Orthopaedics Flashcards

1
Q

What is baker’s cysts?

A

Baker’s cysts are also called popliteal cysts. A Baker’s cyst is a fluid-filled sac in the popliteal fossa, causing a lump.

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2
Q

The popliteal fossa is the diamond-shaped hollow area formed by the:

A

Semimembranosus and semitendinosus tendons (superior and medial)

Biceps femoris tendon (superior and lateral)

Medial head of the gastrocnemius (inferior and medial)

Lateral head of the gastrocnemius (inferior and lateral)

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3
Q

Baker’s cysts are usually secondary to __________ _______ in the knee joint.

A

Baker’s cysts are usually secondary to degenerative changes in the knee joint.

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4
Q

What is bakers cysts associated with?

A
  • Meniscal tears (an important underlying cause)
  • Osteoarthritis
  • Knee injuries
  • Inflammatory arthritis (e.g., rheumatoid arthritis)
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5
Q

________ ______ is squeezed out of the knee joint and collects in the popliteal fossa. A connection between the synovial fluid in the joint and ____ ________ ____ can remain, allowing the cyst to continue enlarging as more fluid collects there.

Baker’s cysts are contained within the ____ tissues. They do not have their own epithelial lining.

A

Synovial fluid is squeezed out of the knee joint and collects in the popliteal fossa. A connection between the synovial fluid in the joint and the Baker’s cyst can remain, allowing the cyst to continue enlarging as more fluid collects there.

Baker’s cysts are contained within the soft tissues. They do not have their own epithelial lining.

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6
Q

Presentation of baker’s Cysts

A

Patients may present with symptoms localised to the popliteal fossa:

  • Pain or discomfort
  • Fullness
  • Pressure
  • A palpable lump or swelling
  • Restricted range of motion in the knee (with larger cysts)
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7
Q

What is Foucher’s sign?

A

On examination, the lump will be most apparent when the patient stands with their knees fully extended. The lump will get smaller or disappear when the knee is flexed to 45 degrees (Foucher’s sign).

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8
Q

Differential of baker’s cyst?

A
  • DVT- most important
  • Abscess
  • Popliteal artery aneurysm
  • Ganglion cyst
  • Lipoma
  • Varicose veins
  • Tumour
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9
Q

Ix for baker’s cyst?

A

Ultrasound is usually the first-line investigation to confirm the diagnosis. It is also used to rule out a DVT.

MRI can evaluate the cyst further if required, for example, before surgery. They can also demonstrate underlying knee pathology, such as meniscal tears.

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10
Q

Mx for baker’s cyst?

A

No treatment is required for asymptomatic Baker’s cysts.

Non-surgical management for symptomatic Baker’s cysts include:

  • Modified activity to avoid exacerbating symptoms
  • Analgesia (e.g., NSAIDs)
  • Physiotherapy
  • Ultrasound-guided aspiration
  • Steroid injections

Surgical management typically involves arthroscopic procedures to treat underlying knee pathology contributing to the cyst, such as degenerative changes or meniscal tears. Resection of the cyst is difficult, and the cyst is likely to recur, particularly when another knee pathology is present.

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11
Q

What is another word for back pain?

A

Lumbago

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12
Q

Causes of Mechanical Back Pain

A
  • Muscle or ligament sprain
  • Facet joint dysfunction
  • Sacroiliac joint dysfunction
  • Herniated disc
  • Spondylolisthesis (anterior displacement of a vertebra out of line with the one below)
  • Scoliosis (curved spine)
  • Degenerative changes (arthritis) affecting the discs and facet joints
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13
Q

Causes of Neck Pain

A

The causes of neck pain include:

  • Muscle or ligament strain (e.g., poor posture or repetitive activities)
  • Torticollis (waking up with a unilaterally stiff and painful neck due to muscle spasm)
  • Whiplash (typically after a road traffic accident)
  • Cervical spondylosis (degenerative changes to the vertebrae)
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14
Q

Red-Flag Causes of Back Pain

A

It is essential to look out for features that may indicate underlying:

  • Spinal fracture (e.g., major trauma)
  • Cauda equina (e.g., saddle anaesthesia, urinary retention, incontinence or bilateral neurological signs)
  • Spinal stenosis (e.g., intermittent neurogenic claudication)
  • Ankylosing spondylitis (e.g., age under 40, gradual onset, morning stiffness or night-time pain)
  • Spinal infection (e.g., fever or a history of IV drug use)
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15
Q

Other Causes of Back Pain

A
  • Pneumonia
  • Ruptured aortic aneurysms
  • Kidney stones
  • Pyelonephritis
  • Pancreatitis
  • Prostatitis
  • Pelvic inflammatory disease
  • Endometriosis
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16
Q

The spinal nerves ___ _____ come together to form the sciatic nerve.

A

The spinal nerves L4 – S3 come together to form the sciatic nerve.

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17
Q

The sciatic nerve exits the _______ part of the pelvis through the _____ ________ _________, in the buttock area on either side. It travels down the back of the leg. At the knee, it divides into the _____ ____ and the_______ ______ _____

A

The sciatic nerve exits the posterior part of the pelvis through the greater sciatic foramen, in the buttock area on either side. It travels down the back of the leg. At the knee, it divides into the tibial nerve and the common peroneal nerve.

