Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Board exam review > System interactions > Flashcards

System interactions Flashcards

1
Q

What are risk factors that can contribute to obesity

A

Sedentary lifestyle
genetic predisposition
medications that increase appetite or food cravings high glycemic diet
environmental factors: smoking cessation stress abuse history
underlying illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What illness is predispose individuals to obesity

A

Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Cushing’s disease
hypothyroidism
Prader Willi syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are cardiac physiologic changes that are commonly associated with obesity

A 
Cardiomyopathy
 heart failure
 abnormal ventricular remodeling
 hypertrophy 
atrial fibrillation
 dysrhythmias
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are pulmonary physiologic changes that are commonly associated with obesity

A

obstructive sleep apnea,
asthma,
hypoventilation syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are kidney physiologic changes that are commonly associated with obesity

A

Decreased renal perfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are Genitourinary physiologic changes that are commonly associated with obesity

A

Urinary incontinence

infertility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are vascular physiologic changes that are commonly associated with obesity

A 
Altered cardiac output and stroke volume 
hypertension 
varicosities 
increase total blood volume
Venous insufficiency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are MSK physiologic changes that are commonly associated with obesity

A

Osteoarthritis

altered mobility patterns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are Adipose tissue, liver , pancreas physiologic changes that are commonly associated with obesity

A

increased adipokine production, fatty liver disease insulin resistance type two diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Is the best way to address a child’s Appearance of extra weight and the long-term health concerns

A

Conversation with child’s pediatrician is best way to determine if extra weight is truly a long-term concern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When is a child considered overweight? Obese?

A

overweight 85-94 percentiles

Obese over 95 percentile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Important factors when characterizing patients with obesity risks

A

BMI ]
hip to waist ratio
distribution of body fat
waist circumference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is lipedema

A

Undefined ideology affecting physical size and distribution of adipose cells in the body.
Appears in lower extremities of woman.
Sometimes appears as big legs and unsymmetrical body disproportions.
Patient should be educated and realistic outcome expectations and not assume weight loss or fix overall morphological proportion.
Exercise will help some

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Pear shape

A

Gluteal femoral obesity
peripheral fat distribution
common in women
associated with lower incidence of obesity related risk factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Apple shape

A

Central fat distribution
abdominal obesity
highly correlated with cardiovascular disease type 2DM
attributed to higher percentage of metabolically active visceral fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

True or false waist circumference measures may be better predictors of diabetes and cardiovascular risk then BMI alone

A 
true 
central obesity= 
> 40 males 
> 36 females 
hip to waist ratio >1 males >.85 females
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Carbohydrates

A
  • Needed for high intensity exercise
  • poor carbohydrate intake leads to protein consumption
  • main source of feul for the CNS
  • Simple carbs increase blood glucose
  • complex carbs need to be broken down before they are used, increase BG levels slower
  • glycemic index indicates how fast BG level will increase depending on carb breakdown
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Fats

A
  • Primary fuel source for low intensity exercise
  • Help protect organs, insulte body, help transport fat soluble vitamins
  • Saturated fats- animal fat, bad cholesterol LDL
  • non satureated fats: plant based fat, good cholesterol HDL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Protein

A
  • responsible for growth, and maintenance of body tissue
  • skin ligaments and muscle
  • .8 grams/ kilogram
  • There are 20 amino acids, 9 of them are essential amino acids which cant be produced by the body
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

can vitamins be prodiced by the body?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

fat soluble vitamins

A

A D E K

  • absorbed by intestinal tract
  • stored in liver and fatty tissues
  • proteins carry vitamins thro body
  • may reach toxic levels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Vitamin a

A

Essential for eyes, epithelial tissue growth development and reproduction.
Deficiency: nights blindness rough dry skin growth failure
Toxicity: appetite loss hair loss and enlarged liver/spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Vitamin D

A

Increases blood flow levels of calcium and phosphorus
Deficiency: faulty bone growth, rickets, osteomalacia.
Toxicity calcification of soft tissue, hypercalcemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Vitamin E

A

Antioxidant in cell membranes. Important for cell integrity for lungs and red blood cells
Toxicity: Breakdown of RBC
Deficiency: Decreased thyroid hormone increased triglycerides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Vitamin K

A

Necessary for at least two blood clotting proteins
Toxicity: Hemorrhage and defective blood clotting
Deficiency: cant happen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are water soluble vitamins

A 
Vitamin B2 riboflavin
 vitamin B3 Niacin
 vitamin B6 Pyridoxine 
Vitamin B12 cobalamin 
vitamin C 
biotin 
choline 
folic acid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is recommended intake for fruits a day ?

