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Uworld_sitr > Test 27: Immunology/Microbiology > Flashcards

Test 27: Immunology/Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

acute hemolytic transfusion reaction is what type of hypersensitivity? Caused by

A

Type II

pre-existing anti-ABO antibodies

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2
Q

what is the clinical presentation for acute hemolytic transfusion reaction

A
  • fever and chills
  • Chest and/or back pain
  • hemoglobinuria
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3
Q

hemoglobinuria

A

red-to-brown colored urine

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4
Q

Acute hemolytic reactions occur within what timeframe

A

minutes to hours of staring blood transfusion

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5
Q

What do you do if you realize a patient has acute hemolytic reactions

A

immediate cessation of transfusion

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6
Q

Type II hypersensitivity activates what process

A

complement

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7
Q

role of C3a and C5a

A

vasodilation and symptoms of shock

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8
Q

role or MAC (C5b-C9)

A

complement-mediated cell lysis

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9
Q

Humoral component for Type I Hypersensitivity

A

IgE

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10
Q

Humoral component for Type II Hypersensitivity

A

IgG

IgM

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11
Q

Humoral component for Type III hypersensitivity

A

antibody-antigen complexes

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12
Q

Humoral component for Type IV hypersensitivity

A

NONE

Cellular component: T-cell & macrophages

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13
Q

Major adaptive immune mechanisms that prevent reinfection with influenza virus include what?

A

anti-hemagglutinin antibodies

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14
Q

What is the function of meningococcal pili (fimbriae)

A

bacterial attachment to epithelial surfaces

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15
Q

Meningococci (Niesseria meningitidis) attach to and conolize where

A

pharynx via pilus-mediated adherence to mucosal epithelial cells

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16
Q

What allows Niesseria Meningititidis to destroy mucosal antibodies

A

produced IgA protease

- inhibits bacterial attachment and penetration

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17
Q

What is the impact of Epstein-Barr virus on B cells

A
  • infect them
  • proliferate B cells continuously (immortalization)
  • Then infected B cells maintain ability to secrete immunoglobulins
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18
Q

How do you test for EBV

A

Monospot test: heterophile IgM antibodes detected by agglutination of sheep or horse RBC

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19
Q

What are cryoglobulins? It can detect what virus

A

cold-precipitable serum proteins that contain Igs

-Hep C infection

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20
Q

What is Hemadsorption

A

hemagglutinins or glycoproteins with high affinity for erythrocytes expressed on the host cell surface.

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21
Q

Papanicolaou test is used to screen what

A

cervical cytology specimens for dysplasia caused by oncogenic strains of human papillomavirus

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22
Q

How do you use Tzanck smear

A

scrape ulcer base, prepare with Wright-Giemsa stain

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23
Q

When are interferons alpha and beta produced

A

by most human cells in response to viral infections

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24
Q

Role of interferon alpha and beta

A

suppress viral replication by halting protein synthesis and promoting apoptosis of infected cells

