Endocrine HARC Lectures Flashcards

1
Q

Where is the thyroid gland located?

A

• Lies anterior and just below the thyroid cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Isthmus overlies which tracheal rings

A

2-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Thyroid secretes which three hormones

A

Secretes 3 key hormones: • Thyroxine (T4) • Tri-iodothyronine (T3) • Calcitonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Thyroid development

  • Thyroid development begins at _ weeks
  • As an invagination of _______ in pharynx floor
  • Grows as “_____ _________”
  • Diverticulum descends into neck and forms thyroid gland
  • Lengthening of epithelia connects thyroid to pharyngeal floor
  • “Thyroglossal duct”
  • Thyroglossal duct regresses, severing connection between ______ and ________
A
  • Thyroid development begins at 4 weeks
  • As an invagination of endoderm in pharynx floor
  • Grows as “thyroid diverticulum”
  • Diverticulum descends into neck and forms thyroid gland
  • Lengthening of epithelia connects thyroid to pharyngeal floor
  • “Thyroglossal duct”
  • Thyroglossal duct regresses, severing connection between pharynx and thyroid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are thyrohlossal cysts?

How can you tell a patient has it

A

In adults, remnant of thyroid diverticulum can be seen as foramen caecum

• Ask patient to protrude their tongue • Thyroglossal cysts will elevate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Function of patent thyroglossal duct

A
  • Patent thyroglossal duct allows secretion of mucus which accumulates
  • Infection leads to thyroglossal cyst
  • Accounts 79% of neck lumps
  • Full excision of track/fistula
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a pyramidal thyroid lobe?

A

Extends superiorly from isthmus of the thyroid gland

  • Fibrous tissue connecting pyramidal lobe with hyoid bone may contain levator thyroid muscle
  • Aband of connective tissue, often containing thyroid tissue may continue from pyramidal lobe to hyoid bone
  • ~50% of thyroid glands have a pyramidal lobe
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is parathyroid ectopia

A

By definition, ectopic parathyroid glands are parathyroid glands that are not located in the standard position in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Funciton of parathyroid gland

A
  • Usually located close to upper and lower poles of each thyroid lobe [see far right image]
  • Secrete parathyroid hormone (PTH)
  • PTH involved in calcium homeostasis, esp. in hypocalcaemia
  • Stimulates osteoclastic activity, Ca2+ dietary absorption and renal reabsorption
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Explain pituitary development?

A
  • Pituitary gland consists of 2 parts – ant. & post.
  • Anterior connects to hypothalamus only through portal vessels (“adenohypohphysis”)
  • Posterior is direct extension of hypothalamus (“neurohypophysis”)
  • Both derived from neuroectoderm of embryo but different parts
  • Anterior pituitary derived from pharynx (rathke’s pouch)
  • Posterior pituitary derived from floor of diencephalon
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Pituitary Development

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Pituitary Development

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Pituitary Development

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

WHat is pituitary hypoplasia?

A

Pituitary Hypoplasia, also known as hypoplasia of the pituitary gland, is related to congenital hypopituitarism and isolated growth hormone deficiency, type ii

Characterised by short stature, slow growth

  • Failure of development of rathke’s pouch
  • No GH, TSH, ACTH, FSH, LH but post. pituitary okay
  • May result from deficiency of GHRH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is congenital dysgenesis?

A

atypical formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is 46 XX dysgenesis

A
  • No oestrogen produced. No inhibition of FSH/LH at pituitary
  • Delayed or no puberty, affects physical characteristics and likely causes infertility
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is 46 XY dysgenesis

A
  • Testis development depends on testis determining factor in SRY region of Y chromosome
  • Lack of testosterone or anti-mullerian hormone production
  • Failure of Wolffian ducts and development of genitalia. Female* external genitalia may also be present
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Dysgenesis may relate to other karyotypes like?

A

Trisomy X, 47 XXY, 48 XXXY, 49 XXXXY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the 5 steps for neck examination?

A
  1. Inspection 2. Palpation 3. Percussion 4. Auscultation 5. Special tests
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the blue and red sections called?

A
  • Anterior triangle Red
  • Posterior triangle Blue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a scintigraphy?