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18
Q

is sciatica pain radiating from the bum to the leg unilateral or bilateral

A

unilateral

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19
Q

The main causes of sciatica are lumbosacral nerve root compression by:

A
  • Herniated disc
  • Spondylolisthesis (anterior displacement of a vertebra out of line with the one below)
  • Spinal stenosis
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20
Q

Bilateral sciatica is a red flag for ______ ________ _______

A

Bilateral sciatica is a red flag for cauda equina syndrome

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21
Q

Sciatica symptoms suggesting spinal fracture or anklyosing spondylitis

A
  • Major trauma (spinal fracture)
  • Stiffness in the morning or with rest (ankylosing spondylitis)
  • Age under 40 (ankylosing spondylitis)
  • Gradual onset of progressive pain (ankylosing spondylitis or cancer)
  • Night pain (ankylosing spondylitis or cancer)
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22
Q

Sciatica examination findings

A
  • Localised tenderness to the spine (spinal fracture or cancer)
  • Bilateral neurological motor or sensory signs (cauda equina)
  • Bladder distention implying urinary retention (cauda equina)
  • Reduced anal tone on PR examination (cauda equina)
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23
Q

What is sciatic stretch test?

A

The sciatic stretch test can be used to help diagnose sciatica. The patient lies on their back with their leg straight. The examiner lifts one leg from the ankle with the knee extended until the limit of hip flexion is reached (usually around 80-90 degrees). Then the examiner dorsiflexes the patient’s ankle. Sciatica-type pain in the buttock/posterior thigh indicates sciatic nerve root irritation. Symptoms improve with flexing the knee.

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24
Q

It is worth remembering the main cancers that metastasise to the bones. A history of these in an exam patient presenting with back pain should make you think of possible cauda equina or spinal metastases. You can remember them with the PoRTaBLe mnemonic:

Po –

R –

Ta –

B –

Le –

A

Po – Prostate

R – Renal

Ta – Thyroid

B – Breast

Le – Lung

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25
Q

Ix for sciatica

A

Generally, patients with mechanical/non-specific lower back pain can be diagnosed clinically and do not require further investigations.

X-rays or CT scans can be used to diagnose spinal fractures.

An emergency MRI scan is required in patients with suspected cauda equina (within hours of the presentation).

Investigations for suspected ankylosing spondylitis are:

  • Inflammatory markers (CRP and ESR)
  • X-ray of the spinal and sacrum (may show a fused “bamboo spine” in later-stage disease)
  • MRI of the spine (may show bone marrow oedema early in the disease)
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26
Q

What is STarT Back Screening Tool

A
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27
Q

Managing Acute Lower Back Pain?

A

exclude serious underlying causes like cauda equina, ankylosing spondyltis, spinal injury

Patients at low risk of chronic back pain can generally be managed with:

  • Self-management
  • Education
  • Reassurance
  • Analgesia
  • Staying active and continuing to mobilise as tolerate

Additional options for patients at medium or high risk of developing chronic back pain include:

  • Physiotherapy
  • Group exercise
  • Cognitive behavioural therapy

The NICE clinical knowledge summaries advise for analgesia:

  • NSAIDs (e.g., ibuprofen or naproxen) first-line
  • Codeine as an alternative
  • Benzodiazepines (e.g., diazepam) for muscle spasm (short-term only – up to 5 days)
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28
Q

Management of Sciatica

A

The initial management of sciatica is mostly the same as acute low back pain.

The NICE clinical knowledge summaries (updated 2020) state not to use medications such as gabapentin, pregabalin, diazepam or oral corticosteroids for sciatica. They state not to use opioids for chronic sciatica.

They suggest considering a neuropathic medication if symptoms are persisting or worsening at follow up, but not gabapentin or pregabalin, leaving at the main choices of:

  • Amitriptyline
  • Duloxetine

Specialist management options for chronic sciatica include:

  • Epidural corticosteroid injections
  • Local anaesthetic injections
  • Radiofrequency denervation
  • Spinal decompression
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29
Q

What is the difference between compound, stable and pathological fracture?

A

A compound fracture is when the skin is broken and the broken bone is exposed to the air. The broken bone can puncture through the skin.

A stable fracture refers to when the sections of bone remain in alignment at the fracture.

A pathological fracture refers to when a bone breaks due to an abnormality within the bone (see below).

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30
Q

What are the terms used to describe in what way a bone breaks

A
  • Transverse
  • Oblique
  • Spiral
  • Segmental
  • Comminuted (breaking into multiple fragments)
  • Compression fractures (affecting the vertebrae in the spine)
  • Greenstick
  • Buckle (torus)
  • Salter-Harris (growth plate fracture)
    *
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31
Q

What factures occur in children

A

Greenstick and buckle fractures typically occur in children rather than adults. Salter-Harris fractures only occur in children (adults do not have growth plates)

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32
Q

What is colle’s fracture?

What deformity does it cause?

What does it usually result from?

A

A Colle’s fracture refers to a transverse fracture of the distal radius near the wrist, causing the distal portion to displace posteriorly (upwards),

causing a “dinner fork deformity”.

This is usually the result of a fall onto an outstretched hand (FOOSH).

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33
Q

WHat is scaphoid fracture

caused by?

