Therapeutic Modalities Flashcards

1
Q

longboy tank

A

a tank that allows for long sitting with water up to mid thoracic level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

highboy tank

A

tank allows for water to be a chest height for large extremities; hips and knees to be submerged while flexed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

hubbard tank and contraindications

A

full body immersion

unstable blood pressure and incontinence
- should not exceed 100*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how hot should a therapeutic pool be ?

A

79-97*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what should be the temperature for acute inflammation of distal extremities ?
Exercise?
wound care/ spasticity?
Cardiopul compromise and burns?

A

inflammation: 32-79*
exercise: 79-92*
wound care/ spacitisy: 92-96* (low 90s)
Cardiopul compromise and burns: 96-98* (high 90s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how hot should water be for pn mgmt? chronic OA/RA and ROM ?

A

pn mgmt 99-104

chronic OA RA and ROM 104-110

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What requires the hottest and lowest water temps?

A

Acute inflammation in distal extremity = lowest

Chronic OA/RA and ROM = highest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are pool therapy advantages and considerations?

A

Advantages:

  • decreased WB 2/2 buoyancy
  • improved therapist handling
  • better control over resistance
  • decreased risk of falling

-therapist must remain with pt at all times to monitor vital signs and activity tolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Who is pool therapy recommended for ?

A
  • arthritis
  • MSK injury
  • neuro deficits
  • SCI
  • CVA
  • MS
  • selected CV dx
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Who is at an increased risk with hydrotherapy ?

A

hypotension ; increased risk for fainting
antihypertensive ie beta blockers
-Immersion of large body areas in warm or hot water can induce hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what temps should be used for contrast bath ?

A

hot: 104-106 for 3-4 mins (low 100s)
cold: 50-60 degrees 1 min
25- 30 mins in total

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the therapeutic effects of traction

A

decreased:
- disk protrusion
- pain

Increased:

  • joint mobility
  • relaxation
  • soft tissue elasticity
  • arterial, venous lymphatic flow
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are indications for traction

A
Disc herniation
 joint hypomobility
 muscle guarding
 muscle spasm
 narrowing of the intravertebral foramen
Nerve root impingement
osteophyte formation 
subacute joint inflammation/ pain 
contracture of spinal ligaments and connective tissue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are contraindications for traction

A
Acute inflammation 
acute sprain or strain
 aortic aneurysm 
bone diseases 
cardiac/pulmonary problem
 movement contraindications or symptom exacerbation  dislocation 
fracture 
Hiatal hernia
 radicular symptoms
 joint/bone infection
Meningitis 
osteoporosis 
peripheralization of symptoms
 \+ Alar ligamentor  vertebral artery test
 pregnancy 
advanced RA 
 subluxation 
TMJ pain
 trauma without other med conditions ruled out 
 tumors
 vascular condition
vertebral joint instability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what does traction in supine result in? L and C spine

A

greater separation of the posterior structures including facets and intervertebral foramen

  • traction most often applied in supine
  • Supine spinal stenosis 2/2 increased opening of intervertebral opening
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what does traction in extension result in ? L and C spine

A

greater separation of the anterior stxs

  • positioned in extension
  • separation of disk spaces
  • application in prone allows application of modalities
  • Prone: disk protrusions; disk can project anteriorly due to extension. Disk herniations most often occur and posterolateral direction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the procedure for lumbar traction

A

select pt position
apply traction harness
select parameters: static or intermittent, Force, duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

when is static traction indicated ? L spine

A

pt symptoms are slightly exaggerated by movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

when is intermittent traction indicated L spine

A
  • pt cant tolerate static traction
  • joint mobilization
  • calls for relax time (off) and hold times (on)
  • F during relax period is about 50% of the hold F period
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the coefficient of friction and how is it calculated? what is it for a mattress ?

