Trans 047 Pharma Doc Torres Flashcards

1
Q

• Old sedatives • Category D drugs in pregnancy

A

barbiturates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

contraindications to barbiturates?

A

Contraindications: Porphyria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

most common AE of barbiturates is

A

porphyria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

an attack of porphyria may manifest as?

A

an attack, manifested by severe abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, psychiatric disorders, and neurologic abnormalities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

DOC for Febrile Epilepsy?

A

barbiturates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

only barbiturates available in the PH. long acting?

A

PHENOBARBITAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

short acting barbiturates?

A

pentobarbital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

intermediate acting barbiturate?

A

secobarbital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Evidence of human fetal risk has been documented, but the benefits to the mother may be acceptable despite the risk to the fetus. Drugs in this class may be used in pregnancy if the benefits to the mother outweigh the risk to the fetus (i.e. a life threatening situation or a serious disease for which safer medication cannot be used or are not efficacious). Examples of medications in this class are phenytoin, valproic acid and phenobarbital.

what category of drug?

A

Category D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Studies in animals have revealed adverse effects on the fetus and there are no controlled studies in women, or studies in women and animals are not available. Drugs from this class can be given to pregnant women if the benefit to the mother outweighs the risk to the fetus. Examples of medications in this class are diltiazem and spironolactone.

what category

A

category C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Bind selectively to a subgroup of GABA-A receptors, acting like benzodiazepines to enhance membrane hyperpolarization

what drug?

A

benzodiazepine GABA A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

which benzodiazepine GABA A:

• No active metabolites • Available in 5-10 mg per ta

A

Zolpidem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

which benzodiazepine GABA A:

• Inhibit aldehyde dehydrogenase • 5-20 mg per capsule

A

Zaleplon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

which benzodiazepine GABA A:
• Minor active metabolite
• Available in 1-3 mg per tablet
 Most potent

A

Eszopiclone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  • Anxiolytics – treatment for anxiety

* Category B drugs in pregnancy

A

5-HT-1A AGONISTS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

a serotonin receptor subtype located in presynaptic and postsynaptic membranes.

A

5-HT-1A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Either animal‐reproduction studies have not demonstrated a fetal risk but there are no controlled studies in pregnant women, or animal studies have demonstrated risk to the fetus that was not confirmed in controlled studies in pregnant women in the first trimester and there is no evidence of a risk in later trimesters. Medications in this class are generally considered safe. Examples of medications in this class are acetaminophen and amoxicillin

what category?

A

Category B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

which 5HT1A?

Most commonly used and the only one available in the Ph
• 5-10 mg per tablet BID/TID

relieves anxiety without causing marked sedative, hypnotic, or euphoric effects.

A

Buspirone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

 Before, it was an herbal plant, now it is approved as a hypnotic  Activates MT1 and MT2 receptors in suprachiasmatic nuclei in the CN. Promotes rapid onset of sleep with minimal rebound insomnia or withdrawal symptoms

A

M1-M2 Agonist (melatonin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

• DOC for Insomnia and Jetlag • 8 mg per tablet • Category C drugs in pregnancy

A

Ramelteon (M1-M2 Agonist)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Most commonly used sedative

Most potent but non-addicting • Toxic dose – 100 mg

A

BENZODIAZEPINE GABA-Cl (Chloride)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

MOA benzodiazepine GABA cl

A

MOA: Bind to specific GABA-A receptor subunits at central nervous system (CNS) neuronal synapses facilitating GABA-mediated chloride ion channel opening frequency. Also enhance membrane hyperpolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

antidote for BENZODIAZEPINE GABA-Cl (Chloride)

A

FLUMAZENIL (BDZ-Antagonist)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

approved for use in reversing the CNS depressant effects of benzodiazepine overdose and to hasten recovery following use of these drugs in anesthetic and diagnostic procedures. MOA: Antagonist at benzodiazepine binding sites on the GABA-A receptor

A

FLUMAZENIL (BDZ-Antagonist)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

BENZODIAZEPINE GABA-Cl (Chloride) has Additive depressant effects with:

A

Additive depressant effects with: Alcohol, Anti-H1 (anti-histamine), Anti-HPN  When added to alcohol, it causes more depression that’s why additive effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

BENZODIAZEPINE GABA-Cl (Chloride) that is

active?;

very active?