A

A scaphoid fracture is often caused by a fall onto an outstretched hand FOOSH. A key sign of a scaphoid fracture is tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox (the groove between the tendons when extending the thumb). It is worth noting that the scaphoid has a retrograde blood supply, with blood vessels supplying the bone from only one direction. This means a fracture can cut off the blood supply, resulting in avascular necrosis and non-union.

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34
Q

Which bones fractures can lead to avascular necrosis?

A

These are the scaphoid bone,

the femoral head, the humeral head

the talus, navicular and fifth metatarsal in the foot.

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35
Q

Which classification can be used to describe lateral malleolus fracture?

A

Weber classification

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36
Q

What is lateral malleolus fracture?

A

he fracture is described in relation to the distal syndesmosis (fibrous join) between the tibia and fibula. This tibiofibular syndesmosis is very important for the stability and function of the ankle joint. If the fracture disrupts the syndesmosis, surgery is more likely to be required in order to regain good stability and function of the joint.

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37
Q

Explain the weber classification?

A

The Weber classification defines fractures of the lateral malleolus as:

  • Type A – below the ankle joint – will leave the syndesmosis intact
  • Type B – at the level of the ankle joint – the syndesmosis will be intact or partially torn
  • Type C – above the ankle joint – the syndesmosis will be disrupted
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38
Q

WHat can pelvic ring fractures lead to?

A

Pelvic fractures often lead to significant intra-abdominal bleeding, either due to vascular injury or from the cancellous bone of the pelvis.

This can lead to shock and death, so needs emergency resuscitation and trauma management.

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39
Q

What are pathological fractures?

common sites?

A

Pathological fractures occur due to an underlying disease of the bone, such as a tumour, osteoporosis or Paget’s disease of the bone. They may occur with minor trauma or even spontaneously without any history of trauma.

Common sites are the femur and the vertebral bodies.

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40
Q

The main cancers that metastasise to the bones are (mnemonic: PoRTaBLe):

Po –

R –

Ta –

B –

Le –

A

Po – Prostate

R – Renal

Ta – Thyroid

B – Breast

Le – Lung

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41
Q

WHat are Fragility fractures

A

Fragility fractures occur due to weakness in the bone, usually due to osteoporosis. They often occur without the appropriate trauma that is typically required to break a bone. For example, a patient may present with a fractured femur after a minor fal

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42
Q

Bone mineral density can be measured using a

A

DEXA scan

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43
Q

The WHO criteria for osteopenia and osteoporosis are:

T score of the Hip

A
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44
Q

What are the first-line medical treatments for reducing the risk of fragility fractures are:

A
  • Calcium and vitamin D
  • Bisphosphonates (e.g., alendronic acid)
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45
Q

Bisphosphonates work by interfering with _________ and reducing their activity, preventing the reabsorption of bone

A

Bisphosphonates work by interfering with osteoclasts and reducing their activity, preventing the reabsorption of bone

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46
Q

S/E for Bisphosphonates

A
  • Reflux and oesophageal erosions (oral bisphosphonates are taken on an empty stomach sitting upright for 30 minutes before moving or eating to prevent this)
  • Atypical fractures (e.g. atypical femoral fractures)
  • Osteonecrosis of the jaw
  • Osteonecrosis of the external auditory canal
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47
Q

What is the alternative for bisphosphonate

What is its mechanism

A

Denosumab

Denosumab is a monoclonal antibody that works by blocking the activity of osteoclasts.

It is an alternative to bisphosphonates where they are contraindicated, not tolerated or not effective.

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48
Q

What is important for X- rays in fractures?

What do you do if x rays are inconclusive

A

Two views (two x-rays taken from different angles) are always required, as a single view may miss a fraction.

CT scans give a more detailed view of the bones when the x-rays are inconclusive or further information is needed.

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49
Q

The second principle is to provide relative stability for some time to allow healing to occur. This can be done by fixing the bone in the correct position while it heals. There are various ways the bone can be fixed in position:

A
  • External casts (e.g., plaster cast)
  • K wires
  • Intramedullary wires
  • Intramedullary nails
  • Screws
  • Plate and screws
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50
Q

Management for fractures

what is closed and open reduction?

A
  • Closed reduction via manipulation of the limb
  • Open reduction via surgery
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51
Q

Example of closed reduction?

A

a Colle’s fracture in a young adult)

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52
Q

Complications of fractures?

A

Possible early complications include:

  • Damage to local structures (e.g., tendons, muscles, arteries, nerves, skin and lung)
  • Haemorrhage leading to shock and potentially death
  • Compartment syndrome
  • Fat embolism (see below)
  • Venous thromboembolism (DVTs and PEs) due to immobility

Possible longer-term complications include:

  • Delayed union (slow healing)
  • Malunion (misaligned healing)
  • Non-union (failure to heal)
  • Avascular necrosis (death of the bone)
  • Infection (osteomyelitis)
  • Joint instability
  • Joint stiffness
  • Contractures (tightening of the soft tissues)
  • Arthritis
  • Chronic pain
  • Complex regional pain syndrome
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53
Q

Fat embolism can occur following the fracture of ____ bones (e.g., ______)

A

Fat embolism can occur following the fracture of long bones (e.g., femur)

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54
Q

Fat emoblism criteria related to fractures?