A

1.5 - 2 cups per day.

One cup = cup of fruit, fruit juice or 1/2 of cup of dried fruit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is recommended intake for veggies a day ?

A

2.5-3 cups/ day

One cup = cup of veggies or juice or 2 cups a raw leafy greens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is recommended intake for grains a day ?

A

5-8 ounces
1 ounce = 1 bread slice, cup of ceral, 1/2 cup of cooked pasta or rice
whole grains recommended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is recommended intake for protein a day ?

A

5-6.5 ounces

Ounce = cup of meat poultry fish, one egg. 1/2 ounce of nuts or seeds or 1/4 cup of cooked beans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is recommended intake for dairy a day ?

A

3 cups/ day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what physiological changes occur with pregnancy

A

weight gain 25-35 lbs
uterus ascends into ab cavity and becomes ab organ
rib expansion to make room for uterus
diaphragm elevates 4 cm
- increased depth of respiration, tidal volume, min ventilation
- increased O2 consumption 15-20% blood volume 40-50% and CO 30-60%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what p postural changes occur with pregnancy

A
  • hypotension in supine
  • ab become overstretched
  • ligs become lax
  • joints are hypermobile
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is the recommended exercise during pregnancy

A 
30 mins at 50-60 of max HR 
loose clothing 
NWB 
avoid becoming overtired and stay hydrated 
avoid supine p. 1st trimester
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

when is exercise not safe during pregnancy - relative contraindications

A

Relative:

  • Severe anemia
  • unevaluated cardiac disease disarrhythmia
  • chronic bronchitis
  • BMI < 12
  • extreme sedentary lifestyle
  • intrauterine growth restriction in current preg
  • poor controlled HTN
  • orthopedic limitation
  • poorly controlled seizures, hypothyroidism, Diabetes 1, -HTN
  • heavy smoker
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

when is exercise not safe during pregnancy - absolute contraindications

A
  • Sig hemodynamic heart disease
  • restrictive lung dx
  • incopetent cervix
  • premature labure risk
  • bleeding
  • placenta previa @ 26 weeks
  • preclampsia, preg induced HTN
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

how many more calories are required a day in pregnancy

A

300

if exercising, be aware

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

how should exercise be handed after dleivery

A

preg changes lst 4-6 weeks after delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

how can you reduce pressure on the vena cava during preg?

A

left side lying

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what types of exercises should be avoided in preg

A
  • valsalva

- ab exercises may induce contractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the three methods for in enteral administration

A

Oral: absorption into the G.I. track via mouth allows for gradual increase of drug levels that are unpredictable. Outside must be non-lipid soluble so it may pass the intestinal track and be absorbed by the lining and degraded by the liver. Lipid soluble capsule for ingestion

Sub lingual: under the tongue or between the cheek and gums so drug may be introduced to the venous circulation directly to the heart. Fast introduction four cases of acute pain like angina. Drug bypass his liver and is not overly metabolized.

Rectal administration: is for patients who are of unconscious. drugs are not absorbed as well through the rectal cavity compared to sublingual and oral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which route of administration allows for 100% bio availability

A

Intravenous administration. Inserted into peripheral vein to enter bloodstream.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is a benefit of drug inhalation for drug administration

A

Lungs offer large surface area for absorption and can enter systemic circulation rapidly. May irritate respiratory tract. Often used for treating pulmonary pathology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the difference between topical and transdermal drug administration routes

A

Topical administration is applied directly on the skin or mucous membranes. Poorly absorbed through the skin therefore is reserved for treating look like skin ear or nose disorders. Mucous membranes are able to absorb drug better and can be used to treat systemic conditions.

Transdermal: Drug is applied directly to the skin with the intention to absorb through skin and enter systemic circulation. Slow and controlled release of drug over long period of time. Use of patch through Intophoresis and phonophoresis. Drug cannot penetrate the skin if degraded by dermal enzymes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Factors affect pharmacokinetics

A 
Age. 
Weight. 
Genetics. 
Disease. 
Exercise. 
Medications. 
Food- The stomach will speed absorption into bloodstream.Food with medication to avoid gastric irritation.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Is the intention of intra-arterial administration for drugs

A

Intended to be injected in an artery to travel directly to target tissues. Difficult because drug is intended to act at specific site without affecting other tissues, chemotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What types of drug administration routes administered with injection