A
  • constant friction force over 2 surfaces
  • mattress on body = .5 (coefficient of friction)
  • % of bodyweight below L3 (50%)x .5
  • therefore 25% of the pts body weight is needed to overcome the force of friction on mattress
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

how many lbs should be applied at the first session (recommended) for the L spine ? C- spine?

A

30 - lumbar

10 - cervical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

how much body weight should be used with traction for spasm, soft tissue or disk protrusion? L spine ? C-spine

A

lumbar: 25% of body weight
cervical: 7-10 % of BW or 11-15 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

how much body weight should be used with traction for actual separation of vertebrae in L spine ? C-spine?

A

L: 50% of bw
C: 13-20% or bw or 20-30 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

how long should traction be applied for disk related symptoms in L spine

A

10 - 30 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How would you target the upper, mid and lower cervical spine in traction

A

Upper: 0-5 flexion
Mid: 10-20 flexion
Lower: 25-35 flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

when is intermittent traction indicated for cervical traction

A
  • decrease pain

- increase ROM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

traction in the c-spine should not exceed how many lbs?

A

30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

how long should tx be for traction in the c-spine for disk related symps? other conditions?

A

10 mins or less

can extend up to 30 mins for other conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

when should the therapist check in with the patient during traction for the initial tx?

A

first 5 mins

  • check if symps worsen or peripheralize
  • parameters should be modified or stopped if persistent
  • pt should have bell or off switch
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When is static compression indicated

A
  • shape residual limbs
  • control edema
  • prevent abnormal scar formation
  • ## decr. DVT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what bandage type offers the greatest resting pressure

A

long stretch bandage
60-70 mmhg
very little working pressure (P exerted with muscle contraction)
- often used in immobile patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what bandage produces low pressure at rest and high working pressure

A

short stretch

  • not effective in flaccid or inactive limbs
  • mostly used in exercise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

when are multilayered bandages used

A

venous stasis ulcers

high resting P via use of several bandages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

when is a semiridgid bandage used? what is an example?

A
  • venous ulcer bandage that is applied wet and dries
  • unna boot
  • zinc oxide impregnated gauze
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what mmhg is used to prevent DVT

A

16-18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what mmhg is used to prevent scar tissue

A

20-30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what mmgh is used for edema control

A

30-40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

when is intermittent compression with a pneumatic device used

A

reduce chronic or post sx edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what should the inflation Pressure be for intermittent compression with a pneumatic device used

A
  • Should not exceed diastolic or systolic volume. Greater than systolic will restrict arterial bloodflow.
  • arterial capillary P is 30 mmhg, P less than this will not have effect
  • **P should be btwn 30-80 **
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what are compression indications

A
Edema 
hypertrophic scarring
 lymphedema
 new residual limb 
risk for DVT 
stasis ulcers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what are compression contraindications

A
Circulatory obstruction
 DVT 
heart failure
 infected area 
malignancy of area 
unstable or acute fracture
 pulmonary edema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are indications for electrotherapy

A
Bell's palsy 
 decreased range of motion
 facial neuropathy
 fracture
 idiopathic scoliosis
 joint effusion
 labor and delivery 
muscle atrophy/spasm/weakness
open wound/ulcer 
pain
 stress incontinence
 shoulder subluxation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are contraindications for electrotherapy

A
Cardiac arrhythmia
cardiac pacemaker 
over carotid sinus 
patient with bladder stimulator 
over pregnant uterus 
malignancy 
osteomyelitis 
phlebitis 
seizure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is current, voltage, and resistance

A

current: the flow of charge from 1 end to the other via electrons
voltage: electrical difference from + and - end

resistance: opposition of flow of ions through it
R = V/C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is direct current ? which modality uses it?

A
  • constant flow of ions from anode(-) to cathode (+) for at least 1 sec
  • polarity remains constant
  • ionto
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what is alternating current ?

A
  • polarity changes from + and -
  • change in current flow from one direction to another
  • measured in Hz; frequency of cycles per second
  • Alternating current is biphasic and can look asymmetrical or symmetrical and a sinusoidal wave
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what is pulsatile current ? which modality uses it?

A

non-continous flow of AC or DC current
either: monophasic or biphasic

monophasic each wave is (+) or (-) produces polarity effect. Each phase will be either (+) or (-). Clarity effect allows current to flow through tissue.
- (1 phase in 1 pulse)

biphasic 1 (+) and 1 (-) phase in same pulse (2 phases 1 pulse). Phases will alternate “above and below line”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what should be done to the skin before electrode placement

A

clean with soap and water

hair should be removed but not required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

small electrodes

A

increased:
current density
impedance
Decreased: current flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

large electrodes

A

Decreased:
current density
impedance
increased: current flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is current density dependent of

A

size and distance apart from other electrode

  • current is more concentrated under smaller E is 2 of unequal size are being used
  • close in proximity, current is dense superfically
  • far away in proximity, current is dense in deep tissue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what is monopolar technique

A

ionto and edema

1 active E is placed over target area (smaller), dispersive E is placed away from target area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what is bipolar technique

A

2 active E are placed on target area of = size

used in msk weakness, nueromsk facilitation, spasm ROM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what is amplitude

A

magnitude of current
peak amp= max (+) or (-) point
peak amp must be big enough to pass nerve or muscle cell threshold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

rise time

A

the time it takes to rise from 0 to peak amplituse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

phase duration

A

amount of time it take for one phase of a pulse
biphasic: 2 phases in a pulse
monophasic: 1 phase in a pulse
(pulse duration = complete a cycle.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

frequncy

A

how many pulses are in 1 sec

firing of fibers at faster rate, however same # of fibers are recruited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are the parameters for NMES: amplitude, pulse duration and frequency, duty cycle tx time.

A

Amplitude: strong enough for contraction mindfull of strengthening or post sx

Pulse duration: high enough to overcome tissue capacitance

Frequency: prodice tetanic contraction
35-50

Ramp time: Based off 6-10 seconds on-time ramp should be 1 - 4 seconds

Duty cycle 6-10 secs on time, off time should b 5x longer

Time: 10-20 mins for 10-20 contractions at max

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is more comfortable for small muscles for pulse duration? large muscles?

A

small mus: short duration

large mus: long pulse duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what happens when pulse duration is shorted?

A

a greater amplitude is required to produce the same strength of contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

When administering NMES, will high frequencies produce stronger contractions?

A

no, but will lead to more fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

conventional tens

A

provides pain relief by placing Es over painful area and stimulating a sensory but not motor response via short duration, low amplitude and high frequency.
- brief pain relief while machine is on
Used for ADLs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Acupuncture like tens

A

electrical pulses are delivered to generate muscle twitching for longer lasting pain relief via long duration, low freq, and moderate amplitude

64
Q

breif intense tens

A

long duration high freq mod amplitude

- minimize pain during therapeutic activity

65
Q

noxious tens

A

delivered only for 30 micro secs-1 sec at high amplitude

applied with probe

66
Q

what principle of heat transfer does the body use to heat itself internally?

A

convection through blood circulation

- other examples include whirlpool and fluidotherapy

67
Q

what is conversion as a principle of heat transfer

A

heating when nonthermal energy is absorbed and converted to heat
- US and diathermy

68
Q

therapeutic effects of cryotherapy

A
Decrease in:
BF to treatment area 
decreased edema
 local temperature
 metabolic rate 
nerve conduction velocity
tone 

increased pain threshold

69
Q

cryotherapy therapy indications

A
Abnormal tone 
acute or chronic pain 
acute or subacute inflammation 
bursitis
 muscle spasm 
MSK trauma
 trigger points 
tendinitis /tenosynovitis
70
Q

cryotherapy therapy contraindications

A
Cold intolerance 
called Uticaria
cyroglobulinemia
infection 
compromised area of circulation
 area of regenerating peripheral nerves
parooxysmal  cold hemoglobinuria
 peripheral vascular disease
 Reynards phenomenon 
skin anesthesia
71
Q

When is ice massage indicated

A

Small contoured area. Anti-inflammatory and stimulus to facilitate desired motor response with motor control impairment (Even though it decreases blood flow?)

72
Q

Temperature should cooling packs be stored at

A

25*

73
Q

How long should a cold pack be applied for? What is the depth of cold penetration

A

20 mins
30 mins for tissue spasticity
skin and subcutaneous tissues up to 2 cm in depth

74
Q

how often should you check on a cold pack?

A

every 10 mins, replace after 20 mins

75
Q

How long should a cold bath be used for at what temperature

A

15 to 20 minutes

55 to 64°

76
Q

Indications for a cold bath

A

Effective for cooling distal extremities with circumferential contacts and home use. However requires extremity to remain in a gravity dependent position

77
Q

Therapeutic effects of superficial thermotherapy

A

Decreased:
muscle spasm
tone

increased:
 blood flow 
capillary permeability
collagen extensibility
 local temperature
 metabolic rate
 muscle elasticity
 nerve conduction velocity
 pain threshold
78
Q

Indications for superficial thermal therapy

A
Decreased ROM 
abnormal tone 
mus gaurding/ spasm
trigger point 
subacute or chronic pain or inflamation
79
Q

Contra indications for superficial thermotherapy

A
acute trauma 
arterial disease
bleeding /hemorrhage
compromised circulation 
malignancy 
PAD 
thrombophlebitis
80
Q

What temperature are hot packs stored at

A

158 - 167*

81
Q

How many layers should be applied between the hot pack in skin

A

6-8

commercial layers are equivalent to 2 to 3 towels

82
Q

When is the max Superficial temperature reached with a hot pack when should skin checks begin. How long should treatment last

A

max temp reached: 6-8 min
check in 5 mins
15-20 mins tx time

83
Q

what is the max tissue penetration with US

A

5 cm

84
Q

what type of current does US use and what energy form does it use?

A

AC current

Electric energy to acoustic energy is delivered at certain frequencies

85
Q

what are the non thermal effects of US ?

A

increased cell permeability
increased intrcellualr Ca levels
tissue repair
promotion of normal cell fxn

86
Q

what is unstable cavitation and when does it occur

A

rupture of bubbles that are formed with US

Occurs with high intensity low frequency US

87
Q

what does a low BNR indicate

A

high quality of crystal

- less likely to experince hot spots and discomfort

88
Q

what should BNR values range from

A

2:1 and 8:1

commonly seen at 5:1 or 6:1

89
Q

what does high BNR indicate

A

transducer will have to be moved at faster rate to avoid discomfort

90
Q

what frequencies should be selected for superficial tissues in US

A

3mhz

91
Q

what frequencies should be selected for deep tissues in US

A

1mhz

92
Q

what does Frequency determine in US

A

depth

93
Q

what is duty cylce

A

the total on time divided by the total on and off time to determine 100% continuous (thermal) or 20% pulsed (non-thermaal) US

94
Q

how long should tx time be for US

A

with a size 2-3 times larger than the head, 5 mins

longer duration needed with lower Freq or intensity

if area is larger than 4x the effective radiating area ERA , dont use US

95
Q

what is IFC?

A

-Used for pain relief, increased circulation, and muscle stimulation
2 biphasic currents that intersect and are amplified when both are in the same phase.
- very comfy for pts because deep amplitude goes in the muscles and only low amplitude is affects the skin
- can be delivered with bipolar, quadripolar and quadripolar with vector scan (offers the largest tx area)

96
Q

Iontophoresis

A

Ions are delivered beyond skin barriers with direct current.

  • ions are delivered based on:
    1. ion concentration
    2. pH and current density.
  • Ions are repelled by the ion’s charge from anode or cathode
97
Q

Where are the indications for ultrasound

A

Non-thermal affects - acute and post acute conditions.

Calcium deposits
 chronic inflammation
 delayed soft tissue healing
 dermal ulcer 
joint contractures 
muscle spasm trigger points
 pain
 plantar warts 
scar tissue 
tissue regeneration
98
Q

What are the contraindications for ultrasound

A

use of thermal with acute and post acute conditions.

Active bleeding 
Decreased temperature sensation/ circulation. 
DVT
 infection
 malignancy
 breast implants 
carotid sinus or cervical ganglia 
epiphyseal epiphyseal plates in children 
eyes heart gentils 
 joint replacement
 pelvic abdominal or  lumbar in pregnant women
Pacemaker 
thrombophlebitis 
vascular insufficiency
99
Q

Therapeutic effects for diathermy

A
Altered cell membrane function 
increased:
 collagen extensibility
 metabolic rate
 muscle elasticity
 nerve conduction velocity
 pain threshold
 temperature
 vasodilation
100
Q

Diathermy indications

A
Bursitis
 chronic inflammation or pelvic inflam. disease
 decrease collagen extensibility
 degenerative joint disease
 increased metabolism (would you need this if metabolism is already increased tho?)
 tissue healing
 peripheral nerve regeneration pain
 triggerpoints 
muscle guarding/stiffness
101
Q

Diathermy contraindications

A
ACute infection/inflammation 
pacemaker
 hemophilia
 metal implants
 intrauterine device 
ishemic tissue
 low back abdominal or pelvis of pregnant women 
malignancy 
moist wound dressing
 hemorrhaging region
 eyes, testes
 pain and temperature sensor deficits
102
Q

When would you use ultraviolet light

A
Acne 
chronic ulcer/wound 
osteomalacia
 psoriasis 
sinusitis
 vitamin D deficiency
103
Q

UV ilght contraindications

A
Active radiation area 
diabetes
 herpes Symplex 
pellagra
 photosensitive medication 
skin cancer 
systemic lupus erythematosus
tuberculosis
104
Q

Iontophoresis indications

A
Pain
 calcium deposits
 fungal infection
 hyperhidrosis 
Inflammation 
 ischemia
 keloids
 muscle spasm 
myositis  ossifications 
plantar warts 
wounds
105
Q

Iontophoresis contraindications

A

drug allergies and skin sensitivity reaction to specific ions

106
Q

What’s the dosage calculated with iontophoresis

A

Current amplitude and time are multiplied. Doses range from 40 to 80 mg
IxT=Dose

40mA dose= 4mA x10min

Lower amplitude with long duration less likely to cause skin irritation and burn

107
Q

What should the polarity be set to for iontophoresis delivery

A

The same polarity as the Ion so it can be propelled (same charges repel)

108
Q

how much space should be between the electrodes in iontophoresis

A

At least equivalent to the diameter of the active electrode

109
Q

When are smaller and larger electrodes indicated for iontophoresis

A

Smaller electrodes: higher current density used for specific lesion.
Large electrodes: less well-defined defined

110
Q

What is the current range for iontophoresis

A

1-4 mA

111
Q

when does an acidic reaction occur with iontophoresis

A

Hydro chloric acid under the positive electrode anode

112
Q

when does an alkaline reaction occur with iontophoresis

A

Sodium hydroxide under the negative electrode

113
Q

How often should you check on a patient on iontophoresis and how can you decrease the risk of burns

A
Check every 3 to 5 minutes.
 Burn risk decreased by:
- increase electrode size of cathode relative to anode
- decrease current density 
- increase space between electrodes
114
Q

Which ions used during iontophoresis are positive

A

Copper sulfate
Magnesium sulfate
lidocaine
zinc oxide

115
Q

What is acetic acid used for?