A

Gurd’s major criteria:

  • Respiratory distress
  • Petechial rash
  • Cerebral involvement

There is a long list of Gurd’s minor criteria, including:

  • Jaundice
  • Thrombocytopenia
  • Fever
  • Tachycardia
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55
Q

Fat embolisation can cause a systemic inflammatory response, resulting in ____ ________ ________

A

Fat embolisation can cause a systemic inflammatory response, resulting in fat embolism syndrome

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56
Q

What are major risk factors for hip fractures?

Who are more affected?

A

Increasing age and osteoporosis are major risk factors for hip fractures.

Females are affected more often than males.

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57
Q

Hip fractures can be categorised into:

A
  • Intra-capsular fractures
  • Extra-capsular fractures
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58
Q

There are some basic structures of the top of the femur:

A
  • Head
  • Neck
  • Greater trochanter (lateral)
  • Lesser trochanter (medial)
  • Intertrochanteric line
  • Shaft (body)
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59
Q

The capsule of the hip joint is a strong fibrous structure. It attaches to the rim of the _________ on the pelvis and the __________ _____on the femur. It surrounds the _____ and ____ of the femur.

A

The capsule of the hip joint is a strong fibrous structure. It attaches to the rim of the acetabulum on the pelvis and the intertrochanteric line on the femur. It surrounds the neck and head of the femur.

60
Q

Explain blood supply to femoral head?

A

The head of the femur has a retrograde blood supply. The medial and lateral circumflex femoral arteries join the femoral neck just proximal to the intertrochanteric line. Branches of this artery run along the surface of the femoral neck, within the capsule, towards the femoral head. They provide the only blood supply to the femoral head. A fracture of the intra-capsular neck of the femur can damage these blood vessels, removing the blood supply to the femoral head, leading to avascular necrosis.

61
Q
A
62
Q

What is Intra-Capsular Fractures

A

Intra-capsular fractures involve a break in the femoral neck, within the capsule of the hip joint. This affects the area proximal to the intertrochanteric line.

63
Q

The________ _________ is used for intra-capsular neck of femur fractures:

Explain it

A

The Garden classification is used for intra-capsular neck of femur fractures:

  • Grade I – incomplete fracture and non-displaced
  • Grade II – complete fracture and non-displaced
  • Grade III – partial displacement (trabeculae are at an angle)
  • Grade IV – full displacement (trabeculae are parallel)
    *
64
Q

What is the difference between Non-displaced intra-capsular fractures and Displaced intra-capsular fractures

A

Non-displaced intra-capsular fractures may have an intact blood supply to the femoral head, meaning it may be possible to preserve the femoral health without avascular necrosis occurring. They can be treated with internal fixation (e.g., with screws) to hold the femoral head in place while the fracture heals.

Displaced intra-capsular fractures (grade III and IV) disrupt the blood supply to the head of the femur. Therefore, the head of the femur needs to be removed and replaced.

65
Q

What is Hemiarthroplasty?

A

Hemiarthroplasty involves replacing the head of the femur but leaving the acetabulum (socket) in place. Cement is used to hold the stem of the prosthesis in the shaft of the femur. This is generally offered to patients who have limited mobility or significant co-morbidities.

66
Q

What is total hp replacement?

A

Total hip replacement involves replacing both the head of the femur and the socket. This is generally offered to patients who can walk independently and are fit for surgery.

67
Q

Examples of extra capsular fractures?

A

Intertrochanteric fractures

Subtrochanteric fractures

68
Q

Difference between intertrochanteric fractures and subtrochanteric fractures?

A

Intertrochanteric fractures occur between the greater and lesser trochanter. These are treated with a dynamic hip screw (AKA sliding hip screw)

Subtrochanteric fractures occur distal to the lesser trochanter (although within 5cm). The fracture occurs to the proximal shaft of the femur.

69
Q

Presentation of hp fractures?

A

The typical scenario is an older patient (over 60) who has fallen, presenting with:

  • Pain in the groin or hip, which may radiate to the knee
  • Not able to weight bear
  • Shortened, abducted and externally rotated leg
70
Q

An essential part of assessing patients with a new hip fracture is to determine any other acute illnesses. There is often a good reason for them to fall and break a hip. They may also be suffering with:

A
  • Anaemia
  • Electrolyte imbalances
  • Arrhythmias
  • Heart failure
  • Myocardial infarction
  • Stroke
  • Urinary or chest infection
71
Q

Hip Fractures

Imaging

A

X-rays - Two views are essential, as a single view can miss the fracture. Anterior-to-posterior (AP) and lateral views are standard.

MRI or CT scanning may be used where the x-ray is negative, but a fracture is still suspected.

72
Q

Management for hp fractures?

A

On admission, patients will have:

  • Appropriate analgesia
  • Investigations to establish the diagnosis (e.g., x-rays)
  • Venous thromboembolism risk assessment and prophylaxis (e.g., low molecular weight heparin)
  • Pre-operative assessment (including bloods and an ECG) to ensure they are fit and optimised for surgery
  • Orthogeriatrics input
73
Q
A
74
Q

What is cauda equina?

A

Is a condition caused by damage to the bundle of peripheral nerves protruding from the bottom of the Spinal cord

It is similar to sciatica but the herniation is usually larger and more nerves are compressed including those that control the bladder and reproductive organs

75
Q

causes of cauda equina?

