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LATG > Unit Three Exam: Chapters 12-17 > Flashcards

Unit Three Exam: Chapters 12-17 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following cellular components play a role the body’s ability to recognize substances as “nonself”?
A- Antigens
B- Antibodies
C- Proteins of the major histocompatibility complex
D- Mucous membranes

A

C- Proteins of the major histocompatibility complex

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2
Q

The immunity that functions if an animal has not been exposed to a foreign substance is called _______ immunity.
A- acquired
B- adaptive
C- innate
D- general

A

C- innate

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3
Q

In the recognition stage of an immune response, which of the following encounter an antigen-presenting cell?
A- B lymphocytes
B- Mast cells
C- Dendritic cells
D- Immunoglobulins

A

A- B lymphocytes

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4
Q

What best describes the cytokines?
A- They transmit information from the receptor to the other sites in the cell
B- They are enzymes that destroy foreign materials that enter the cell
C- They secrete antibodies against the invading substance
D- They serve as “memory molecules’ that can quickly mobilize if the same antigen invades the cell later

A

A- They transmit information from the receptor to the other sites in the cell

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5
Q

Macrophages and ________________ have a similar role in presenting an antigen to other cells.
A- T cells
B- B cells
C- Dendritic cells
D- Helper T cells

A

C- Dendritic cells

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6
Q

What is the term used to describe an animal with a normal immune system?
A- Immunopositive
B- Immunocompetent
C- Immunoproductive
D- Immunoactive

A

B- Immunocompetent

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7
Q

What is the most abundant immunoglobulin found in the serum of mammals?
A- IgG
B- IgA
C- IgM
D- IgY

A

A- IgG

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8
Q

Which of the following is an example of passive immunity?
A- The absence of infection fighting ability in immunosuppressed animals
B- The reaction that follows a second exposure to the same antigen
C- The protection offered by pre-formed antibodies given to an animal
D- The protection offered by endogenous polyclonal antibodies

A

C- The protection offered by pre-formed antibodies given to an animal

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9
Q

Which of the following treatments is commonly used in laboratory animals to prevent transplant rejection?
A- Heavy doses of antibiotics to prevent bacterial infections in the transplanted tissue
B- Long-term dietary supplements to boost rejection resistance
C- Blood transfusions to increase the level of B cells and T cells
D- Radiation exposure to kill progenitors of the immune system cells

A

D- Radiation exposure to kill progenitors of the immune system cells

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10
Q

What best describes a xenograft?
A- A graft of tissue obtained from another part of the body of the recipient
B- A graft of tissue obtained from a recipient’s identical twin
C- A graft of tissue obtained from an animal of the same species
D- A graft of tissue obtained from a donor of a different species

A

D- A graft of tissue obtained from a donor of a different species

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11
Q

When is the best time to schedule husbandry chores in rooms that house immunodeficient animals?
A- At the end of the day in order to avoid transmitting their pathogens to the general population
B- At the beginning of the day to prevent contamination transmitted from other animals in the facility
C- Outside of regular working hours when there are fewer people in the facility
D- Any time as long as the same schedule is followed every week

A

B- At the beginning of the day to prevent contamination transmitted from other animals in the facility

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12
Q

Which of the following is a way that a secondary immunodeficiency disease can be acquired?
A- Poor nutrition
B- Radiation exposure
C- Inherited genetically
D- None of the above

A

A- Poor nutrition

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13
Q

The structure of viruses usually consists of which of the following?
A- A strand of nucleic acid
B- A protein capsid
C- A lipid envelope
D- All of the above
E- None of the above

A

D- All of the above

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14
Q

Some bacteria are encapsulated. What best describes a capsule?
A- A resistant outer covering of bacterial spores
B- The equivalent of the plasma membrane in bacteria
C- An exterior protective envelope of gelatinous material
D- An appendage for bacterial locomotion

A

C- An exterior protective envelope of gelatinous material

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15
Q

Which statement best describes a bacterial spore?
A- It is an envelope that covers the bacterium and protects it from being digested by the host’s enzymes
B- It is a colony of bacteria enveloped in a thick protective coating
C- It is the bacterial chromosomes surrounded by a tough coating
D- It is the infectious stage of a bacterium