A
  • 2D Nuclear medicine scan
  • Radioactive isotope of iodine given
  • Normal uptake 15-25%
  • High uptake – Graves’ Disease
  • Low uptake – Thyroiditis
  • Uneven uptake – nodule
  • Can be used at distant sites to assess for metastases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is TC 99m Sestamibi and SPECT

A

Tc 99m Sestamibi

  • Test for hyperparathyroidism/adenoma
  • Sestamibi localises in mitochondria in PT glands
  • Absorbs faster in hyperfunctioning PT (eg adenoma)
  • Image at 2hrs when thyroid is cleared

SPECT (single positron emission CT)

  • 3D imaging with higher resolution
  • In addition to Tc 99m sestamibi for superior detection of adenomas in carotid sheath or mediastinum
  • Normal CT limited use in thyroid imaging – useful to assess for metastases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

WHat is MRCP

A

MRCP (Magnetic Resonance CholangioPancreatography)

  • Non-invasive imaging technique with no radiation exposure
  • Allows imaging of intra- and extra-hepatic biliary tree & pancreatic duct system
  • Diagnostic range equivalent to the ERCP
  • ERCP = “endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography”
  • Can replace ERCP in high risk patients to avoid significant risk of morbidity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is Funfuscopy?

A

(aka ophthalmoscopy) • Examination of internal structures of eye and fundus • With an ophthalmoscope!

28
Q

What does the fundus consist of?

A

Retina • Optic disc • Macula • Fovea • Posterior pole

29
Q

WHat are the 3 layers posterior to lens?

A
  • Sclera (outer)
  • Choroid (middle)
  • Retina (inner)
30
Q

What are the two layers of the retina?

A

Neural (inner) layer

Pigmented (outer) layer

31
Q

What does the neural layer of the retina consists of/function?

A
  • Visual part consists of photoreceptive cells in posterior & lateral portion of eye
  • Rods – low light photosensitivity and generally peripheral
  • Cones – colour vision and high acuity
  • Only attached around optic nerve & ora serrata • Susceptibility to ‘detached retina’
32
Q

What does the pigmented outer layer of the retina do?

A
  • Absorbs light not captured by photoreceptors; prevents internal reflection
  • Amitotic and accumulates granules with age
  • fundus appears darker in young people
33
Q
A
34
Q

What is the blood supply to the retina?

A

The retina is supplied by the central retinal artery and the short posterior ciliary arteries (Fig 2.3). The central retinal artery travels in or beside the optic nerve as it pierces the sclera then branches to supply the layers of the inner retina (i.e., the layers closest to the vitreous compartment).

35
Q

What are you looking for when doing a funduscopy?

A
  • Arteriolar narrowing – hypertensive retinopathy?
  • Hard exudate – waxy yellow blotches
  • Cotton wool spots – infarcts of neural layer (severe retinopathy)
  • Neovascularisation – net of small curly vessels = proliferative retinopathy
36
Q

What is the optic disc

A
  • Represents formation of optic nerve
  • Blind spot – no photoreceptive cells
  • Retinal vessels trace toward optic disc
37
Q
A
38
Q

What are the 3 Cs when doing a funduscopy?

A
  • Contour - Blurred edges – papillodoema; raised ICP?
  • Colour - Orangey-pink (well perfused) with pale centre (cup)
  • Cup-to-disc ratio (approx. 0.3) - If > may indicate reduced health retina. Glaucoma?
39
Q

What is the macula?

A
  • Oval area of intense pigmentation temporal to optic disc
  • Fewer blood vessels here preserves visual acuity
  • Contains fovea at centre
40
Q

What is the fovea?

A
  • High concn of photoreceptive cells
  • Area for high visual acuity
  • Macular degeneration – loss of central vision
41
Q
A
42
Q

What is the posterior pole?

A

Area of the retina between optic disc and macula

43
Q

What is Retinal Photography

A
  • High quality digital colour image of fundus
  • More accurate than traditional funduscopy
  • Allows comparison between visits to monitor condition
  • Essential component of diabetic eye screening
44
Q
A
45
Q

What is Diabetic Retinopathy?

A

Diabetic retinopathy is a complication of diabetes, caused by high blood sugar levels damaging the back of the eye (retina). It can cause blindness if left undiagnosed and untreated. However, it usually takes several years for diabetic retinopathy to reach a stage where it could threaten your sight.

46
Q

Diabetic Retinopathy leads to?

A
  • Leading cause of blindness in working age people
  • Poor glycaemic control damages small retinal vessels
  • Ischaemia and infarct of retinal tissue
  • Eventually leads to arterial proliferation
  • Increased risk of retinal detachment
47
Q

What is grading like for diabetic retinopathy?