A
  • Herniated disc (the most common cause)
  • Tumours, particularly metastasis
  • Spondylolisthesis (anterior displacement of a vertebra out of line with the one below)
  • Abscess (infection)
  • Trauma
76
Q

Symptoms of Cauda Equina (BIG RED FLAGS)

A

Loss of sensation in the bladder and rectum (not knowing when they are full)

Urinary retention or incontinence

Faecal incontinence

Decrease in sexual function

Saddle anesthesia (reduced sensation/pins-and-needles in the perianal area)

Bilateral or severe motor weakness in the legs

Reduced anal tone on PR examination

Sciatica (mostly bilateral)

77
Q

Diagnosis of CE?

A

MRI or CT (preferably MRI?)

78
Q

treatment for cauda equina?

A

Bilateral or severe motor weakness in the legs

Reduced anal tone on PR examination

79
Q

The nerves of the cauda equina supply:

A
  • Sensation to the perineum, bladder and rectum
  • Motor innervation to the lower limbs and the anal and urethral sphincters
  • Parasympathetic innervation of the bladder and rectum
80
Q

Metastatic Spinal Cord Compression

A

When a metastatic lesion compresses the spinal cord (before the end of the spinal cord and the start of the cauda equina), this is called metastatic spinal cord compression (MSCC). This is different to cauda equina, which specifically refers to compression of the cauda equina.

MSCC is an oncological emergency and requires rapid imaging and management. There are specialist MSCC coordinators who should be involved early to coordinate the imaging and treatment of patients with MSCC.

81
Q
A
82
Q

WHat is Spinal Stenosis

A

Spinal stenosis refers to the narrowing of part of the spinal canal, resulting in compression of the spinal cord or nerve roots. This usually affects the cervical or lumbar spine. This section focuses on lumbar spinal stenosis, which is the most common type.

83
Q

Spinal stenosis is more likely to occur in patients ______ ______ _____ ___ relating to degenerative changes in the spine.

A

Spinal stenosis is more likely to occur in patients older than 60 years, relating to degenerative changes in the spine.

84
Q

What are the different types of spinal stenosis and explain them?

A
  • Central stenosis – narrowing of the central spinal canal
  • Lateral stenosis – narrowing of the nerve root canals
  • Foramina stenosis – narrowing of the intervertebral foramina
85
Q

Causes of spinal stenosis?

A
  • Congenital spinal stenosis
  • Degenerative changes, including facet joint changes, disc disease and bone spurs
  • Herniated discs
  • Thickening of the ligamenta flava or posterior longitudinal ligament
  • Spinal fractures
  • Spondylolisthesis (anterior displacement of a vertebra out of line with the one below)
  • Tumours
86
Q

Presentation of spinal stenosis?

A

Intermittent neurogenic claudication is a key presenting feature of lumbar spinal stenosis with central stenosis. It is sometimes referred to as pseudoclaudication. Typical symptoms are:

  • Lower back pain
  • Buttock and leg pain
  • Leg weakness
87
Q

Lateral stenosis and ________ stenosis in the lumbar spine tends to cause symptoms of ______

A

Lateral stenosis and foramina stenosis in the lumbar spine tends to cause symptoms of sciatica.

88
Q

What does radiculopathy mean?

A

The term radiculopathy refers to compression of the nerve roots as they exit the spinal cord and spinal column, leading to motor and sensory symptoms.

89
Q

How do you differentiate between spinal stenosis and peripheral arterial disease when they present with intermittent neurogenic claudication

A

The exam question might specify that the peripheral pulses or the ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) are normal, in which case the diagnosis is more likely to be spinal stenosis. Additionally, patients with spinal stenosis are more likely to struggle with back pain, whereas back pain is not a feature of peripheral arterial disease.

90
Q

Ix for spinal stenosis?

A

MRI is the primary imaging investigation for diagnosing spinal stenosis.

Investigations to exclude peripheral arterial disease (e.g., ankle-brachial pressure index and CT angiogram) may be appropriate where symptoms of intermittent claudication are present.

91
Q

Mx for spinal stenosis?

A
  • Exercise and weight loss (if appropriate)
  • Analgesia
  • Physiotherapy
  • Decompression surgery where conservative treatment fails (with variable results)
92
Q

What is Laminectomy

A

Laminectomy refers to the removal of part or all of the lamina from the affected vertebra. The laminae are the bony parts that form the posterior part of the vertebral foramen (forming the spinal canal) and attaches to the spinous process.

93
Q

What is OSteomyelitis?

A

Osteomyelitis refers to inflammation in a bone and bone marrow, usually caused by bacterial infection.

94
Q

What is Haematogenous osteomyelitis

A

Haematogenous osteomyelitis refers to when a pathogen is carried through the blood and seeded in the bone. This is the most common mode of infection. Alternatively, osteomyelitis can occur due to direct contamination of the bone, for example, at a fracture site or during an orthopaedic operation.

95
Q

Which organism is the most common cause of osteomyelitis?

A

Staphylococcus aureus causes most cases of osteomyelitis.

96
Q

RF for osteomyelitis

A

The key risk factors for developing osteomyelitis are:

  • Open fractures
  • Orthopaedic operations, particularly with prosthetic joints
  • Diabetes, particularly with diabetic foot ulcers
  • Peripheral arterial disease
  • IV drug use
  • Immunosuppression
97
Q

Presentation of osteomyelitis?

