Things I forget 2 Flashcards
what are the 4 conditions that are associated with neohritic syndrome
- igA nephropathy
- post infections
- goodpastures (anti GBM)
- wagners (C- anca)
endocarditis tx
native
subacute
PV
nafcillin + gent
ampcillin + gent
Vaco + Rifampin + Gent
JNC 8 what is the goal HTN
- <140/90
2. If > 60 yo: 150> 90
tx for esophageal verices
- endoscopic ligation
- octreotide
meningitis tx
1m - 50 year
Ceftriaxone + Vanco 398
meningitis tx
> 50 year
Ceftriaxone + ampcillin 398
meningitis tx
< 1 m
Cefotaxime + ampcillin 398
tx of osteomyelitis in adults
nafcillin + Vanco
tx of osteomyelitis in sickle cell
ceftriaxone + cipro
what is the gold standard for osteomyelitis
bone aspiration
tx septic arthritis 2 +
Nafcillin + Vanco
CAP OP 2 CAP IP CAP ICU 2 HAP aspiration
- azithro OR Doxcy
- (azithro + Doxcy) OR Levo
- Ceftriaxone + Levo
- Zozyn + Levo
- Clinda
what condition is associated with erythema multiform
herpes
what is the Tx for diverticulitis
cipro+Flagyl
what labs are associated with CUC
P anca
rice water stools
vibro choleare
vibro choleare tx
supportive
tetracycline
enterotoxogenic e coli tx 2
fluids
fluorquinolones
Campylobactor enteritis tx
erythromycin
salmonella diarrhea tx
cipro
enterohemorragic ecoli E 0157H7
primary transmission
undercooked beef
frothy greasy diarrhea
Giardia lamblia
enterotoxogenic e coli tx 2
fluids
fluorquinolones
what is travelers diarrhea that is trasmitted via water
enterotoxogenic e coli
what type of vision loss with DM
central
what are the three tx for acute closed angle glaucoma
- acetazalamide
- Beta blocker
- cholinergics (pilocarpine)
precancerous hyperkeratosis due to chronic irritation of the mouth, cannot be scraped off
oral leukoplakia
- Flashing lights
- floaters
- curtain coming down
- loss of central vision
retinal detachment
redness
poor vision
pain increased with EOM
orbital cellulitis
Small yellow white spots around the rim
- Drusen
macular degeneration
oral hairy leukoplakia cause
EBV
bacterial conjunctivitis tx contact lens use
- cipro
what is the subjective / popcorn with amaurosis fugax
curtain coming down
prearicular lymphadenopathy
viral conjuntivitis
ages for AOM
- 6 - 18 months
what causes oral hairy leukoplakia
EBV
painless white plaque on lateral tongue
oral hairy leukoplakia
oral hairy leukoplakia TX
none
how often is erythroplakia cancer
often 90%
what duct is stensens duct
parotid
how do you tx sailithiasis
hard candies
lacy leukopnakia of the oral mucosa
oral lichen planus
oral lichen planus tx
steroids
swelling of the upper neck with pus on the floor of the mouth
ludwigs angina
causes of bacterial meningitis
- < 1 month
- 1mo - 18 years
- 18-50 years
- > 50
- < 1 month: strep agalanctate
- 1mo - 18 years: N. Meningitidis
- 18-50 years: strep pneumo
- > 50: strep pneumo
TX for of bacterial meningitis
- < 1 month
- 1mo - 18 years
- 18-50 years
- > 50
- < 1 month: ampcillin + cefotiaxieme
- 1mo - 18 years: Ceftriaxone + Vancomycin
- 18-50 years: Ceftriaxone + Vancomycin
- > 50: Ceftriaxone + ampcillin
lip smaking what type of seizure
complex partial
what are the three components of the GCS
- eyes
- verbal
- motor
what type of DTR with HYPO thyroid
decreased DTR
what is cushing reflex 3
- irregular respiration
- HTN
- Bradycardia
SCI - Motor: Loss Lower - pain, temo, light touch: Lower - bladder dysfunction (what region)
- anterior
SCI - Motor: Loss upper - pain, temo, light touch: upper - shawl distribution (what region)
- central
SCI
- Loss of vibratory sense only
(what region)
- posterior
what side of the the brain is a stroke that is dominated by aphasia
- left
how to manage TIA 2 meds
- asprin
- plavix
if you think it is bacterial meningitis what should you do
- start ABX
How is crypotcoccius transmitted
pigeon / bat droppings
Bird / Bat droppings
cave exploring
mississippi ohio
histoplasmosis
crypotcoccius tx (2 + 1 )
(amphotericin B + flucytosine) 2X weeks
followed by oral Fluconazole
what pathogen is associated with the india ink strain
cryptococcosis
what ts the tx for tetanus
- metronidazole + tetnus IG
what is the most sn and specific for HSV -1 and HSV - 2 Dx
PCR
what are the two aids illnesses at < 100
- toxoplasmosis
- cryptococcius
what are the two aids illnesses at < 50
MAC
CMV
Screening Breast cancer
- no history
- history
- 50-75 every 2 years
- 40 every 2 years
(282)
screening for CRC
- age risk
- 1st degree < 60
- 1st degree > 60
- age risk: 50 Q-10
- 1st degree > 60: 40 Q 10
- 1st degree < 60: 40 Q 5
what is the triad for adult PCKD
- flank pain
- palpable mass
- HTN
what block has a progressively longer PR with drop beats
II-A
bronchial carcinoid tumor tx 2
octreotide
resection
what are the 4 types of pulmonary HTN
- idiopathic
- due to left heart disease
- due to COPD
- due to PE
“thumb sign”
acute epiglottis
barking cough
croup
how do you tx ARDS
PEEP
cornerstone of tx for bronchiectasis
bacrium
what two abx are big for psudomonas coverage
- Bactium
- cipro
bronchial carcinoid tumor tx
- surgical excision
- octriotide
what breathing pattern is a resonse to hypercarnea
cheyne stokes
what is the acronym for metabolic acidosis
MUDPILERS
what test for scleroderma AB
anti centromere AB
what fat pad is always abnormal
posterior
how do you you tx scleroderma
DMARDS
what is the test for a DVT manual
homans
what is the test for achilles ruputre
thompson
what are the 5 types of invasive infectious diarrhea
- Campylobactor enteritis
- shigella
- salmonella
- enterohemorragic ecoli E 0157H7
how do you tx growth hormone producing tumors
octreotide
endoscopy is AKA
EGD
what is quad therapy for PUD
- PPI
- Bismuth subsalicyalate
- tetracycline
- metronightazole
what is the only hereditary syndrome that increased direct Bili
Dubin Johnson
what comes first Ig- G or Ig- M
IG- M
what is the ROME criteria 4
dx for IBS 1 day a week for the past 3 months
- related to defication
- change in frequency
- chnage is stool form
how do you dx CUC
flex sig
what is erythyma multiform
it’s a type IV hypersensitibvy skin reaction
3 MC triggers for erythema multiformin
- sulfonamides
- penicillin
- phenbarbital
what are the two MC drugs to cause SJS
- sulfa
- anticonvulsants
target lesion
Erythema multiformin
Erythema multiformin TX
steroids
what are the DTR with HYPERcalcemia
decreased DTR
what is the DTR with GBS
hypo
DTR with Hyperthyroid
increased
what are - trousseau's - chvosteks - Increased DTR associated with
HYPOcalcemia
3 tx for HYPERcalcemia
- Fluids
- fursemide
- bisphosphenates
Flat T waves
U waved
HYPOkalemia
peaked T waved
HYPERkalemia
what are the 3 tx for HYPER-Kalemia
- calcium gluconate (stabilized the membrane)
- Insulin
- albuterol
test for adisons
ACTH stimulation test
test for cushings
dexamenasone supression
aldoderone is what type of corticoid
mineral
what are the two subjective reports for prolactin tumor
- amenorrhea
- galactorrhea
prolactin tumor tx 2
carbogaline
bromocriptine
what has mental status changes DKA or HUS
HUS
3 DKA Tx
- fluids
- insulin
- postassium
what P is most affected with MEN
parathyroid
Antistreptolysin O antibody tests what
Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis
what is group A strep
strep pyogenys
what type of kidney stone cannot be scene on KUB
- uric acid
that is why the test of choice is a CT
consists of maladaptive behavioral or emotional symptoms. These follow a stressful life event and occur within three months and end within six months.
adjustment disorder
first step in tx HYPERkalemia
Calcium gluconate
- stabilize the membraine
what meds do you want to avoid with WPW syndrome
- Adenosine
- Beta blocker
- CCB
- Dige
how do you tell a functional rhythm
no P waves (16)
how long betaeen nitro
5 min
shayne stokes breathing associated with
CHF
most useful test for CHF
Echo
3 tests for CHF
- echo
- CXR
- B NP
what is the PCWP that is consistent with CHF
> 18
what is a non infectious condition that can cause pericarditis
SLE
what position is best to hear a pericardial friction rub
expiration leaning forward
tx for dresslers 2
- aspirin
- cholachasine
- muffled heart sounds
- low voltage QRS
- electrical alternans
- pericardial effution
what is pulses paridoxis
> 10mm hg systolic increase with inspiration
what pathology requires an immedate pericardial centesis
- tampanode
opening snap
Mitral stenosis
what are the 2 major criteria for endocarditis
- echo
- clutures
what is the major and minor break down
2 major
1 major 3 minor
5 minor
