Non-systems: Equipment and Devices Flashcards

1
Q

A patient who has limited dexterity would benefit from which types of equipment for activities of daily living

A
Buttonhook.
 Door knob extender. 
Handwriting aids.
 Rocker knife. 
Socks/Shoe aid
Zipper pull - pull a zipper through a loop
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When are parallel bars indicated? Why are the indicated?

A
  • Provide maximum stability/security at beginning stages of ambulation/standing.
  • Proper fit: elbow flexion 20 - 25° grasp bars 4- 6 inches in front of body.
  • Progress out of Parallel bar as quickly as possible to increase overall mobility and decrease parallel bar dependance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When is a walker indicated?

A
  • Used with all levels of weight-bearing.
  • Significant base of support and good stability.
  • 20 - 25° of elbow flexion for proper fit.
  • Types: Rolling, hemi, reciprocal (frame will bend with UE movement), folding and adjustable with breaks.
  • Upper extremity attachment for seat platform and UE attachments are available.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what type of gait is used with a walker?

A

Walker is used with three-point gait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When are axillary crutches indicated?

A
  • all levels of WB
  • require higher coordination and use
  • proper use: 6 inches in front, 2 inches lateral to patient foot
  • proper size: 3 fingers below armpit, ulnar syloid at hand grip for 20-25* of elbow flexion
  • ## platform attachment: good for radial N injury, not fractures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what type of gait is used with axillary crutches ?

A
  • 2 point
  • 3 point
    4 point
    swing to
    swing through
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When are lofstrand crutches indicated?

A
  • all levels of WB
  • require highest level of coordination
  • proper use: 6 inches in front, 2 inches lateral to patient foot
  • 20-25* of elbow flexion
  • Hand cuff should be 1 -1 1/2 inches below olecranon process to not interfere with elbow flexion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what type of gait is used with lofstrand crutches ?

A
  • 2 point
  • 3 point
    4 point
    swing to
    swing through
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When is a cane indicated?

A
  • Provides minimal stability and support for patients
  • Mainly assist with balance
  • Straight cane should not be used for partial weight bearing
  • Small/large base canes provide larger base of support and can assist with limited WB and improve balance on unlevel surfaces
  • used on opp side of involved LE
  • Proper fit: handle at level of hand crease at ulnar styloid
  • -20-25* of elbow flexion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what type of gait is used with stright canes ?

A

2 point.
4 points.
Modified 2 point.
Modified 4 points

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

nwb

A

No weight through involved extremity.
Not permitted to touch ground.
An device is required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

TTWB

A

No weight through involved extremity toes on ground to assist with balance
An device is required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Is an assistive device required for WBAT?

A

May or may not be required patient determined amount of weight from minimal to full

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Is an assistive device required for FWB ?

A

Not required at this level but may be used to assist with balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Gaudring considerations

A
  • stand by affected side(usually), a little behind patient
  • Grasp safety belt with one hand another hand on the shoulder.
  • avoid grasping arm, may be needed
  • move is the lead foot forward as patient moves, the back leg should advance as patient ambulates
  • Anticipate potential hazards and take appropriate precautions.
  • Utilize second therapist when needed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

when is a arteriography used?

A
  • Visualize his major vessels in the body.
  • Can identify arteriosclerosis, aneurysm, vascular malformation, tumors or blockages.
  • X-ray imaging and injected contrast visualizes vessels.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

when is a arthrography used?

A

Contrast dye to visualize joints structures with injected dye into the joint.

  • Indirect used through by injecting dye into blood vessel to be absorbed by joint space.
  • peripheral joints, Hip knee ankle shoulder elbow and wrist pathology such as ligament damage or capsular tears
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

when is a bone scan used, how does it work?

A

radionuclide is injected to show areas of high bone remodeling 2/2 osteoblast take up

  • Stress fractures infection bone cancer metastasis can be shown.
  • Can identify bone disease or stress fracture with as little as 4- 7% bone loss
  • less expensive than PET
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When are CT scans used

A

Noninvasive where multiple angles are taken with circular scanner.

  • Many images are combined to produce cross-section images.
  • Most commonly used for spinal lesions and diagnostic brain studies.
  • Quick results. Used in emergency situations.
  • Multiple images and structures at the same time.
  • More Detailed images compared to x-ray
  • highest dose of radiation than other modes
  • not for pregs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

electroencephalography

A
  • epilepsy and narcolepsy
  • electrodes placed on scalp and record electrical impulses of brain activity
  • less effective than MRI for exact location of injury
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

electromyography

A

E activity of a selected muscle at rest and voluntary activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

floroscopy

A

shows motion of the body when dye is injected

  • shows motion in joint of GI tract
  • barium swallow study
  • not for pregs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what can a lumbar puncture diagnose ?

