation due to infection of bladder) or prostatitis (infection of prostrate) or urethritis (infection of urethra).

55
Q

What are the most commonly used antibiotics to treat UTI?

A
  • Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Septra, others)- Usually used for uncomplicated lower UTI. Not safe in pregnancy
  • Fosfomycin (Monurol)
  • Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin, Macrobid)- only for uncomplicated lower UTIs
  • Cephalexin (Keflex)
  • Ceftriaxone
  • Amoxicillin
56
Q

What are the common types fo Kidney stones?

A

Calcium stones, the most common type of stone 75-80%. Struvite stones, usually caused by an infection, like a urine infection15%. Uric acid stones, usually caused by a large amount of acid in your urine 5% and Cysteine stones (1%)

57
Q

What is renal dysplasia?

A
  • means that a kidney does not fully develop in the womb. The affected kidney does not have normal function – which means that it does not work as well as a normal kidney. It is usually smaller than usual, and may have some cysts, which are like sacs filled with liquid
58
Q

What is the renal agenesis?

A

is the name given to a condition that is present at birth that is an absence of one or both kidneys. The kidneys develop between the 5th and 12th week of foetal life, and by the 13th week they are normally producing urine

59
Q

What is Renal Ectopia?

A

Ectopic kidney (or “renal ectopia”) describes a kidney that isn’t located in its usual position

60
Q

What is the horeshoe kidney?

A

Horseshoe kidney is when the 2 kidneys join (fuse) together at the bottom. They form a U shape like a horseshoe. It is also known as renal fusion

61
Q

What is complete/partial duplex kidneys?

A

Children with a duplex kidney (also called a duplicated collecting system) have two ureters coming from a single kidney. These two ureters can drain independently into the bladder or connect and drain as a single ureter into the bladder. Duplex kidneys can occur in one or both kidneys.

62
Q

What is Polycystic kidney disease (PKD)?

A

is an inherited disorder in which clusters of cysts develop primarily within your kidneys, causing your kidneys to enlarge and lose function over time. Cysts are noncancerous round sacs containing fluid.

63
Q

How is PKD inherited?

A

Autosomal Dominant ADPKD causes cysts to form only in the kidneys and symptoms of the disease may not appear until a person is between 30 and 50 years old. Autosomal recessive PKD (ARPKD) is a much less common form of PKD. ARPKD causes cysts to form in both the kidneys and the liver

64
Q

What nerves are involved in micturition?

A

1st nerve- pelvic nerve

2nd nerve- pudendal nerve

3rd nerve- hypogastric nerve

65
Q

What is flow rates?

A

A flow rate test is a test to measure the rate at which you pass urine and the amount you pass. It is carried out to assess the changes you have experienced in your usual flow of urine. After your flow rate test, you may also need to have an ultrasound scan of your bladder (bladder scan),

• 3 types of machine • mass • rotating disc • capacitance

66
Q

What information does flow rates provide?

A

Voiding time (Vt) Maximum flow rate (Qmax) Average flow rate (Qra) Voided volume (Vv) Pattern of voiding curve Accompanied by a Post-micturition residual volume (PMRV) measurement

67
Q

What is urodynamic study?

A

A urodynamic study is a special test which measures the pressure within your bladder and urethra (waterpipe). This is performed as an outpatient procedure in the Urology department by either a doctor or a specialist nurse

68
Q

What is Hypospadias?

A

Hypospadias (pronounced hype-oh-spay-dee-us) is a birth defect in boys where the opening of the urethra (the tube that carries urine from the bladder to the outside of the body) is not located at the tip of the penis

69
Q

What is Epispadias?

A

Epispadias is a rare defect that is present at birth. In this condition, the urethra does not develop into a full tube. The urethra is the tube that carries urine out of the body from the bladder.

70
Q

What is congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

A

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) refers to a group of genetic disorders that affect the adrenal glands, a pair of walnut-sized organs above the kidneys. The adrenal glands produce important hormones, including: Cortisol, which regulates the body’s response to illness or stress

71
Q

What is imperforate hymen?

A

Imperforate hymen is when the hymen covers the whole opening of the vagina. Imperforate hymen is the most common type of blockage of the vagina.

72
Q

What is Transverse vaginal septum?

A

A transverse vaginal septum is a horizontal “wall” of tissue that has formed during embryologic development and essentially creates a blockage of the vagina. A transverse vaginal septum can occur at many different levels of the vagina.

73
Q

What Longitudinal vaginal septum?

A

A longitudinal vaginal septum (LVS) is sometimes called a double vagina because it creates two vaginal cavities separated by a vertical wall of tissue. One vaginal opening may be smaller than the other. During development, the vagina begins as two canals.