A

C- It is the bacterial chromosomes surrounded by a tough coating

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16
Q

Bacteria that can grow in the absence of oxygen are called:
A- Normal
B- Anaerobic
C- Aerobic
D- Microaerophilic

A

B- Anaerobic

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17
Q

Which of the following statement applies to viral reproduction?
A- Viruses reproduce by integrating pieces of the host’s DNA into their own DNA
B- Viruses reproduce in the fluids that surround the cells in the host’s tissues
C- Viruses use the host cell’s mechanisms to synthesize new viral components
D- Agars are good media that allow virus reproduction and growth without the need for the virus to enter a host cell

A

C- Viruses use the host cell’s mechanisms to synesthesia e new viral components

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18
Q

Scrapie in sheep is believed to be caused by which infectious agent?
A- Viruses
B- Bacteria
C- Fungi
D- Prions

A

D- Prions

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19
Q

What is the shape of cocci bacteria?
A- Ovoid
B- Spherical
C- Rod-like
D- Curved

A

B- Spherical

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20
Q

Tapeworms belong to which class of helminths?
A- Trematodes
B- Cestodes
C- Nematodes
D- Acanthocephalids

A

B- Cestodes

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21
Q

How do hookworms generally enter the body?
A- Ingestion of an infected flea
B- Ingestion of the immediate host
C- Inhalation of its spores in aerosol suspension
D- Penetration of the skin or oral mucosa

A

D- Penetration of the skin or oral mucosa

22
Q

Which of the following can be infected by ich?
A- Fish
B- Swine
C- Nonhuman Primates
D- Mice

A

A- Fish

23
Q

Which of the following is TRUE about idiopathic ulcerative dermatitis (IUD)?
A- The exact cause is known and there is a standard treatment to cure it
B- The lesions primarily occur on the arms and neck
C- SCID mice are most likely to be affected
D- Mice with IUD may make them poor research subjects

A

D- Mice with IUD may make them poor research subjects

24
Q

Which of the following statements apply to bacterial pneumonia in guinea pigs?
A- It has distinctive clinical signs and is readily diagnosed
B- It typically causes mild disease in young animals and death in older animals
C- Routine administration of antibiotics is the primary method for maintaining disease-free guinea pig colonies
D- It is often associated with Bordetella bronchiseptica and Streptociccus pneumoniae

A

D- it is often associated with Bordetella bronchiseptica and Streptococcus pneumoniae

25
Q

Which of the following is TRUE about rabies?
A- All mammals are susceptible to the rabies virus
B- The disease is easily cured by appropriate treatment
C- Wild-caught animals are assumed to be free of rabies
D- It is mainly transmitted from scratches from infected animals

A

A- All mammals are susceptible to the rabies virus

26
Q

Dirofilaria immitis is the cause of:
A- Rabies
B- Canine distemper
C- Canine parvovirus
D- Heartworm disease

A

D- Heartworm disease

27
Q

What are the stones in the bladder of cats called?
A- Uroliths
B- Otitis
C- Orf
D- Bloat

A

A- Uroliths

28
Q

In which animal is rumen stasis a problem?
A- Amphibian
B- Sheep
C- Nonhuman primate
D- Ferret

A

B- Sheep

29
Q

Red leg is caused by what type of pathogen?
A- Bacteria
B- Virus
C- Parasite
D- None of the above

A

A- Bacteria

30
Q

Examination of the Buffy coat provides information about:
A- The amount of circulating lipids in the blood
B- The relative amount of leukocytes in the blood
C- The level of hydration of the animal
D- The relative amount of platelets in the blood

A

B- The relative amount of leukocytes in the blood.