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25
Interferon gamma is produced by who
T cells and NK cells
26
Role of interferon gamma
- promotes Th1 differentiation - increases expression of class II MHC molecules - improves intracellular killing ability of macrophages
27
Streptococcus gallolyticus former name
Strep. bovis
28
Strep. gallolyticus causes what? associates with what
bacteremia and subacute endocarditis (no preexisting valvular abnormality) -associated with colon cancer
29
How is Strep. viridans impact the heart
subacute bacterial endocarditis following dental work
30
how does staph aureus impact heart
right-sided endocarditis
31
onset of acute transplant rejection
weeks to months
32
What is used to prevent acute transplant rejection
calcineurin inhibitors | -cyclosporine or tacrolimus
33
What is used to treat acute transplant rejection
systemic corticosteroids
34
What is the pathogenesis for hyperacute transplant rejection
Preformed antibodies against graft in recipient's circulation
35
What happens to the organ in acute transplant rejection
- mononuclear infiltrate on histopathology | - graft dysfunction
36
What is the cellular component of acute transplant rejection
host T-lymphocytes sensitization against graft (foreign) MHC antigens
37
What is graft T-cell sensitization against Host MHC antigens
graft vs. host disease | - after bone marrow transplant
38
Chronic renal allograft rejection is characterized in the patient as ( kidney transplant)
- worsening hypertension | - progressive rise in serum creatinine
39
Chronic renal allograft rejection is characterized in kidney as
- fibrous intimal thickening - tubular atrophy - interstitial fibrosis
40
Vascular fibrinoid necrosis and neutrophil infiltration of the arterioles, glomeruli, and peritubular capillaries are characteristic of what type of organ transplant rejection
hyperacute
41
achlorhydria
inadequate gastric acid production to maintain the normal gastric pH of less than 4
42
Pregnant women with HIV do what for prevention? how does this work
antiretroviral therapy | - reverse transcriptase inhibitor
43
What are baby symptoms for mother-to-child vertical transmission of HIV-1
- oral thrush - interstitial pneumonia - severe lymphopenia during first year of life
44
Patient with central vascular catheter and receipt of parenteral nutrition is at risk for
candidemia
45
what is the morphology/shape of candida
branching pseudohyphae with blastoconidia
46
morphology/shape of blastomyces
borad-based budding
47
morphology/shape of coccidiodies
spherules with endospores
48
morphology/shpae of cryptococcus
capsule
49
morphology/shape of histoplasma
small oval yeast within macrophages
50
Where do T cells reside in lymph nodes
paracortex
51
agammaglobulinemia prevents what from forming in lymph nodes
- primary lymphoid follicles | - germinal centers
52
In order, the pathogens most often responsible for secondary bacterial pneumonia are
strep. pneumoniae Steph aureus H. Flu
53
Localized bony back pain, low-grade fever, and recent staphylococcal bacteremia suggests what
vertebral osteomyelitis
54
What is the most common way bacteria can reach in the spin in adults
hematogenous
55
What diagnosis tools should be used if vertebral osteomyelitis is suspected
blood culture | MRI
56
What are 3 major causes of neonatal meningitis
1. Group B strep 2. E. Coli 3. listeria monocytogenes
57
What strain of e. coli causes neonatal meningitis ? how does it work
K1 capsular antigen | - allows survival in bloodstream
58
In older infants ( greater than 3 months) and adults, most common pathogens for meningitis
Strep. pneumoniae | Neisseria meningitidis
59
verotoxin is what type of toxin
Shiga-like toxin
60
Lipid A unit in lipopolysaccharides is similar for all enteric bacteria, what does it cause
activation of macrophages - release IL-1 and TNF-alpha - septic shock
61
Primary infection with vericella-zoster typically occurs in who and as what
children | chickenpox
62
Where does herpes zoster reside in body
dorsal root ganglia
63
Vericella IgG antibodies have immunity against what? and what does it now have immunity against
immunity for chickenpox | not- herpes zoster
64
Classical complement cascade begins with binding of what
C1 complement component to either | -2 IgG or 2 IgM
65
Which immunoglobulin is a better activator of complememtn
IgM
66
C1 molecule of complement binds to thwat region of the immunoglobulin chain
Fc region of heavy immunoglobulin chain in region near the hinge point
67
Who get rubella vaccine and what type of vaccine is it
- children and non-pregnant females of childbearing age | - live, attenuated rubella virus vaccine
68
A patient gets a blunt abdominal trauma and then dies. See Step. pneumo on blood cultures. What happened
Spleen did not work
69
Characterize Mononucleosis-like syndrome? seen in what
``` fever malaise myalgia atypical lymphocytosis elevated liver transaminases -CMV ```
70
What is severe combined immune deficiency
combined T and B cell dysfunction
71
Patient comes in with 1. Severe bacterial and viral infections in infancy 2. chronic diarrhea 3. mucocutaneous candidiasis
SCID | Severe combined immunodeficiency
72
Patient comes in with 1. congenital heart disease 2. dysmorphic facies 3. hypocalcemia
DiGeroge sydnrome
73
Neisseria is grown on what media? what is special about this media
Thayer-Martin VCN (vancomycin/colistin/nystatin) | - inhibits gram +, gram - other than neisseria and fungi
74
Name a selective media for growth
Thayer-Martin agar
75
how does differential media help identify cultured oragnisms
metabolic and biochemical properties
76
type I hypersensitivity what immunoglobin and cells are used
IgE bound to basophils and mast cells
77
what process activates type I to release histamine and heparin
cross-linking of surface IgE molecules, signals cell to degranulate
78
initial symptoms of malaise and fever and then bone pain/abscesses. What is this
osteomyelitis | most common cause is staph aureus
79
Immunity against Neisseria meningitids is provided by antibodies against what virulance factor
polysaccharide capsules
80
What is the primary virulence factor of Strep. pneumoniae
polysaccharide capsule--> inhibits phagocytosis
81
Name a bacteria that is positive diplococci and is alpha-hemolytic
Strep. Pneumo
82
What bacteria causes atypical pneumonia
Mycoplasma pneumoniae Chlamydophila pneumoniae legionella
83
What is the agent that can cause hepatic abscesses via hematogenous seeding of the liver
Staph aureus
84
What agents cause hepatic abscesses by ascending the biliary tract, portal vein pyemia, or direct invasion from adjacen area
Enteric bacteria
85
presence of fluid-filled cavity in liver in conjunction with fevers, chills, and right upper abdominal pain
hepatic abscess
86
what causes hepatic abscess in underdeveloped countries and developed countries
underdeveloped countries: parasitic infection | developed: bacterial infection
87
how can staph aureus gain acess to the liver
biliary tract infection | portal vein pyemia
88
parotitis
inflammation of parotid gland
89
What does the parotid gland release
amylase
90
what is the most common bacterial etiology for acute parotitis
staph aureus
91
what diagnostic tools determine acute bacterial parotitis
- elevated amylase levels | - imaging
92
Bacterial genetics: transformation
direct uptake of naked DNA
93
Bacterial genetics: conjugation
one-way transfer of material
94
what do donor cells have in conjugation
F factor: codes for sex pilus
95
Bacterial genetics: transduction
transfer of DNA from one bacterium to another by means of a bacteriopahge

Uworld_sitr (42 decks)

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