74
Q

What are the common hormonal and chemical abnormalities associated with PCOS?

A

Women with PCOS often have high levels of LH secretion. High levels of LH contribute to the high levels of androgens (male hormones such as testosterone), and this along with low levels of FSH contributes to poor egg development and an inability to ovulate.

Women with PCOS may have increased oestrogen level

75
Q

Symptoms of PCOS

A
  • irregular periods or no periods at all.
  • difficulty getting pregnant as a result of irregular ovulation or failure to ovulate.
  • excessive hair growth (hirsutism) – usually on the face, chest, back or buttocks.
  • weight gain.
  • thinning hair and hair loss from the head.
  • oily skin or acne.
76
Q

How do diagnose PCOS?

A

No single test exists to diagnose PCOS. Instead, doctors must rely on symptoms, blood tests, a physical exam, and sometimes a pelvic ultrasound to determine whether you have polycystic ovary syndrome – rather than another condition that can trigger similar signs and symptoms

77
Q

________ encourages the monthly release of an egg from the ovaries (ovulation).

A

Clomifene encourages the monthly release of an egg from the ovaries (ovulation).

78
Q

Define normal menopause?

A

The menopause is when a woman stops having periods (for 12 months) and is no longer able to get pregnant naturally. Periods usually start to become less frequent over a few months or years before they stop altogether. Sometimes they can stop suddenly. It happens when your ovaries stop producing as much of the hormone oestrogen and no longer release an egg each month.

79
Q

Hormonal changes during menopause?

A

Oestrogen- During perimenopause, levels fluctuate and become unpredictable. Eventually, production falls to a very low level.

Progesterone- Production stops during menstrual cycles when there is no ovulation and after final menstrual period

Testosterone- Levels peak in a woman’s 20s and decline slowly thereafter. By menopause, level is at half of its peak. Ovaries continue to make testosterone even after oestrogen production stops. Testosterone production from adrenal glands also declines with aging
but continues after menopause

Gonadotropin secretion increases dramatically after menopause. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels are higher than luteinizing hormone (LH) levels, and both rise to even higher values than those seen in the surge during the menstrual cycle. The FSH rise precedes the LH rise

80
Q

Define premature menopause

A

Premature or early menopause can occur at any age, and in many cases there’s no clear cause. Sometimes it’s caused by a treatment such as surgery to remove the ovaries (oophorectomy), some breast cancer treatments, chemotherapy or radiotherapy, or it can be brought on by an underlying condition, such as Down’s syndrome or Addison’s disease

81
Q

What is premature ovarian failure?

A

Primary ovarian insufficiency (POI), also known as premature ovarian failure, happens when a woman’s ovaries stop working normally before she is 40. Many women naturally experience reduced fertility when they are about 40 years old.

82
Q

Common causes of premature ovarian failure (POF)

A
  • Genetic disorders such as Fragile X syndrome and Turner syndrome.
  • A low number of follicles.
  • Autoimmune diseases, including thyroiditis and Addison disease.
  • Chemotherapy or radiation therapy.
  • Metabolic disorders.
  • Toxins, such as cigarette smoke, chemicals, and pesticides.
83
Q

How do you diagnose premature ovarian failure?

A

Diagnosis usually involves a physical exam, including a pelvic exam. Your doctor might ask questions about your menstrual cycle, exposure to toxins, such as chemotherapy or radiation therapy, and previous ovarian surgery.

84
Q

Describe hormonal chnages lead to long term complications of POF

A

The long-term health risks of POI are infertility, osteoporosis, cardiovascular and neurologic diseases, and an increased risk of premature death. Women with the diagnosis of POI also present psychological problems including irritability, forgetfulness, insomnia and poor concentration

85
Q

What is HRT and what types are there?

A

Hormone replacement therapy (HRT)-

  • combined HRT (oestrogen and progestogen) – for women with menopausal symptoms who still have their womb (oestrogen taken on its own can otherwise increase your risk of womb cancer)
  • oestrogen-only HRT – for women who have had their womb removed in a hysterectomy
86
Q

WHat is cervical ectropion?

A

cervical ectopy, is when the soft cells (glandular cells) that line the inside of the cervical canal spread to the outer surface of your cervix. The outside of your cervix normally has hard cells (epithelial cells)

Individuals who have already had menopause rarely get cervical ectropion. Taking the contraceptive pill: Taking birth control pills affects hormone levels and may cause cervical ectropion.

87
Q

What is endometrial atrophy?

A

After menopause, the endometrium may become too thin as a result of low estrogen levels. This condition is called endometrial atrophy. As the lining thins, you may have abnormal bleeding.

88
Q

What is endometrail hyperplasia?

A

In this condition, the lining of the uterus thickens.

89
Q
A

Year 2 (33 decks)

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