A

Intravenous

intra-arterial

subcutaneous-Injection directly under the skin can be useful when slow release into systemic circulation is required. Can be affected with Lynn mobility cold heat or massage.

intramuscular - Drug injected directly into muscle absorbed faster than subcutaneous injection.

intrathecal- Injected directly into the sheath like spinal meninges for drug to affect CNS without passing BBB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Bio availability

A

Percent of drug available in systemic circulation from site of original administration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Pharmacodynamics

A

Drug affects on the body on a cellular level

what to drug does to the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Pharmacokinetics

A

How drugs are absorbed distributed metabolize and eliminated by the body
- what the body does to the drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

therapeutic index

A

Compares the therapeutic effect of the drug/effectiveness with lethal effects.
-Low TI indicates risky drug making patients taking his drugs being frequently monitored for adverse reactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Patient considerations for post surgical status with side effects of general anesthesia

A

Confusion and muscle weakness. Retention of pulmonary secretions; initiate breathing exercises or postural drainage with patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are considerations for a patient who has local anesthesia

A
  • Spinal or local nerve block
  • When using a transdermal patch, avoid using heat to avoid accelerated rate of absorption.
  • Sensation and motor control may be diminished.
  • Bracing may be needed, exercises should be performed cautiously.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What consideration should be made with anti-arthritic drugs and physical therapy

A

Glucocorticoid drugs can have catabolic affects that lead to break down a tendon bone in skin.
-Be cautious with stretching and strengthening exercises to reduce risk of fracture and soft tissue injury.
-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Antiepileptic drug systemic effects considerations

A

Cerbeller side effects; ataxia common.
Loss of coordination.
Cause skin to the conditions; dermatitis

56
Q

Skeletal muscle relaxants systemic effects considerations

A
  • Sedation and muscle weakness common side effects.

- Avoid reducing spastic tone if it is functional.

57
Q

Anti-Parkinson’s drug systemic effects considerations

A

Roughly 1 hour after levodopa admin

  • Closely monitor BP.
  • May produce orthostatic hypotension and increased fall risk
58
Q

Anti-hypertensive drug systemic effects considerations

A

-Increased risk for orthostatic hypotension.

59
Q

anti- anginal drug systemic effects considerations

A
  • Due to the limitation of angina episodes some patients may have increase of exercises tolerance
  • pts taking beta blockers or Ca channel blockers will have reduced ability to tolerate higher loads
  • Increased risk for orthostatic hypotension 2/2 vasodilation
60
Q

Anti-arrhythmic drug systemic effects considerations

A

–Increased risk for orthostatic hypotension

61
Q

CHF drug systemic effects considerations

A

-Fatigue and muscle weakness associated with decreased fluid and electrolyte levels

62
Q

Anticoagulation drug systemic effects considerations

A

0Increased risk for bleeding.

– Use caution with exercises that caused tissue trauma like massage or percussion

63
Q

respiratory drug systemic effects considerations

A

-Cardiac arrhythmias
- confusion
- tremors.
– Signs of toxicity to be closely monitored.
-Mucolytic and expectorants should be taken 30 to 60 minutes prior to physical therapy

64
Q

sedative drug systemic effects considerations

A
  • pt will be calm at first, but will be drowsy at peak effectiveness.
  • Schedule accordingly for physical therapy
65
Q

antidepressants drug systemic effects considerations

A

Some drugs can negatively affect therapy with muscle weakness, sedation, increased risk for orthostatic hypotension, hypertension, monitor BP regularly

66
Q

anti-psychotic drug systemic effects considerations

A

Dyskinesia or dystonia (extra pyramidal symptoms)

67
Q

Gastrointestinal drug systemic effects considerations

A

Dizziness
fatigue
G.I. disturbances

68
Q

Adrenocorticosteroid drug systemic effects considerations

A

Glucocorticoid drugs can have catabolic affects that lead to break down a tendon bone in skin.

  • Be cautious with stretching and strengthening exercises
  • Moderate strengthening and weight-bearing exercise can decrease catabolic affects.
  • Glucocorticoids and mineral corticoid can lead to water retention and increase hypertension.
69
Q

Sec Hormone replacement drug systemic effects considerations

A

hypertension 2/2 water retention

70
Q

Thyroid drug systemic effects considerations

A

Produce side effects associated with symptoms of the opposite condition of hyper or hypo thyroidism
- Hypothyroidism: decreased cardiac function can’t tolerate workloads.

71
Q

Antibacterial drug systemic effects considerations

A

Increased sensitivity of skin and respiratory tract.