A

Calcific deposits

Myositis ossificans

116
Q

What is calcium chloride used for with iontophoresis

A

Scar tissue keloids muscle spasms

117
Q

What is Copper sulfate used for with iontophoresis

A

Fungal infection

118
Q

What is dexamethasone used for with iontophoresis

A

Inflammation

119
Q

What is Iodine used for with iontophoresis

A

Scars

adhesive capsulitis

120
Q

What is Lidocaine used for with iontophoresis

A

Analgesia

inflammation

121
Q

What is Magnesium sulfate used for with iontophoresis

A

Muscle spasms

ischemia

122
Q

What is Salicylates used for with iontophoresis

A

Muscle/joint pain plantar warts

123
Q

What is Zinc oxide used for with iontophoresis

A

Healing
dermal ulcers
wounds

124
Q

What is electromyography

A

Evaluation of motor units; the anterior horn cell and its axon axon neuromuscular junction and muscle fibers innervated by the unit

  • Records the action potential’s for a muscle fibers during voluntary and potentially spontaneous action potential’s at rest
  • Surface electrodes biofeedback used for larger muscles small or deep muscles require indwelling electrodes
125
Q

During intramuscular MG what should a muscle at rest show? What Is an abnormal finding

A

Electrical silence, no electrical potentials

Abnormal: spontaneous potential’s during rest.

126
Q

What would an EMG show during voluntary muscle contraction

A
  • Action potential’s begin to appear shape size frequency should be assessed.
  • Increase of strength of contraction produces greater number of fibers
127
Q

What is a fibrillation potential on EMG

A

Indicative of lower motor neuron disease

a spontaneous abnormal potential

128
Q

What is a Positive sharp wave on EMG

A

-Denervated muscle disorder at rest primary muscle disease such as muscular dystrophy
a spontaneous abnormal potential

129
Q

What is a Fasciculation on EMG

A
  • Irritation/degeneration of anterior horn, nerve root compression or muscle spasm
  • a spontaneous abnormal potential
130
Q

What is a Repetitive discharge on EMG

A

-Myopathy, lesion of anterior horn cell and peripheral nerve

a spontaneous abnormal potential

131
Q

What is a Polyphasic potential on EMG

A

Voluntary abnormal potential

Myopathy muscle or peripheral nerve involvement

132
Q

What can abnormal results on an EMG indicate

A
ALS 
carpal tunnel syndrome
 Duchenne muscular dystrophy
guillain barre syndrome 
myasthenia gravis
 peripheral neuropathy 
polio
133
Q

what Does biofeedback measure

A

Electrical activity associated with muscle contraction. Not muscle contraction

134
Q

therapeutic effects of biofeedback

A
Pain reduction
 muscular relaxation 
neuromuscular control
 improve strength 
decreased muscle spasm 
decreased accessory muscle use
135
Q

What are the indications and contraindications for biofeedback

A
Indications: 
 bowel/urinary incontinence 
 cerebral palsy 
hemiplegia
 impaired motor control 
muscle spasm/weakness pain
 SCI

Contraindications:
muscle contraction is detrimental
skin irritation at electrode site

136
Q

what are considerations for biofeedback used for muscle relaxation? Tx time? (+) sign?

A

high sensitivity setting used
-active E placed close to each other at first. As pt progresses, separate Es and increase sensivitiy
Tx time: 10-15
(+) sign: decrease in visual and audio

137
Q

what are considerations for biofeedback used for muscle re-education ? Tx time? (+) sign?

