Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

A SMART goal is Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, and ___________.
A- Teachable
B- Translatable
C- Time-bound
D- Testable

A

C- Time-bound

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2
Q

What publication from USDA clarifies the intent of the Animal Welfare Act?
A- Guide for the Care and Use of Laboratory Animals
B- Animal Care Policy Manual
C- Public Health Service Policy on Humane Care and Use of Laboratory Animals
D- The Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970

A

B- Animal Care Policy Manual

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3
Q

What are carbon-11 and carbon-11 examples of?
A- Isotopes
B- Alpha particles
C- Beta particles
D- None of the above

A

A- Isotopes

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4
Q

What best describes Maslow’s “self-actualization” level?
A- Understanding your limitations and accepting them
B- Feeling that you reach some personal goals and make a contribution to society
C- Enjoying recognition because you are doing a good job
D- Feeling financially secure and able to enjoy life outside of work

A

B- Feeling that you reach some personal goals and make a contribution to society

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5
Q

In the evaluate phase of the ADDIE model, which level looks at whether the training met the goals?
A- Level 1
B- Level 2
C- Level 3
D- Level 4

A

D- Level 4

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6
Q

What is TRUE about the process of certifying feeds?
A- The feed is certified only if there are no contaminants
B- Each bag is sampled and samples are pooled
C- The feed can be tested in-house for contaminants
D- All of the above

A

B- Each bag is sampled and samples are pooled

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7
Q

Which of the following is an example of direct costs?
A- Operation of the physical plant
B- Husbandry activities
C- Depreciation allowances for equipment
D- Security cameras

A

B- Husbandry activities

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8
Q

At what stage of anesthesia can the animal be intubated?
A- Stage 1
B- Stage 2
C- Stage 3
D- Stage 4

A

C- Stage 3

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9
Q

Backing up computer files is considered part of which of the disaster planning steps?
A- Prepare
B- Respond
C- Recover
D- Mitigate

A

D- Mitigate

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10
Q

Which of the following is NOT a common security practice?
A- Make sure all entrances to the facility and doors to animals room are closed and locked
B- Restrict access to only those listed on IACUC-approved protocols
C- Train staff to avoid confrontation and animal rights activists
D- Set up security camera and check to ensure it stays operational
E- All of the above
F- None of the above

A

E- All of the above

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11
Q

Which statement most accurately describes the Office of Laboratory Animal Welfare (OLAW)?
A- It is an agency of the state government
B- It is a National Institutes of Health (NIH) office that oversees compliance with the PHS Policy
C- It is an office of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
D- It is an alternative term for the IACUC

A

B- It is a National Institutes of Health (NIH) office that oversees compliance with the PHS Policy

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12
Q

Which of the following characteristics describe a good performance standard?
A- Technical, brief
B- Pertinent, challenging
C- Strategic, nonspecific
D- Measurable, achievable

A

D- Measurable, achievable

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13
Q

The series of subunits that link together to form DNA are called:
A- Cells
B- Nucleotides
C- Ribosomes
D- Enzymes

A

B-Nucleotides

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14
Q

Which of the following represents a difference between the USDA mandates and the PHS Policy?
A- Birds are covered species in the PHS Policy but not in the AWA Regulations
B- The pHS Policy does not require an occupational health and safety program; the AWA Regulations require it
C- There is no difference; both have the same requirements
D- The PHS Policy must be followed exactly; the AWA Regulations are only followed when they do not conflict with the PHS Policy

A

A- Birds are covered species in the PHS Policy but not in the AWA Regulations

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15
Q

In the animal facility, who decides which specific pathogens will be surveyed?
A- The veterinarian, with input from the research team
B- The researcher
C- The manager of the facility
D- The IACUC, with input from the animal care staff

A

A- The veterinarian, with input from the research team

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16
Q

The frequency of performing serology assays on animals depends on:
A- Sensitivity of the test
B- Rate of animal turnover
C- Type of research being done
D- All of the above

A

D- All of the above

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17
Q

What is the name for the cholesterol deposit on the inner lining of blood vessels?
A- Hydroxylase
B- Plaque
C- Tyrosine
D- Peptide

A

B- Plaque

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18
Q

Cutaneous capillariasis is caused by what sort of pathogen?
A- Bacteria
B- Fungus
C- Parasite
D- Virus

A

C- Parasite

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19
Q

Which statement best describes essential fatty acids?
A- They are the precursors of adipose cells
B- They cannot be synthesized by the body
C- They are necessary to form strong bones
D- They must be digested before they can enter the bloodstream

A

B- They cannot be synthesized by the body

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20
Q

What best describes replication?
A- DNA forming RNA
B- DNA making a copy of itself
C- RNA crossing the nuclear membrane
D- Ribosomes reading the RNA code

A

B- DNA making a copy of itself

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21
Q

A mouse which has cells that are derived from both a donor blastocyst and a recipient female’s own blastocyst is called a _______.
A- Recombinant
B- Founder
C- Chimera
D- Wild-type

A

C- Chimera

22
Q

What is an effective strategy for ensuring that daily lab animal care tasks are completed?
A- Keep track of the time each employee spends on each task
B- Use checklists to keep up with which tasks are completed
C- Post a list in each room of all tasks that must be done every day
D- Assign two people to each task to ensure that it gets done

A

B- Use checklists to keep up with which tasks are completed

23
Q

Which of the following are typical of axenic animals?
A- Smaller lymph nodes and lower white blood cell counts
B- Smaller stomach and cecum
C- Increased muscle tone and higher white blood cells
D- Larger lymph nodes and Peyer’s patches

A

A- Smaller lymph nodes and lower white blood cell counts

24
Q

A hamster was administered penicillin to treat an infection caused by a gram-positive organism. The animal died the morning after the treatment. What is the cause of death that you should immediately consider?
A- Penicillin is not effective on gram-positive organisms
B- Gram-negative bacteria proliferated in the gut and produced lethal toxins
C- Hamsters secrete an enzyme that inactivates penicillin
D- The dose of penicillin given was too high

A

B- Gram-negative bacteria proliferated in the gut and produced lethal toxins

25
Q

What term is used for animals that were originally germ-free but given a known group of bacteria?
A- Defined flora
B- Specific pathogen-free
C- Axenic
D- None of the above

A

A- Defined flora

26
Q

Which of the following cell types are phagocytic cells that can engulf foreign substances?
A- Plasma cells
B- B lymphocytes
C- Macrophages
D- T cells

A

C- Macrophages

27
Q

Passive immunization offers __________ resistance to a disease or antigen.
A- partial
B- innate
C- permanent
D- temporary

A

D- temporary

28
Q

Which of the following are the weakest bonds in DNA?
A- Base-base
B- Sugar-base
C- Sugar-phosphate
D- They are all the same

A

A- Base-base

29
Q

What step is recommended when obtaining animals, such as genetically engineered rodents, from sources other than licensed vendors?
A- Request a written guarantee that the animals are specific pathogen-free
B- Obtain the animals in limited numbers in each shipment to lessen the chance of contaminating the colony
C- Quarantine the animals upon arrival
D- Immunize the animals for the common rodent diseases

A

C- Quarantine the animals upon arrival

30
Q

Which of the following cell types are referred to as “antigen-presenting cells” because they expose pieces of antigens to other immune system cells?
A- Phagocytes
B- B lymphocytes
C- T lymphocytes
D- Erythrocyte

A

A- Phagocytes

31
Q

Which imaging method would be best to quantify inflammation?
A- Ultrasound
B- Magnetic resonance imaging
C- Positron emission tomography
D- Thermography

A

D- Thermography

32
Q

The following are all components of the innate immune system except:
A- antibodies
B- phagocytes
C- lysozyme
D- mucous membranes

A

A- antibodies

33
Q

Which immunoglobulin is found in birds?
A- IgG
B- IgE
C- IgA
D- IgY

A

D-IgY

34
Q

Which of the following statements apply to viruses?
A- They are the smallest living cells that contain a nucleus and a nuclear membrane
B- They do not reproduce outside of a host cell
C- They do not contain nucleic acids
D- They can only reproduce in the presence of atmospheric concentrations of oxygen