A

CHLORDIAZEPOXIDE

DIAZEPAM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

BENZODIAZEPINE GABA-Cl (Chloride) that is

• Long half-life

A

FLURAZEPAM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

BENZODIAZEPINE GABA-Cl (Chloride) that is

Rapid-acting; most rapid ?;

slow acting? ;

Short-acting; shortest
 Commonly used in the elderly

A

alprazolam

temazepam

Triazolam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

BENZODIAZEPINE GABA-Cl (Chloride) that are pro drug?

A

CLORAZEPATE
OXAZEPAM
LORAZEPAM
NITRAZEPAM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

peptides found in specific hypothalamic neurons that are involved in the control of wakefulness and that are silent during sleep.

increase in the day and decrease at night.

Loss of this neurons is associated with narcolepsy, a disorder characterized by daytime sleepiness and cataplexy. Animal studies show that orexin receptor antagonists have sleep-enabling effects.

A

OREXIN A and B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Blocks binding of orexins, neuropeptides that promote wakefulness, thus, promoting sleep onset and duration.
 Newer hypnotic drugs
• AE: Somnolence

A

Orexin Antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Example of Orexin Antagonist

A

SUVOREXANT / Almorexant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
Old drug but still used today 
• Cyclic ureides
 • Blocks Na, K, and Ca channels 
• GABA potentiators (inhibitory) 
• AE (oral): gingival hyperplasia
A

PHENYTOIN ORAL / FOSPHENYTOIN IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

a sodium channel-blocking antiseizure drug that acts in a similar fashion to carbamazepine and other agents in the class.

is effective in preventing focal onset seizures and also tonic-clonic seizures, whether they are focal-to-bilateral tonic-clonic (secondarily generalized) or occurring in the setting of an idiopathic generalized epilepsy syndrome.

A

PHENYTOIN ORAL / FOSPHENYTOIN IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Tricyclic anti-depressant
• AE: bone marrow depression, aplastic anemia

is one of the most widely used antiseizure drugs despite its limited range of activity as a treatment for focal (partial onset) and focal-to-bilateral tonic-clonic seizures. It was initially marketed for the treatment of trigeminal neuralgia, for which it is highly effective; it is usually the drug of first choice for this condition.

a mood stabilizer used to treat bipolar disorder.

A

Carbamazepine

36
Q
  • Cyclic ureides

* For febrile epilepsy/convulsion

A

PHENOBARBITAL

37
Q

 This is a new drug. The next couple of drugs are also new • For infantile spasms

A

VIGABATRIN

38
Q
  • Blocks the voltage-gated Na and Ca channels
  • Also inhibits the neurotransmitter Glutamate
  • Used in Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome
  • AE: Life-threatening dermatitis in children
A

LAMOTRIGINE

39
Q
  • NMDA and GABA-A blocker
  • Used in Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome
  • AEs: Aplastic anemia, hepatitis
  • Not commonly used
A

Felbamate

40
Q
  • Used for Diabetic Neuropathy and for pain in herpetic neuralgia and for neurologic pain
  • Aka “Gabapentinoids”
A

GABAPENTIN / Pregabalin

41
Q

bind avidly to α2δ, a protein that serves as an auxiliary subunit of voltage-gated calcium channels but may also have other functions.

which drug?

A

GABAPENTIN / Pregabalin

42
Q

• Blocks glutamate, GABA and Calcium channels • Also inhibits the synaptic vesicle glycoprotein 2A (SV2A)  SV2A is prototype synaptic vesicle protein regulating action potential-dependent neurotransmitters release

binds selectively to SV2A, a ubiquitous synaptic vesicle integral membrane protein, which may function as a positive effector of synaptic vesicle exocytosis. Binding to SV2A in the vesicle reduces the release of the excitatory neurotransmitter glutamate during trains of high-frequency activity.

A

Levetiracetam

43
Q

• Not commonly used

AEs: blue-colored vision and retinal detachment

A

Tiagabine / Retigabine

44
Q

• They undergo phosphorylation • Blocks Na and Ca channels, GABA and Glutamate

likely acts through several cellular targets, which may account for its broad-spectrum activity in epilepsy and migraine.
Possible sites of action relevant to its clinical activities are (1) voltage-gated sodium channels; (2) GABA-A receptor subtypes; and (3) AMPA or kainate receptors. • Also used in Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome
• Used for migraine and absence infantile spams • AEs: Myopia and glaucoma
• Teratogenic for pregnant women – causes Hypospadia

A

TOPIRAMATE

45
Q

• Blocks voltage-gated Na and Ca channels • Used for myoclonias and cognitive impairment

A

Zonisamide

46
Q

• Amino acid related • Blocks voltage-gated Na channel • Does not bind to Benzodiazepine Nuclear Factor (BDNF)

A

Lacosamide

47
Q

• Commonly used in the US for myoclonic epilepsy in children known as Dravet’s Syndrome (discovered in 2007) • 10 mg/kg/day

A

Stiripentol

48
Q

(severe myoclonic epilepsy of infancy) is a rare genetic epileptic encephalopathy characterized by diverse generalized and focal seizure types, including myoclonic seizures, tonic-clonic seizures, absence seizures, atonic seizures, and one-sided hemi-convulsive and focal seizures.