31
Q

Elevated concentrations of _____________________ may be a sign of an allergic reaction or of the presence of parasites.
A- Eosinophils
B- Basophils
C- Neutrophils
D- Monocytes

A

A- Eosinophils

32
Q

Which of the following best describes blood serum?
A- Whole blood
B- Unclotted blood
C- The liquid portion of anticoagulated blood
D- The liquid portion of clotted blood

A

D- The liquid portion of clotted blood

33
Q

If an animal’s antibody titer for a specific antigen is 10, what does that number represent?
A- The amount of antibodies (mg) per ml of blood
B- The lowest concentration of antigen needed to cause an allergic reaction
C- The most dilute solution of blood that gives a positive reaction in the test for antibody
D- The concentration of antibody that is needed to combat the infection

A

C- The most dilute solution of blood that gives reaction in the test for antibody

34
Q

Determining the specific gravity of urine provides a measure of:
A- The amount of blood in the urine
B- The kidney’s ability to concentrate the urine
C- The kidney’s blood circulation
D- The kidney’s ability to eliminate glucose from the body

A

B- The kidney’s ability to concentrate the urine

35
Q

Viruses can be grown in:
A- Liquid nutrient media
B- Solid media such as agar plates
C- Blood serum
D- Embryonated chicken eggs

A

D- Embryonated chicken eggs

36
Q

Bioluminescent imaging requires a light signal from which molecule?
A- Gadolinium
B- Cadmium
C- Fluorescein
D- Luciferin

A

D- Luciferin

37
Q

Radioactive isotopes can be attached to which molecule in positron emission tomography?
A- Glycogen
B- Glucose
C- Glycine
D- Glutaraldehyde

A

B- Glucose

38
Q

In which technique is the X-ray beam rotated 360 degrees around the patient to allow precise location of lesions?
A- Computed tomography
B- Fluoroscopy
C- Magnetic resonance imaging
D- None of the above

A

A- Computed tomography

39
Q

Which of the following is an example of an adverse drug effect?
A- Tremors
B- Shallow/labored breathing
C- Vomiting/diarrhea
D- All of the above

A

D- All of the above

40
Q

A nonhuman primate has diarrhea, which diagnostic testing has determined is caused by the Protozoa parasite Giardia. What kind of antibiotic would be effective to kill this parasite?
A- Penicillin
B- Aminoglycoside
C- Nitroimidazole
D- Cephalosporin

A

C- Nitroimidazole

41
Q

Which species is safe to treat with a pyrethrin or pyrethroid based insecticide?
A- Dogs
B- Cats
C- Xenopus
D- Zarbrafish

A

A- Dogs

42
Q

The drug Carprofen was prescribed by a veterinarian to be given once daily by mouth for 3 days. Which piece of dosage information is missing?
A- Route of administration
B- Treatment frequency
C- Duration of treatment
D- Drug storage conditions
E- Dose rate

A

E- Dose rate

43
Q

Which stage of anesthesia is characterized by the loss of consciousness?
A- Stage 1
B- Stage 2
C- Stage 3
D- Stage 4

A

B- Stage 2

44
Q

Surgical anesthesia often causes which of the following conditions?
A- A lower susceptibility to dehydration
B- A drop in body temperature
C- An increase in the amount of blood reaching the extremities
D- An increase in heart rate

A

B- A drop in body temperature

45
Q

What is the normal capillary refill time for most laboratory animals?
A- About 1-2 seconds
B- About 3-4 seconds
C- About 5-6 seconds
D- Up to 10 seconds

A

A- About 1-2 seconds

46
Q

Xylazine has which of the following effects?
A- Sedation
B- Analgesia
C- Blood pressure lowering
D- All of the above

A

D- All of the above

47
Q

What is the best way to determine the amount of nitrous oxide left in a tank?
A- Keep a log of the amount used
B- Check the pressure
C- Weigh the tank
D- None of the above

A

C- Weigh the tank

48
Q

In rebreathing systems, the exhaled gases pass through a canister that absorbs the:
A- Water vapor
B- Anesthetic vapor
C- Waste gases
D- Carbon dioxide

A

D- Carbon dioxide

49
Q

In rebreathing systems, where is the concentration of anesthetic gas set?
A- At the pressure reducing valve
B- At the flow meter
C- At the dial on the vaporizer
D- At the pop-off valve

A

C- At the dial on the vaporizer

50
Q

What is a characteristic of the respiratory pattern of surgical anesthesia?
A- Rapid shallow breathing
B- Deep breaths alternating with shallow breaths
C- Breathing initiated int he thoracic-abdominal area
D- The need for mechanical ventilation

A

C- Breathing initiated in the thoracic-abdominal area

LATG (22 decks)

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