A

Guillain Barre , encephalitis, meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When is a MRI used?

A

Image soft tissue STX; muscle menisci, ligs, tumors, and internal organs

  • excellent contrast detail
  • no use of radiation
  • safe for pregs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is myelography?

A
  • contrast dye used with CT, x-ray, or fluoroscopy to image spinal stxs
  • spinal stenosis, herniated disc, spinal cord compression, infection and inflammation of meninges, tumors
  • used for those who cant have MRI on spine
  • better detail on spine than x-ray
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

when is a nerve conduction velocity test used

A

used to determine the exact extent of a nerve damage by measuring speed of E impulse
- often used with electromyography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is PET scan

A

radiography and injected nucleotide are inject to ID metabolic activity

  • nucleotide is attached to substance that target organ will use (glucose for the brain)
  • IDs maligant tumors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Ultrasound

A
  • image converted by sound wave, at speed at which they travel
  • can be used to show real time muscle movement
  • doppler US can view blood flow
  • cant pass lots of adipose, bone or air (air cavity)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what can be used to ID DV, tumors, valve dysfxn or other pathology in venous system

A

venography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what structures are radio opaque in a xray

A

white, bright
absorbing X-rays
- bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what structures are radio lucent in a xray

A

dark

- air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Spine corset

A

increases ab compression and decreases pain in low to mid back pathologies
- fabric with metal uprights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

halo vest orthosis

A
  • full restriction of cervical motion
  • used with SCI
  • pt wears halo until spine is stable
  • invasive; ring with posts are attached to vest with skull attachment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

milwaukee orthosis

A

realignment of spine with scoliosis
- custom
- extends from pelvis to upper chest
-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Taylor brace

A

thoacolumbarsacral brace
- limit trunk extension, flexion through 3 point design
(kinda looks like straight jacket w.o arms)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

thoacolumbarsacral orthosis TLSO

A

prevent all trunk motions

  • post surgical stabilization
  • ridgid shell fabricated from plastic
  • bivalve system is secured with velco
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

AFO

A
  • ankle may be lock or not to have anterior or posterior mobility at ankle
  • casted in subtalar neutral
  • commonly rx’d to peripheral neuropathy, nerve lesions or hemiplegia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

solid AFO

A
  • anterior trim line to malleoli to control Ev/IN

- control DF/PF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Articulating AFO

A
  • allows tibia to advance over foot during mid to late stance phase of gait
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

posterior leaf spring AFO

A

trim line posterior to malleoli

  • asst with DF and prevent foot drop
  • requires adequate medial and lateral control by patient
41
Q

floor reaction AFO

A

asst with knee extension during stance phase via band over calf

42
Q

craig scott knee akle foot orthosis

A

for pts with paraplegia

- allows for standing with posterior lean of trunk

43
Q

HKAFO

A

for those who have weak hip, knee, ankle and feet

  • control hip rotation, add/abd.
  • heavy restricts swing tho and to pattern
44
Q

reciprocating gait orthosis

A

derivative of HKAFO

  • cable system to advance LE in gait
  • when weight is shifted on to 1 side, system will advance opp LE
  • maily for paraplegia
45
Q

parapodium

A

standing frame to allow ot to sit

  • pre-fab frame
  • ambulation made possible by weight shift and rocking base across floor
  • used in peds
46
Q

when is a heel wedge used? when would it be placed on the lateral or medial side?

A

medial heel: to correct excess hind foot eversion
lateral heel: hindfoot inversion
- can be used for pes cavus (hind foot varus, high arch) or pes planus (flat arch, hindfoot valgus )

47
Q

when is a heel lift used

A
  • achilles tendon pathologies

- leg length discrepancy

48
Q

when would a heel cushion be used?

A

calcaneal spur or plantar fasciitis

- decrease pain

49
Q

when would a heel cup be used?

A

stabilize calcaneus in neutral position

  • can provide some shock absorption
  • calcaneal spur or plantar fasciitis
50
Q

metatarsal bar or pad

A

relieve pressure from the MT heads by transferring onto MT shafts
- metatarsalgia

51
Q

rocker bar

A

helps patient in terminal stance 2/2 limited foot mobility esp the great toe
relieves pressure in toe area for pain relief in that area

52
Q

what is an A-line, and what are considerations for a A-line (arterial line)

A
  • can take BP readings and blood sample without multiple needle pricks.
  • Very accurate vs other BP measures
  • avoid BP cuff over infusion site
  • grasp IV line pole so line is a heart level
  • avoid activity that places infusion site over heart for prolonged time
  • exercise is possible but avoid apparatus disturbance
53
Q

what is a swanz ganz catheter

A

pulmonary artery catheter
- inserted thro vein into pulmonary artery
avoid excess movement of head and neck

54
Q

is exercise possible with a swanz ganz catheter , central venous pressure, or indwelling R cathetar?