A

Stage 1 = Background Retinopathy • Non-proliferative • Microaneurysms

Stage 2 = Pre-proliferative Retinopathy • Moderate non-proliferative retinopathy • Many intra-retinal haemorrhages • Venous beading ≥2 quadrants

Stage 3 = Proliferative Retinopathy • New vessels; vitreous haemorrhage

Diabetic maculopathy • Exudate +/- haemorrhage within macula

48
Q
A
49
Q
A
50
Q
A
51
Q

What is diabetic Neuropathy?

A

Diabetic neuropathy is a type of nerve damage that can occur if you have diabetes. High blood sugar (glucose) can injure nerves throughout your body. Diabetic neuropathy most often damages nerves in your legs and feet.

52
Q

Affects fo Diabetic Neuropathy?

A

Neuronal damage due to microvascular damage

  • Occlusion of vasa nervorum
  • Nerve becomes ischaemic

Hyperglycaemia affects Schwann cells

  • Reduced conduction velocity; later demyelination

Lost & altered sensation in early neuropathy

  • Later impaired proprioception; unrecognised injury
  • Atrophy of intrinsic foot musculature but not long flexors causes high arches, toe-clawing, pressure redistribution & callus formation on sole
53
Q

Motor Invervation

Thigh: Posterior

Anterior

Medial

Leg: Posterior

Anterior

Medial

A

Thigh

  • Anterior – femoral n.
  • Posterior – sciatic n.
  • Medial – obturator n.

Leg

  • Posterior – tibial n. (& foot)
  • Anterior – deep fibular n.
  • Posterior – superficial fibular n.
54
Q

Sensory Innervation

A
55
Q

What is diabetic foot?

A

People with diabetes are prone to foot problems that develop due to prolonged periods of high blood sugar levels. Diabetic neuropathy and peripheral vascular disease are the two main foot problems that occur, and both can have serious complications.

• Macro- & microvascular dysfunction in chronic diabetes • Atherosclerosis, endothelial cell changes • Results in neuropathy, ulceration, infection • Impaired wound healing – gangrene, amputation

56
Q
A
57
Q

What is Osteomyelitis?

A
  • Loss of protective sensation
  • Wound may fester for weeks, invading bone
58
Q

What is Charcot’s arthropathy?

A
  • Altered foot mechanics – repeated (undetected) fractures
  • Destroys normal foot architecture
59
Q

How to prevent diabetic foot?

A

Vigilant maintenance of foot hygiene is best prevention

60
Q

Osteomyelitis

Risks

Patho

Treatment

A

Risks

  • Diabetes, splenectomy, trauma, IV drug use

Pathogenesis

  • Infection invades bone from foot ulcer
  • Most commonly ‘tripod’ bones:
  • 1 st & 5th metatarsal and calcaneus

Treatment

  • Antibiotics and surgical debridement
  • Chronic condition problematic in diabetes due to poor O2 and wound healing
  • Amputations if severe
61
Q

What do you see in Xrays MRI, CT with osteomyelitis

A

X-ray

  • 1 st line but not sensitive in early OM (<2 wks)
  • Regional osteopenia, periosteal reaction, focal bony lysis or cortical loss, loss of trabecular architecture, peripheral sclerosis

MRI (best diagnostic)

  • Marrow changes, oedema, cortical thickening, bone abscess, periosteal reaction
  • Contrast agent to outline abscess cavities

CT

  • Only if patient has contraindication for MR
62
Q

Patho of Charcot’s Arthropathy

A

• Pathogenesis

Peripheral neuropathy – lost coordination & sensation

Gait favours mechanical stress and causes injury

Pro-inflammatory response encourages osteoclastogenesisis, consequent osteolysis

Chronic, progressive degeneration

63
Q

What is usually affected first with Charcot’s Arthropathy

A
  • Tarso-metatarsal joints commonly affected first
  • Bony structures fragmented & damaged
  • Coalesce into new architecture, affects arches
  • Extreme conditions can lead to ‘ro
64
Q
A
65
Q

What is Bone Densitometry

A

Assessment of bone mineral density (BMD)

  • Bone volume as proportion of tissue volume
  • Classified by standard deviations (SD) from a reference population
  • Important diagnostic test for osteoporosis
66
Q

What is DEXA?

A

A DEXA scan is a quick and painless procedure that involves lying on your back on an X-ray table so an area of your body can be scanned.

• DEXA is gold standard diagnostic • Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry • Accuracy at hip >90% • Gives T-score and Z-score • T-score: value related to peak bone mass. >2.5 SD away from mean = osteoporosis • Z-score: value related to age-matched normal. Used to measure progress of osteoporosis

67
Q
A