A

B- They do not reproduce outside of a host cell

35
Q

Which of the following is a sign of maternal neglect?
A- Pups scattered about the cage
B- The dam lying on top of her pups
C- The pups are grouped together
D- None of the above

A

A- Pups scattered about the cage

36
Q

How are lice spread in the animal facility?
A- By the fecal-oral route
B- Via an intermediate host ingested by an animal
C- By direct contact
D- Flying over short distances

A

C- By direct contact

37
Q

Employee training should include which of the following?
A - Learning the names and characteristics of all hazardous chemicals used in the facility
B- Recognizing potential hazards in the facility
C- Eliminating all hazardous tasks from all employees’ job duties
D- All of the above

A

B- Recognizing potential hazards in the facility

38
Q

Which statement best defines the term variable?
A- The treatment received by the animals in the experimental group
B- What is measured during the study
C- The difference between the experimental and control groups
D- Anything that can affect the results of the study

A

D- Anything that can affect the results of the study

39
Q

Which of the following statements apply to mice infested by the mouse hepatitis virus?
A- The infection can compromise the research data
B- The disease is contagious and spreads rapidly
C- Most outbreaks are hard to recognize because the animals show no clear clinical signs
D- All of the above

A

D- All of the above

40
Q

Which mouse viral infection is considered the most widespread in biomedical research facilities in the United States and Canada?
A- Mouse pox
B- Mouse norovirus
C- Mouse urologic syndrome
D- Mouse parvovirus

A

B- Mouse norovirus

41
Q

High concentrations of neutrophils or heterophils usually indicate _________.
A- An allergic reaction
B- An inactive viral infection
C- An active bacterial infection
D- A past parasitic infection

A

C- An active bacterial infection

42
Q

The embryonic stem cells used in genetic engineering studies are harvested from the:
A- Embryonic sac
B- Zygote at the two-cell stage
C- Inner cell mass of the blastocyst
D- Superovulated donor female

A

C- Inner cell mass of the blastocyst

43
Q

Fecal flotation is used to determine if _______ and/or ________ are present in the sample.
A- endoparasites; exoparasites
B- parasite eggs; adult parasites
C- parasite eggs; coccidial oocytes
D- bacteria; viruses

A

C- parasite eggs; coccidial oocytes

44
Q

What is the oxygen-carrying component of red blood cells called?
A- Hemoglobin
B- Hematocrit
C- Erythrocyte
D- Hematology

A

A- Hemoglobin

45
Q

Which of the following characteristics generally apply to bacterial spores?
A- The best way to destroy spores is by drying at room temperatures
B- Spores are the active stage of bacteria
C- Medically significant bacteria do not form spores
D- Spores are dormant forms of the bacteria

A

A- The best way to destroy spores is by drying at room temperature

46
Q

A group of animals receive the same experimental drug regimen. All animals appear normal afterward except one animal dies after the initial dose. Necropsy results show that there were toxic drug levels in this animal’s bloodstream. Which of the following conditions may best explain this situation?
A- The drug is highly toxic in this species
B- The animal’s intestinal lining was abnormal and did not allow the drug to be absorbed.
C- The animal’s liver function was impaired
D- The animal was sensitized to the drug

A

C- The animal’s liver function was impaired.

47
Q

What term refers to when the response of the combined effects of drugs is more than the sum of the drugs given separately?
A- Synergism
B- Antagonism
C- Potentiation
D- Additive

A

A- Synergism

48
Q

What is one way to ensure that personal bias does not affect the selection of experimental and control animals?
A- Co-house experimental and control animals together in the same cage
B- Randomize the selection of animals for the experimental and control groups
C- Select the animals for each group using a committee of independent auditors
D- Verify that experimental and control animals have the exact same body weights at the outset of the study

A

B- Randomize the selection of animals for the experimental and control groups

49
Q

Isolators prevent microorganisms from reaching the animals housed inside. What is this process known as?
A- Prevention
B- Exclusion
C- Containment
D- Inclusion

A

B- Exclusion

50
Q

Which of the following describe effects of phenothiazine tranquilizers?
A- Muscle tension
B- Increased anxiety
C- Peripheral vasodilation
D- All of the above

A

C- Peripheral vasodilation