-Use caution with UV light for adverse skin reactions

72
Q

Bone regulating mineral agents

A

Action: enhance bone density, prevent bone loss and rate of reabsorption

Indication: Pagets, osteoporosis, hyper/hypo parathyroidism, rickets, osteomalacia

Side effects: GI distress dyspepsia, dysphagia, anorexia, bone pain cardiac arrhythmia

PT implication: High risk for bone FX, WB for bone formation stimulation

Examples: Estrogens(premarin), Ca+, vitamin D, (tums, calderol) biphospahtes (fosamax, boniva,) calcitonin anabolic agents (cibcalcin)

73
Q

hormone replacement agents

A

Action: normal endocrine fxn when there is a deficiency

74
Q

Antacids

A

Action: neutralize gastric acid, increase Ph in stoamch

Indication: GERD, indigestion, heart burn, peptic ulcer

Side effects: constipation diarrhea

75
Q

anticholinergics

A

Action: block Ach effect on parietal cells and stop release of gastric acid

Indication: ulcers

Side effects: dry mouth, confusion, constipation, urinary retention

Examples: gastrozepin, muscarinic cholinergic antagonist

76
Q

H2 receptor blcokers

A

Action: bind to histamine receptors to prevent histamine activated release of gastric acid release stimulated during food intake

Indication: dyspepsia, acute and long term mgmt of peptic ulcer

Side effects: headache, dizzy, mild GI distress, arthalfia,

Examples: zantac, pepcid, tagamet

77
Q

proton pump inhibitor

A

Action: block secretions of acid from gastric cells

Indication: dyspepsia, GERD, prevention of esophagus erosion

Side effects: acid rebound after discontinues use

Examples: Prevacid, nexium, protonix, AcipHex, Prilosic

78
Q

What are possible etiologies in the LUQ

A 
Gastric ulcer 
perforated colon 
pneumonia 
spleen injury/rupture 
aortic aneurysm
79
Q

What are possible etiologies in the RUQ

A 
hepatomegaly 
duodenal ulcer 
cholecystitis 
pneumonia
hepatitis 
biliary stones
80
Q

What are possible etiologies in the LLQ

A 
perforated colon 
illetis 
sigmoid diverticulitis 
kidney stone 
ureteral stone 
intestinal obstruction
81
Q

What are possible etiologies in the RLQ

A 
kidney stone 
ureteral stone
meckel diverticulum 
appendicitis
cholecystitis
intestinal obstruction
82
Q

what are examples of overactive bladder meds?

A

ditropan, detrol

83
Q

what are examples of urinary anti-infective meds?

A

used for nocturia, cystitis, burning with urination, UTI

- cinobac, furadantin

84
Q

alkylating agents

A
  • oncology mgmt
  • bind DNA strands together to prevent replication in order for cell death
  • mustargen, Busuflex
85
Q

what are neurosis disorder

A
  • characterized by fear and maladaptive strategy with stressful or everyday activity
  • not psychosis
  • no delusions
  • realize they have an issue
  • anxiety
  • ODC
  • Phobia
86
Q

what are disscociaive disorders

A

multiple personality
psychogenic amnesia
- pts dissacosites 1 part of mind from rest

87
Q

personality disorders

A

Antisocial behavior
borderline behavior
narcissistic behavior
psychopathic personality

88
Q

somatoform disorders

A

classified on physical symptoms without underlying causes

89
Q

How can you diagnose lymphedema

A

Diagnose their history physical exam and imaging techniques

90
Q

What is the difference between direct lymphography indirect lymphography and lymphoscintigraphy

A

direct lymphography - Contrast medium injected into lymph vessels to show entire lymph system through radiography. No commonly used 2/2 complications of contrast

indirect lymphography - Direction of contrast medium (water soluble) to show smaller superficial Lymph vessels

lymphoscintigraphy- More commonly used than direct lymphography to visualize lymphatic system through nuclear imaging (safer). Radioactive material is traced to to show how effective length is at being transported.

91
Q

The primary sign is of lymphedema

A

Swelling in the extremities. Lymphatic system can no longer handle volume of fluid, fluid builds up in interstitium, leads to enlarged limbs.

Patient CC: Achiness fullness and heaviness. With progression valves expand become incompetent and lead to fluid accumulation.