A

yes

mobility may be needed to be restricted at site of insertion

55
Q

What motion would be limited with intravenous feeding

A

shoulder flexion and ABD

  • disruption in line may lead to air embolus
  • when empty or disrupted, line may beep
56
Q

what should be avoided with intracranial monitoring

A

isometric and valsalva

  • neck/ hip flexion >90*
  • lying down in prone
  • venous drainage is maximal with head of bed elevated to 30*
  • momentary increase is normal, but sustained increase should be reported
57
Q

when a patient id on mechanical ventilation, what are they at risk for more

A

contractures, ulcers, deconditioning

58
Q

what is the difference btwn a NG tube , G tube and J tube?

A

ng: short term feeding, meds, remove gas from stomach. can irritate throat

G tube: small incision in the stomach via ab for long term feeding for risk of aspiration, neurological or anatomic inability to swallow

J tube: jejunostomy tube inserted thro jejumun bu endoscopy, ong term feeding

59
Q

where are IV usually places

A

basilic, cephalic, or antecubital superficial veins

- can also nutrients to be absorbed if GI cant absorb

60
Q

what is a central venous pressure catheter

A

measure pressure in R atrium or superior vena cava

  • evals R ventricular fxn
  • evals R atrial filling pressure
  • evals circulating volume
  • reduces need for venous puncture
61
Q

what is a indwelling R atrial (hickman) catheter

A

inserted via the internal jugular or right cephalic vein and threaded to sup vena cava or right atrium.
- longterm admin of substances into venous system; chemo, nutrients, antibiotics

62
Q

how much O2 can be delivered via nasal canula

A

6L/min

63
Q

what is a oxygen tent

A

canopy placed over head and shoulders to provide more O2 at higher level than normal

64
Q

what is a tracheostomy mask

A

placed over stoma or tracheostomy for supplemental o2

held in place with strap that goes over neck

65
Q

when would balanced suspension be used

A
  • traction on a femur fx
    requires pins, screws, and wires to be surgically inserted in bone for traction with external weight
  • reqs prolonged immobilization and can lead to skin breakdown
66
Q

what should be done before removing a foley ?

A

a balloon attachment at the indwelling end is filled with air or liquid and must be deflated before being taken out

67
Q

what does a chest tube do

A
  • inserted in chest at side

- provides suction for air, pus or muscus

68
Q

which is more commonly used for longterm mechanical ventilation support? Volume cycled ventilators OR pressure cycled ventilators

A

Volume cycled ventilators - predetermined amount of gas is given based off pts needs during inspiratory phase

pressure cycled ventilators are instead used with predetermined level of pressure

69
Q

What is the correct way to fit/measure a wheel chair for seat height?

A

measure from heel to popliteal space + ADD 2 inches to allow clearance of foot rest

70
Q

What is the correct way to fit/measure a wheel chair for seat depth

A

measure from posterior butt along lateral thigh ot popliteal fold.
SUBTRACT 2 inches to avoid pressure form front edge of seat

71
Q

What is the correct way to fit/measure a wheel chair for seat width

A

measure widest part of butt, hips of thighs.

- allows space for bulky clothing, greater trochanters or armrest clearance

72
Q

What is the correct way to fit/measure a wheel chair for back height

A

measure from seat of chair to floor of armpit while shoulder is at 90* of flexion and SUBTRACT 4 inches

  • should be below inferior angles of scap
  • consider seat cushion, have pt sit on cushion or add value to measurement
73
Q

What is the correct way to fit/measure a wheel chair for armrest height

A

measure from seat of chair to olecranon process while elbow is flexed to 90* and add 1 inch
- seat cushion will impact measurement

74
Q

Which patient type would benefit from a ultralight WC frame

A

Highly active
no need for postural support,
used for sports

75
Q

what Patient could use a standard or light weight frame

A

Able to self propel using both UE.
Adequate LE ROM,
sitting ability for comfortable sitting

76
Q

What is the difference between a one hand drive frame, amputee frame, hemi frame

A

one hand drive frame- Able to self propel with one UE

amputee frame, -Center of gravity is shifted posteriorly do the amputation, pt is able to self propel

hemi frame- Able to self propel using lower extremities

77
Q

When would you prescribe a geri chair vs a power WC

A

Geri: Patient unable to self propel or safely operate power device. Requires assistance for seated mobility

Power:Patient not able to self propel but safely operates power device. May transfer sit or have UE functional limitations

78
Q

What is the difference between reclining frame and backward tilt in space frame

A

Reclining frame for patients unable to shift wait or unable to sit upright for extended periods 2/2 moderate to severe trunk involvement

tilt in space for : Unable to sit upright or perform weight shift also has issue sliding or extensor tone

79
Q

When would you prescribe a planer or curved head rest on a wheelchair

A

Planer headrest for patients with reclining or tilt in space frame who tend to maintain hyperextended positions in upright sitting.

Curb head rests for support with lateral or backward head/neck positioning

80
Q

What determines which back inserts are used in wheelchair prescription

A
  • *amount of support needed
  • sling : No postural support. Pt has no neuromuscular deficit not intended for long-term use
  • planar back insert: mild to moderate trunk support due to tone strength or deformity related to postural concern
  • Curved back insert : moderate trunk support due to tone strength or deformity related to postural concern
  • custom molded insert: Significant trunk support due to severe postural concern.
  • removable insert: If WC needs to fold
  • insert goes above or below inferior angle of scap: below; pt has good trunk contro. above; pt requires soem spinal support
81
Q

What determines which seat inserts are used in wheelchair prescription

A

need for folding, support and stx deformity

82
Q

when would you choose a sling, planar, curved or custom molded seat?

A

sling: no postural support needed, no neuromuscular deficit not intended for long-term use
planar: no seated deformity
curved: mild- aggressive support needed to increase contact btwn seat and lower body

custom molded seat: pelvic obliquity or asymmetrical deformity

83
Q

when would a bevel front seat be needed for WC Rx?

A

pt self propels with LE

84
Q

when would you need planar lateral supports or contours/curved lateral supports in WC rx?

A

Planar lateral supports: mild- mod support 2/2 scoliosis

Contoured/curved lateral support: totl contact lateral support for significant lateral lean or scoilosis

85
Q

When would you need chest strap or chest harness in WC rx?

A

strap: anterior support for anterior sway
harness: trunk and shoulder support for anterior sway

86
Q

When would you need removable, full, or no armrests in WC rx?

A

Removable- slide board, 2 person max asst transfers or need access to wheels to propel

Full- sit> stand transfer, additional support, lap board is used

No armrests- no UE or trunk support needed by pt

87
Q

What is the difference btwn fixed/ non-removable arms or tubular/single post arms

A

single post: min support of UE, easy access to wheel to propel, easy removal

non-removable: pt requires durable UE support

88
Q

would a patient with decreased UE strength need small or large diameter wheels

A

large: for pts with weak UE, suggested for increase of power

pts with adequte strength who need speed can have snall diameter

89
Q

what type of footrests are there for WC Rx?

A

standard: full ROM in LE
adjustable: LE deformity

one piece footboard: supportive surface to maximize strength/ stability/ support

custom foot box: pts LE not inline with body midline. windswept deformity

90
Q

what is a proportional and non-proportional control on a WC?

A

proportional: allows speed control based on joystick displacement 360* directionality

non-proportional- pre-set speeds regardless of joystick displacement, must relsea in order to change directions

91
Q

which cushion will produce high shear force? Which is light weight?

A

solid cushion, typically light weight however .

An liquid/gel cushion can limit shear F, but are heavier. Air filled vary in shear F, but can be lightweight. need to monitor inflation.

92
Q

what are ramp requirements by the ADA. Length? width? hand rails? landing area?

A

12 inches of run for every 1inch or rise
% grade = rise/run x 100

36 inches wide

hand rails if rise is > 6 inches or run > 72 inches

landing area 5ftx5ft

93
Q

how wide should a doorway be?

A

min 32 width

max 24 depth

94
Q

hallway clearance by ADA

A

36 inches

95
Q

carpet and threshold by ADA

A

carpet: 1/2 pile or less

threshold 3/4 sliding doors, 1/2 inch other doors

96
Q

WC turning radius for U turn by ADA

A

60 in width

78 in length

97
Q

forward and side reach in WC by ADA

A

ex: to reach open door button
- low reach: 15 inch
- high reach 48 inch
side: 24 inch

98
Q

how high should a toilet and bathroom sink be according the the ADA

A

sink: 29-40 inches
toilet: 17-19 inches from floor to toilet top

99
Q

how big should a parking space be for handicap for ADA

A

96 width

240 length