A

Dravet’s Syndrome

49
Q

• Trample-derivative • Blocks GABA and Na channels • Used for Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome for children 4 years and above

A

Rufinamide

50
Q

 Banned already because it produces euphoria, SLE1, and SJS2, severe ang adverse effects kaya na-ban
 Dati ito ang DOC for petit mal
• Cyclic ureides – Ca/K  Blocks calcium and potassium

A

ETHOSUXIMIDE

51
Q

is a first-line broad-spectrum antiseizure drug that is thought to offer protection against many seizure types. In addition, it is used as a mood stabilizer in bipolar disorder and as prophylactic treatment for migraine.

A

VALPROIC ACID/VALPROATE Na

52
Q

• Block NMDA/GABA/Na – effective in all types of epilepsy
 Used in grand mal, petit mal, & myoclonic epilepsy

• AE: Hepatotoxic – to prevent hepatotoxicity you have to use a fat burner which is L-Carnithine

• Teratogenic: causes spina bifida, cardiovascular abnormalities, orofacial abnormalities, digital abnormalities
 Pinaka-prominent is spina bifida (board question)
 DOC ngayon for petit-mal

A

VALPROIC ACID/VALPROATE Na

53
Q

• IV push 20-30mg STAT
 DOC for status epilepticus (emergency epilepsy)
 Overdose: 100mg

A

DIAZEPAM

 How many times can you use diazepam IV? 3 injections lang. Every 15 minutes.

54
Q

given intravenously is a first-line treatment for status epilepticus. It is also used in a rectal gel formulation for the treatment of acute repetitive seizures (seizure clusters). The drug is occasionally given orally on a long-term basis, although it is not considered very effective in this application, because of the development of tolerance.

A

DIAZEPAM

55
Q

More commonly used in the treatment of status epilepticus because it has a more prolonged duration of action after bolus intravenous injection.

A

LORAZEPAM

56
Q

• IV • Freely soluble • Used as an alternate drug  Water-soluble prodrug of phenytoin that may have a lower incidence of purple glove syndrome. This phosphate ester compound is rapidly converted to phenytoin in the plasma and is used for intravenous administration and treatment of status epilepticus.

A

FOSPHENYTOIN

57
Q

DRUG FOR MYOCLONIC/INFANTILE SPASMS

A

Clonazepam
Nitrazepam
Stiripentol

58
Q

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

A

Acetazolamide

59
Q

rarely used for chronic therapy because tolerance develops rapidly, with return of seizures usually within a few weeks. The drug is often used in the intermittent treatment of menstrual seizure exacerbations in women. The usual dosage is approximately 10 mg/kg/d to a maximum of 1000 mg/d.

A

Acetazolamide

60
Q
  • 4:1 • Sinemet/Parcopa • 1 hour before meals
  • Enter the brain via (L-A.A.Tr)

They are not the DOC because Levodopa is usually broken down in the periphery that’s why it is combined with Carbidopa to prevent the peripheral conversion of Levodopa to Dopamine

A

levodopa/carbidopa

61
Q

Contraindication of levodopa/carbidopa

A

• CI: Malignant Melanoma, Angle Closure Glaucoma, Peptic Ulcer Disease, and Psychosis

62
Q

acting directly on postsynaptic dopamine receptors may have a beneficial effect in addition to that of levodopa. Unlike levodopa, they do not require enzymatic conversion to an active metabolite, act directly on the postsynaptic dopamine receptors, have no potentially toxic metabolites, and do not compete with other substances for active transport into the blood and across the blood-brain barrier.

A

Dopamine Agonist

63
Q

DOC for PD?

A

DOC: Dopamine agonists (Ergot & Non-ergot)

64
Q

Ergot DopamineAgonist

A

BROMOCRIPTINE ; PERGOLIDE; Cabergoline

65
Q

Ergot dopamine agonist that is a

D2 Agonist:

Directly stimulates both D1 and D2?

A

Bromocriptine

Pergolide

66
Q

what are the adverse effect of ergot alkaloids

A

Erythromelalgia
 Marked reddening of the skin
 Also produce ergotism (St. Anthony’s Fire) characterized by mental retardation, peripheral vasospasm
 Abortifacient

67
Q

Non ergot dopamine agonists? (3)

A

Pramipexole Ropirinole, Quinagolide

68
Q

D3!

it has preferential affinity for the D3 family of receptors. It is effective as monotherapy for mild parkinsonism and is also helpful in patients with advanced disease, permitting the dose of levodopa to be reduced and smoothing out response fluctuations.

A

Pramipexole

69
Q

a relatively pure D2 receptor agonist that is effective as monotherapy in patients with mild disease and as a means of smoothing the response to levodopa in patients with more advanced disease and response fluctuations ▪ D2

A

Ropirinole

70
Q

Contraindications of Non ergot

A

Psychosis, Myocardial Infarction, Peptic Ulcer Disease, Peripheral Vascular Disease

71
Q

Adverse effects of Dopamine Agonist?

A

ADR of Dopamine Agonists: Mental Impulse (gambling, shopping, excessive eating, bulimia nervosa, hypersexuality)  Due to the accumulation of dopamine in the brain

72
Q

Monoamine oxidase A metabolizes ___________; monoamine oxidase B metabolizes _________

A

norepinephrine, serotonin, and dopamine

dopamine selectively.

73
Q

A selective irreversible inhibitor of monoamine oxidase B at normal doses (at higher doses it inhibits monoamine oxidase A as well), retards the breakdown of dopamine.

A

Selegiline

74
Q

Another monoamine oxidase B inhibitor, is more potent than selegiline in preventing MPTP-induced parkinsonism and is being used for early treatment in patients with mild symptoms.

DOC for excessive dopamine accumulation.

A

Rasagiline

75
Q

Very effective combination lalo na if L-DOPA + C-DOPA is not effective anymore for PD?

A

L-DOPA,+ C-DOPA + ENTACAPONE (STALEVO)

76
Q

o Subcutaneous
o Off-periods o Rescue drug – 10mg
o Before the attack of parkinsonism you can use apomorphine
o Drug-induced nausea
 Produce nausea and vomiting during off periods

A

Apomorphine

77
Q

o Anti-adenosine (A2a)  Antiviral drug; it is not anymore used o ADR: Livedo reticularis  They block your NMDA also

may potentiate dopaminergic function by influencing the synthesis, release, or reuptake of dopamine. It has been reported to antagonize the effects of adenosine at adenosine A2A receptors, which may inhibit D2 receptor function.

A

Amantadine

78
Q

These agents may improve the tremor and rigidity of parkinsonism but have little effect on bradykinesia.  Anti-muscarinic to prevent the abnormal movement and tremor of parkinsonism

A

Anti M1

79
Q

Examples of Anti M1

A

o BENZTROPINE o BIPERIDEN o TRIHEXYPHENIDYL

80
Q

Treatment for tremors?

A

• Propranolol/Metoprolol • Topiramate/Alprazolam/Gabapentin

81
Q

Treatment for huntignton’s

A

• abnormal dancing movement due to abnormality in chromosome 4 • Reserpine/Tetrabenazine – Cerebral dopamine depletion • Haloperidol/Fluphenazine/Olanzapine – Dopamine Blockers

82
Q

Treatment for Hemiballismus

A

• Botulinum toxin alpha/ Botulinum toxin type A (BoNT-A), subcutaneous (SC)  a new drug for Hemiballismus

83
Q

treatment for Tics (Gilles De La Tourette’s)

A

• Uncontrolled movement of the head, body, and extremities
• BoNT-A SC
• Haloperidol/Pimozide/Aripiprazole – D2 Blockers
• Clonidine – A2 agonist
• Clonazepam/Carbamazepine
 You can use whichever is available

84
Q

treatment for Dyskinesia and Dystonia?

A

• Benztropine IV (for abnormal motor movements)
Diphenhydramine IV (anti-allergy)
• Diazepam IV  Again, whichever is available.

85
Q

RESTLESS LEG SYNDROME/SLEEP DISORDER • discomfort in the legs and arms (Pregnant, uremic, a sign of diabetic neuropathy)

treatment?

A

Ropirinole/pramipexole/Gabapentin/Clonazepam

86
Q

• Due to excess copper in the brain, tissues; affects the pancreas and the eyes  Characteristic symptom: Kaiser-Fleischer ring

A

Wilson’s Disease

87
Q

DOC for wilson’s disease

A

DOC: D-penicillamine