-Proteins will degrade and lead to chronic inflammation

92
Q

What is the progression of lymphedema

A
  • Proteins will degrade and lead to chronic inflammation
  • Fibrotic tissue changes to the surrounding tissue.
  • fibrosis results in local hypoxia
  • further chronic inflammation
  • increased risk for infection
93
Q

How do you classify lymphedema

A

Limb symmetry compared to opposite limb
-Measurements are made every 10 or 5 cm
- 7 circumference measurements are recommended for upper and lower extremities to make sure that fluid has been removed and not re-distributed
Mild <3
moderate 3–5
severe >5

94
Q

Stage 0 lymphedema

A

Clinical stage.
No visible edema.
Transport capacity of lymph system is affected

95
Q

Stage 1 lymphedema

A

Reversible lymphedema stage.
Pitting Edema.
Putting Edema increases with activity or heat and diminishes with elevation/rest

96
Q

Stage 2 lymphedema

A

Spontaneously irreversible lymphedema stage.
Edema is now non-pitting.
Edema does not change with elevation or rest.
Skin changes: fibrotic changes and risk of infection increases
Stemmer sign is +
(Stemmer’s Sign: thickened skin fold at base of the 2nd toe/finger is diagnostic sign for lymphedema. + when tissue cannot be lifted but can only be grasped as a lump of tissue; it is negative when it is possible to lift the tissue normally.)

97
Q

Stage 3 lymphedema

A 
Lymphostatic elephantiasis. 
Extensive non-pitting edema 
Significant fibrotic changes to skin.
Presence of papilloma, deep skinfold and hyper keratosis. 
Infection is common. 
Stemmer sign +
98
Q

Contraindications to complete decongestive therapy

A 
(for Manual lymphatic drainage, compression therapy, exercise and skin care)
- acute infection 
diabetes 
cardiac  edema 
hypertension 
malignancy
 DVT 
renal insufficiency
99
Q

What is the difference between lymphadenitis and lymphangitis

A

lymphadenitis- Infection/inflammation of a lymph node acute or chronic
lymphangitis- Infection/inflammation of lymphatic system pathways

100
Q

What is the difference between lymphadenomegaly and lymphadenopathy

A

lymphadenomegaly- enlargement of lymph nodes occurs secondary to cancer infection or allergic reaction

lymphadenopathy- Disease that affects size number or consistency of lymph nodes

101
Q

Risk factors for cancer

A 
Older age 
tobacco alcohol use 
gender 
virus exposure
 environmental influence 
poor diet
 stress 
occupational hazards 
ethnic and genetic background 
sexual/reproductive behavior
102
Q

what does CAUTION stand for

A

General signs and symptoms of cancer

C: change in bowel and bladder 
A: a sore that will not heal 
U: unusual bleeding/discharge 
T : Thickening lump develops 
I: indigestion or difficulty swallowing 
O: obvious change in wart/ mole 
N: nagging cough hoarseness
103
Q

Primary cancer prevention secondary cancer prevention tertiary cancer prevention

A

Primary: Elimination of modifiable risk factors, use of natural agents teas and vitamins, cancer vaccine

2nd: Detection selective preventative pharmacological agents; tamoxifen, multi factorial risk reduction
3rd: When disability from secondary cancer and treatment, manage symptoms, limit complications

104
Q

Tumor classification for epithelium tissue

A

carcinoma

adenocarcinoma for glandular tissue like prostate

105
Q

Tumor classification for pigmented cells tissue

A

malignant melanoma

106
Q

Tumor classification for connective tissues

A 
Sarcoma
 fibrosarcoma 
liposarcoma
 chondrosarcoma 
osteosarcoma
 hemangioma sarcoma
 Leiomyosarcoma (smooth muscle)
rhabdomyosarcoma (soft tissue, hollow organs, bladder)
107
Q

Tumor classification for nerve tissues

A 
Astrocytoma
 glioma
neurilemma
sarcoma
neuroblastoma
retinoblastoma
108
Q

Tumor classification for lymphoid tissues

A

lymphoma

Includes lymphatic tissues lymph nodes spleen can appear in stomach intestines skin CNS bone and tonsils

109
Q

hematopoetic tissue

A 
(Bone marrow plasma cells)
Leukemia
 myelodysplasia
 myeloproliferative syndromes 
multiple myeloma
110
Q

Stage 0 cancer

A

cancer is present only in the layer of cells it began

- not all cancers hace stage 0

111
Q

Stage 1 cancer

A
  • limited to tissue of origin no lymph node involvement
112
Q

Stage 2 cancer

A
  • malignancy spreading to adj tissues

- lymph nodes may show micro metastases

113
Q

Stage 3 cancer

A
  • spreads to deeper tissues
  • signs of fixation to deeper tissue
  • lymph involvement is high
114
Q