A

The typical presentation of osteomyelitis is with:

  • Fever
  • Pain and tenderness
  • Erythema
  • Swelling
98
Q

Osteomyelitis Ix

A

X-rays often do not show any changes, particularly in early disease. They cannot be used to exclude osteomyelitis. The potential signs of osteomyelitis on an x-ray are:

  • Periosteal reaction (changes to the surface of the bone)
  • Localised osteopenia (thinning of the bone)
  • Destruction of areas of the bone

MRI scans are the best imaging investigation for establishing a diagnosis.

Blood tests will show raised inflammatory markers (e.g., WBC, CRP and ESR).

Blood cultures may be positive for the causative organism.

Bone cultures can be performed to establish the causative organism and the antibiotic sensitivities.

99
Q

Management for osteomyelitis

A

Management involves a combination of:

  • Surgical debridement of the infected bone and tissues
  • Antibiotic therapy

Prolonged courses of antibiotics are required to treat osteomyelitis. The BNF page on osteomyelitis recommends for acute osteomyelitis:

  • 6 weeks of flucloxacillin, possibly with rifampicin or fusidic acid added for the first 2 weeks

Alternatives to flucloxacillin are:

  • Clindamycin in penicillin allergy
  • Vancomycin or teicoplanin when treating MRSA
100
Q

What is compartment syndrome?

A

Compartment syndrome is where the pressure within a fascial compartment is abnormally elevated, cutting off the blood flow to the contents of that compartment.

101
Q

What are fascial compartments?

A

Fascial compartments involve muscles, nerves and blood vessels surrounded by fascia. Fascia is a sheet of strong, fibrous connective tissue that encases the contents of the compartment. It is not able to stretch or expand.

102
Q

Is acute compartment syndrome an orthopaedic emergency?

A

Yes

103
Q

Acute compartment syndrome presents with the 5 P’s:

What are they?

A

P – Pain “disproportionate” to the underlying injury, worsened by passive stretching of the muscles

P – Paresthesia

P – Pale

P – Pressure (high)

P – Paralysis (a late and worrying feature)

104
Q

Presentation of acute compartment syndrome?

A

Bone fractures

Crush injuries

5Ps

Note that pulseless is not a feature, differentiating it from acute limb ischaemia. The pulses may remain intact depending on which compartment is affected.

105
Q

Management for acute compartment syndrome?

A

Needle manometry

Emergency fasciotomy

106
Q

What is carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by compression of the medial nerve as it travels through the carpal tunnel in the wrist, causing pain and numbness in the median nerve distribution on the hand.

107
Q

flexor retinaculum is also known as

A

transverse carpal ligament

108
Q

Compression of the contents of the carpal tunnel (causing carpal tunnel syndrome) is the result of either:

A
  • Swelling of the contents (e.g., swelling of the tendon sheaths due to repetitive strain)
  • Narrowing of the tunnel
109
Q

The palmar digital cutaneous branch of the median nerve (which passes through the carpal tunnel) is responsible for sensory innervation of the palmar aspects and full fingertips of the:

A
  • Thumb
  • Index and middle finger
  • The lateral half of ring finger
110
Q

The median nerve also supplies the motor function to the three thenar muscles.

Which muscles are affected?

A
  • Abductor pollicis brevis (thumb abduction)
  • Opponens pollicis (thumb opposition – reaching across the palm to touch the tips of the fingers)
  • Flexor pollicis brevis (thumb flexion)
111
Q

Risk Factors for carpal tunnel?

A
  • Repetitive strain
  • Obesity
  • Perimenopause
  • Rheumatoid arthritis
  • Diabetes
  • Acromegaly
  • Hypothyroidism
112
Q

Presentation of carpal tunnel syndrome>

A
  • Thumb
  • Index and middle finger
  • The lateral half of ring finger

Sensory symptoms include:

  • Numbness
  • Paraesthesia (pins and needles or tingling)
  • Burning sensation
  • Pain

Motor symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome affect the thenar muscles, with:

  • Weakness of thumb movements
  • Weakness of grip strength
  • Difficulty with fine movements involving the thumb
  • Wasting of the thenar muscles (muscle atrophy)
113
Q

What tests would you do for carpal tunnel?

A

Phalen’s test

Tinnel’s test

114
Q

What is phalen’s test?

A

Phalen’s test involves fully flexing the wrist and holding it in this position. Often this is done by asking the patient to put the backs of their hands together in front of them with the wrists bent inwards at 90 degrees. The test is positive when this position triggers the sensory symptoms of carpal tunnel, with numbness and paraesthesia in the median nerve distribution.

115
Q

What is tinnel’s test?

A

Tinnel’s test involves tapping the wrist at the location where the median nerve travels through the carpal tunnel. This is in the middle, at the point where the wrist meets the hand. The test is positive when this position triggers the sensory symptoms of carpal tunnel, with numbness and paraesthesia in the median nerve distribution.

116
Q

Carpal Tunnel Questionnaire

The Kamath and Stothard carpal tunnel questionnaire (CTQ) gives a score based on the symptoms. It can be used to predict the likelihood of a diagnosis of carpal tunnel syndrome. A high score on the questionnaire may replace the need for nerve conduction studies to confirm the diagnosis.

It scores based on questions such as:

A
  • Do symptoms wake you at night?
  • Do you have trick movements (e.g., shaking the hand) to improve symptoms?
  • Is your little finger affected? (Answering yes scores negatively, making carpal tunnel syndrome less likely)
117
Q

What are nerve conduction studies?

A

Nerve conduction studies are the primary investigation for establishing the diagnosis.

A small electrical current is applied by an electrode (nerve stimulator) to the median nerve on one side of the carpal tunnel. Recording electrodes over the median nerve on the other side of the carpal tunnel record the electrical current that reaches them. This demonstrates how well signals are passing through the carpal tunnel along the median nerve.

118
Q

Management for carpal tunnel syndrome>

A

Management options for carpal tunnel syndrome are:

  • Rest and altered activities
  • Wrist splints that maintain a neutral position of the wrist can be worn at night (for a minimum of 4 weeks)
  • Steroid injections
  • Surgery

Carpal tunnel syndrome surgery is usually performed as a day case procedure under local anaesthetic. It can be performed by open (with a vertical incision at the wrist) or endoscopic (keyhole) surgery. The flexor retinaculum (AKA transverse carpal ligament) is cut to release the pressure on the median nerve.

119
Q

Frozen shoulder is also called?

A

adhesive capsulitis

120
Q

WHat is frozen shoulder?

A

Frozen shoulder is also called adhesive capsulitis. It is a relatively common cause of shoulder pain and stiffness. The loss of range of motion and function in the shoulder joint can significantly impair activities.

121
Q

Patho of frozen shoulder?

A

The glenohumeral joint is the ball and socket joint in the shoulder. The glenohumeral joint is surrounded by connective tissue that forms the joint capsule.

In adhesive capsulitis, inflammation and fibrosis in the joint capsule lead to adhesions (scar tissue). The adhesions bind the capsule and cause it to tighten around the joint, restrict movement in the joint.

122
Q

Presentation of frozen shoulder?

A

There is a typical course of symptoms, with three phases:

  • Painful phase – shoulder pain is often the first symptom and may be worse at night
  • Stiff phase – shoulder stiffness develops and affects both active and passive movement (external rotation is the most affected) – the pain settles during this phase
  • Thawing phase – there is a gradual improvement in stiffness and a return to normal
123
Q

Differentials for frozen shoulder?

A
  • Supraspinatus tendinopathy
  • Acromioclavicular joint arthritis
  • Glenohumeral joint arthritis
  • Septic arthritis
  • Inflammatory arthritis
  • Malignancy (e.g., osteosarcoma or bony metastasis)
124
Q

Shoulder pain preceded by trauma or an acute injury may be due to:

A
  • Shoulder dislocation
  • Fractures (e.g., proximal humerus, clavicle or rarely the scapula)
  • Rotator cuff tear
125
Q

diagnosis of frozen shoulder?

A

Adhesive capsulitis is a clinical diagnosis based on the history and examination and excluding other causes of shoulder pain and stiffness. Imaging investigations are not usually required.

X-rays are usually normal. However, they are helpful for diagnosing osteoarthritis as a differential.

Ultrasound, CT or MRI scans can show a thickened joint capsule.

126
Q

Management frozen shoulder

A

Non-surgical options for improving symptoms and speeding up recovery are:

  • Continue using the arm but don’t exacerbate the pain
  • Analgesia (e.g., NSAIDs)
  • Physiotherapy
  • Intra-articular steroid injections
  • Hydrodilation (injecting fluid into the joint to stretch the capsule)

Surgery may be used in particularly resistant or severe cases. The options are:

  • Manipulation under anaesthesia – forcefully stretching the capsule to improve the range of motion
  • Arthroscopy – keyhole surgery on the shoulder to cut the adhesions and release the shoulder
127
Q

What are rotator cuff tears>

A

Rotator cuff tears refer to injury to the tendons of the rotator cuff muscles. The tendon may be partially or fully torn.

Tears of the rotator cuff can occur due to an acute injury (e.g., a fall onto an outstretched hand) or degenerative changes with age. They may be related to overhead activities, such as playing tennis or overhead construction work.

128
Q

Presentation of rotator cuff tears

A

Rotator cuff tears may present either with an acute onset of symptoms after an acute injury, or with a gradual onset of symptoms. Patients typically present with:

  • Shoulder pain
  • Weakness and pain with specific movements relating to the site of the tear (e.g., abduction with a supraspinatus tear)

Patients may find it difficult to get comfortable at night due to pain in the shoulder, disrupting sleep.

129
Q

Ix for Rotator cuff tears

A

X-rays will not show soft tissue injuries such as rotator cuff tears. They may be helpful for excluding bony pathology, such as osteoarthritis.

Ultrasound or MRI scans can diagnose a rotator cuff tear.

130
Q

Management for rotator cuff tears?

A

Non-surgical options are:

  • Rest and adapted activities
  • Analgesia (e.g., NSAIDs)
  • Physiotherapy

here are many options for surgical management, depending on individual factors. The main option is arthroscopic rotator cuff repair, where the tendon is reattached to the bone during an arthroscopy (keyhole surgery).

131
Q

What is shoulder dislocation?

A

Shoulder dislocation is where the ball of the shoulder (head of the humerus) comes entirely out of the socket (glenoid cavity of the scapula).

132
Q

What is subluxation?

A

Subluxation refers to a partial dislocation of the shoulder. The ball does not come fully out of the socket and naturally pops back into place shortly afterwards

133
Q

Posterior dislocations are associated with

A

electric shocks and seizures.

Exam questions might challenge you to distinguish between anterior and posterior dislocations. The answer is almost certainly an anterior dislocation unless the patient has had a seizure or an electric shock.

134
Q

What are associated damage with shoulder dislocation?

A

Bankart lesions

Hill-Sachs lesions

Axillary nerve damage is a key complication. The axillary nerve comes from the C5 and C6 nerve roots. Damage causes a loss of sensation in the “regimental badge” area over the lateral deltoid. It also leads to motor weakness in the deltoid and teres minor muscles.

Fractures

Rotator cuff tears

135
Q

What nerve damage is associated with anerior dislocation?

A

Axillary nerve damage?

136
Q

Fractures can occur alongside shoulder dislocations, affecting the:

A
  • Humeral head
  • Greater tuberosity of the humerus
  • Acromion of the scapula
  • Clavicle
137
Q

What is apprehension test?

A

The apprehension test is a special test to assess for shoulder instability, specifically in the anterior direction. It is likely to be positive after previous anterior dislocation or subluxation of the shoulder. This may be performed after recovery from any acute injuries.

The patient lies supine. The shoulder is abducted to 90 degrees, and the elbow is flexed to 90 degrees. The shoulder is then slowly externally rotated in this position while watching the patient. As the arm approaches 90 degrees of external rotation, patients with shoulder instability will become anxious and apprehensive, worried that the shoulder will dislocate. There is no pain associated with the movement, only apprehension.

138
Q

Ix for shoulder dislocation?

A

X-rays

Magnetic resonance arthrography is an MRI scan

Arthroscopy

139
Q

Acute management of a shoulder dislocation involves:

A
  • Analgesia, muscle relaxants and sedation as appropriate
  • Gas and air (e.g., Entonox) may be used, which contains a mixture of 50% nitrous oxide and 50% oxygen
  • A broad arm sling can be applied to support the arm
  • Closed reduction of the shoulder (after excluding fractures)
  • Dislocations associated with a fracture may require surgery
  • Post-reduction x-rays
  • Immobilisation for a period after relocation of the shoulder
140
Q

Ongoing Management for shoulder dislocation?

A

There is a high risk of recurrent dislocations, particularly in younger patients.

Physiotherapy is recommended to improve the function of the shoulder and reduce the risk of further dislocations.

Shoulder stabilisation surgery may be required to improve stability and prevent further dislocations. This may be an arthroscopic or an open procedure. Underlying structural problems are corrected, such as:

  • Repairing Bankart lesions
  • Tightening the shoulder capsule
  • Bone graft using bone from the coracoid process to correct a bony injury to the glenoid rim (Latarjet procedure)
  • Correcting Hill-Sachs lesions (Remplissage procedure)
141
Q

What is McMurray’s Test

A

McMurray’s test involves the patient lying supine. The examiner takes the leg and flexes the knee.

While internally rotating the tibia (by turning the foot inwards) and applying varus pressure to the knee (applying outward pressure to the inside of the knee), carefully extend the knee. Pain or restriction indicates lateral meniscal damage.

Repeating the flexed to extended movement with external rotation of the tibia and valgus (inward) pressure on the knee tests for medial meniscal damage.

142
Q

What is Apley Grind Test?

A

The Apley grind test involves the patient lying prone and flexing the knee to 90 degrees with the thigh flat on the couch. Downward pressure is applied through the leg into the knee, and the tibia is internally and externally rotated at the same time. Pain indicates a positive result, suggesting meniscal damage. The pain is localised to the area of damage (e.g., medial or lateral meniscus).

143
Q

What are the Ottawa Knee Rules

A

Bone fractures are worth considering as a differential diagnosis in patients presenting with acute knee injuries. The Ottawa knee rules can be used to determine whether a patient requires an x-ray of the knee after an acute knee injury to look for a fracture.

The Ottawa knee rules state that a patient requires a knee x-ray if any of the following are present:

  • Age 55 or above
  • Patella tenderness (with no tenderness elsewhere)
  • Fibular head tenderness
  • Cannot flex the knee to 90 degrees
  • Cannot weight bear (cannot take 4 steps – limping steps still count)
144
Q

Ix for mrniscal tears

A

MRI scan

Arthroscopy

145
Q

Management for meniscal tears?

A

Conservative management of most acute soft tissue injuries, including meniscal tears, is with the RICE mnemonic:

R – Rest

I – Ice

C – Compression

E – Elevation

NSAIDs are usually used first-line for analgesia in MSK injuries.

Physiotherapy can be used for rehabilitation after the initial pain and swelling have settled.

Surgery may be required. This involves arthroscopy (keyhole surgery) of the knee joint. The main options are:

  • Repair of the meniscus if possible
  • Resection of the affected portion of the meniscus (this often results in osteoarthritis)
146
Q

Sciatica symptoms suggesting cancer, cauda equina. spinal infection

A
  • Age over 50 (cancer)
  • Weight loss (cancer)
  • Bilateral neurological motor or sensory symptoms (cauda equina)
  • Saddle anaesthesia (cauda equina)
  • Urinary retention or incontinence (cauda equina)
  • Faecal incontinence (cauda equina)
  • History of cancer with potential metastasis (cauda equina or spinal metastases)
  • Fever (spinal infection)
  • IV drug use (spinal infection)