A

low sensitivity setting used
- max mus contraction is perfomred, then machine is set to 66% of max contraction.
- isometric contraction held for 6-10 seconds
Tx time: 5- 10 min
(+) sign: increase in visual and audio

138
Q

Massage therapeutic effects

A
Altered pain transmission
 decreased anxiety and tension 
decreased muscle atrophy, spasm 
healing
 improve circulation/lymphatic circulation
 loosen adhesions
 decreased edema 
relaxation 
removal of metabolic waste 
stimulate reflective effects
139
Q

massage indications

A
Adhesion
 bursitis 
decreased ROM
 edema 
intermittent claudication 
lactic acid excess
 migraine/headache 
muscle spasm/cramping
 pain
 Reynards phenomenon
 scar tissue 
tendinitis 
triggerpoints
140
Q

massage contraindications

A
acute injury 
arteriosclerosis 
cancer 
cellulitis 
embolus
 infection 
thrombus
141
Q

How do you recognize CPR and adult children and infants

A

all ages: no response
Adult : no breathing or ‘no normal breathing’
child /infant: no breathing or only gasping

142
Q

CPR sequence

A

Compression>airway >breathing

143
Q

CPR compression rate

A

100-120

144
Q

CPR compression depth

A

Adult : 1-2 inch
child : 1/3 chest depth ~2in
infant: 1/3 chest depth ~1.5 inch

145
Q

CPR chest wall recoil depth

how often should CPR providers rotate ?

A

allow complete recoil btwn compressions

Health care providers rotate every 2 mins

146
Q

CPR chest compression interruption

A

<10secs

147
Q

What should a HCP perform to the airway in CPR if there is suspected trauma

A

jaw thrust

otherwise the head tilt-chin lift should be used

148
Q

compression to ventilation ratio (until airway is placed) for adult and child & infant

A

Adult 30:2 for 1 or 2 rescuers

Child/ infant: 30:2 for single rescuer or 15:2 for 2 rescuers

149
Q

Rescuers untrained or not trained enough what sort of ventilation should be used

A

None compressions only

150
Q

Ventilation for CPR with advanced airway. Who should perform this? Breaths are delivered per minute

A
  • 1 breath every 6-8 secs (6-8 breaths/min)
  • Asynchronous with chest compressions
  • Take about one second for breath
  • make sure Chest rises
151
Q

When should an AED be attached? What should be done about interruptions? When resuming CPR what should you do after AED shock?

A
  • AED should be attached as soon as possible.
  • Minimize interruptions in chest compressions before and after shot
  • resume CPR with compression immediately after shock
152
Q
Pulmonary embolism: 
Clinical presentation 
Risk factors
Diagnosis 
Treatment
A

Clinical presentation -Difficulty breathing chest pain that mimics hurt attack, rapid pulse, severe cases: circulatory instability and death

Risk factors-Immobility increase clotting factors in blood abnormal factors in vessel wall

Diagnosis-Seminary and geography, chest x-ray, lung scan, spiral CT scan

Treatment- Anticoagulant medication – heparin and warfarin

153
Q

Hypovolemic shock:
Clinical presentation
Risk factors
Treatment

A

Clinical presentation -Anxiety, altered mental state, cool clammy skin ,rapid 30 pulse ,thirst, fatigue poor oxygenation

Risk factors-Severe trauma, burns

Treatment- Pain supine legs elevated 12 inches. Control bleeding attempt to restore blood volume with infusion and balanced salt solution

154
Q

Autonomic dysreflexia
Clinical presentation
Risk factors
MGMT

A

Noxious stimuli such as: skin ulcers, UTI, bladder distention, and bowel impaction

Clinical presentation - Sweating above level of lesion, skin flushing above lesion, elevated blood pressure, blurred vision. Laying pt down is contraindicated due to exacerbation of blood pressure

Risk factors-SCI above T6

MGMT - Sit patient upright to lower elevated blood pressure. Remove tight clothing and stockings. Adjust Foley catheter

Treatment- Sit patient upright

155
Q

What are other types of shock?

A

Cardiogenic shock: heart failure managed by oxygen therapy and cardiac medication.

Septic shock: overwhelming infection leading to vasodilation. MGMT by restoring intravascular volume and identify source of infection.

Anaphylactic shock: severe sometimes fatal re-allergic reaction causing vasodilation hypotension and capillary permeability. MGMT by removing allergen