Stage 4 cancer

A
  • has metastasized beyond primary site

- to other bone or organ

115
Q

clinical vs pathologic staging

A

clinc: physical exam, labs, biopsy
pathologic: found during sx

116
Q

What is the most prominent type of cancer with an extremely high mortality rate

A

Pancreatic cancer

117
Q

What is the most common type of prostate cancer

A

Adenocarcinoma

118
Q

Slow growing form of skin cancer rarely metastasize

A

Basal cell carcinoma

119
Q

Accounts for approximately 15% of cancer deaths

A

Colorectal cancer

-Adeno carcinoma and primary lymphoma account for majority of intestinal cancers

120
Q

Counts for 50% of pediatric brain tumors

A

Astrocytoma

121
Q

Leukemia

A

Blood cancer occurs with leukocytes that change into malignant cells. Proliferate into Brown Marrow sees production of normal cells

122
Q

Most common malignant tumor seen in children primarily seen in adrenal glands and paraspinal ganglia

A

Neuroblastoma

123
Q

Occurs in the epiphysis of long bones most common form of bone cancer in children peak incidence of 10 to 20

A

Osteogenic Osteogenic sarcoma

124
Q

Wilms tumor

A

Neuroblastoma found in kidney. Diagnosed between 1-4 four years old

125
Q

when is Surgery indicated as an oncology treatment option

A
  • Indicated for prophylactic diagnostic or curative palliative goals.
  • Adjunct therapies destroy a residual malignant cells
126
Q

When is radiation most useful

A

-Localized malignancy.
May be used prior to surgical intervention palliatively to shrink malignant mass or postsurgically to ensure destruction of cells

127
Q

What type of therapeutic agents are included in chemotherapy?
when is it indicated

A 
Alkylating agents
 anti-metabolite agents 
steroid hormones
 plant alkaloid agents
 interferons 
 antitumor antibiotics.
-Widespread and metastatic malignancy
128
Q

What is bio therapy (immunotherapy)

A

Strengthens patient’s biological response to malignant cells.
Interferons, interleukin two, bone marrow transplant, stem cell transplant monoclonal antibodies, hormonal therapy, colony stimulating factors are used.

129
Q

What is antiangiogenic therapy for cancer

A
  • uses thalidomide to suppress blood supply formation

- blocks process of growth not destruction

130
Q

How long is heat and massage contraindicated over areas of chemotherapy and malignancy

A

12 months

131
Q

What is an affective disorder?

A 
mood/emotion disturbance 
 emotion are extreme and unrealistic 
- bipolar
-depression 
- mania
132
Q

What is a dissociative disorder?

A

person unconsciously separates/ dissociates one part of the mind from the rest

  • multiple personality
  • psychogenic amnesia - forgets all spects of the past, no physical cause
133
Q

What is a neuroses disorder?

A

Disorder with maladaptive strategy for dealing with stress and every day stimuli. Not psychosis no delusions patients realize they have a problem.
Anxiety disorder
OCD
phobia disorder

134
Q

What is a personality disorder?

A

Dysfunctional view of society and level of sadness ongoing patterns of dysfunctional behavior.
- Antisocial behavior need for attention or gang involvement.
Has some concern for others, blames institutions seen before 16 y.o old lacks responsibility emotional stability

  • Borderline behavior: Instability in all aspects of life recognizes self identity, uses projection, denial, defensiveness. Unpredictable mood, intense and uncontrolled anger
  • Narcissistic behavior: cant love,self absorbed
  • psychopathic personality low morality, little remorse, expert liar,
135
Q

what are Schizophrenia disorders

A

Psychotic in nature, disorganized thoughts, hallucinations emotional dysfunction, anxiety and perceptual impairment.
-Catatonic schizophrenia: motor response and rigid posture. Uncontrolled movement, pt is aware

  • Disorganized schizophrenia: progressive, mumbled talking and inappropriate emotional response
  • Paranoid schizophrenia: delusions of persecution, special powers
136
Q

what are somatoform disorders

A

Conversion disorder: physical complaints of neuro basis without underlying cause paralysis.

Hypochondriasis disorder. - minor illness are life threatening, excess fear of illness

Somatization disorder; woman, chronic and long lasting, symptom complaint without physiological basis, resembles hypochondriac disorder. Medications and medical visits alter patient’s life

Board exam review (23 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions