Systems 1 Flashcards
What do the primary flight controls do?
Control aircraft movement around the lateral, longitudinal, and vertical axes
What are the 4 primary flight controls?
Elevator - controls movement around the lateral axis
Ailerons - control movement around the longitudinal axis
Rudder - controls movement around the vertical axis
Gust lock - locks controls to prevent wind damage
How does the gust lock position the other primary flight controls?
The gust lock locks the ailerons and rudder in a neutral position and the elevator in a nose-down configuration
What do secondary flight controls do?
Lessen the control forces required to maintain normal flight attitudes
What are the 4 secondary flight controls?
Elevator Trim
Aileron Trim
Rudder Trim
Trim Aid Device
How does aileron trim work?
There is no aileron trim tab, trim actuation moves the whole aileron
What does the Trim Aid Device do?
Assists directional (yaw) trimming during airspeed and power changes
What does the engine do?
Provides thrust for aircraft flight
Also, it powers the electrical, hydraulic, and fuel pump systems
What 4 things does the hydraulic system operate?
Landing gear and main gear doors
Flaps
Speed Brake
Nose Wheel Steering
What does the electrical system do? How does it do this primarily? What is its secondary source?
The electrical system provides electrical power for aircraft systems. Power is primarily from the starter/generator after engine start. Secondary power is available from the 24 volt battery
What does the fuel system do?
The fuel system provides fuel storage and fuel feed to the engine. Also, it automatically maintains balance between the storage tanks
What does the environmental system do?
The environmental control system ensures an acceptable cockpit environment. Also, it provides for automatic temperature and pressurization control
What 6 things consist the communications system?
Radio Management Unit (RMU)
VHF transceiver
UHF transceiver
Transponder
Intercom system
Emergency Locator Transmitter
What 5 things make up the navigation system?
VHF navigation system
Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)
Global Positioning System (GPS)
Attitude Heading Reference System (AHRS)
Traffic Advisory System (TAS)
What do the primary flight instruments do?
Under normal circumstances, instrument flight is accomplished with the primary flight instruments
What are the 5 primary flight instruments?
Electronic Attitude Director Indicator (EADI)
Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI)
Airspeed indicator
Altimeter
Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI)
What do standby flight instruments do?
When needed, instrument flight may be conducted with the standby flight instruments
What are the 5 standby flight instruments?
Airspeed indicator
Attitude indicator
Altimeter
Turn and bank indicator
Magnetic compass
What kind of opening does the canopy have?
Side opening
What kind of seal(s) does the canopy have?
A pressure and weather seal
What kind of system does the canopy have for ejection and emergency ground egress?
A fracturing system
What protects pilots from a bird strike?
The front cockpit windscreens
Who makes the ejection seats?
Martin Baker
How are the Martin Baker ejection seats propelled?
Initially by a compressed gas cartridge, and then by a rocket motor
101 E1. Which control surface controls aircraft movement around the pitch axis?
Elevator
101 E2. The Trim Aid Device (TAD) assists trimming for which control surface during airspeed and power changes?
The TAD senses torque, altitude, airspeed, and pitch rate and computes a desired rudder trim tab position.
101 E3. (True/False) Engine exhaust augments the thrust of the propeller
True. Exhaust gases are ejected rearward providing thrust which augments that produced by the propeller.
101 E4. Primary aircraft electrical power is provided by which component of the electrical system?
The generator function of the starter/generator.
101 E5. Tuning for each of the communications and navigation radios and the transponder is provided by which componenent?
RMU
101 E6. (True/False) The VHF navigation system provides VOR, ILS, localizer, and GPS capability.
False. The VHF system provides VOR, ILS, localizer, and glideslope capability.
101 E7. Primary navigation display is provided by which component of the Electronic Flight Instrument System?
Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI)
101 E8. Which standby flight instruments will operate without electrical power?
The standby altimeter, airspeed indicator, the ball in the turn and bank indicator, and the magnetic compass
101 E9. (True/False) The entire canopy structure is engineered to be protected from birdstrikes.
False. Only the windscreen and front canopy transparency are protected.
101 LR1. Landing gear extension and retraction is operated by which aircraft system?
Hydraulic
101 LR2. Movement around the roll axis is controlled by which primary control surface(s)?
Ailerons
101 LR3. What component of the ejection seat provides sufficient altitude for parachute deployment?
Rocket motor
101 LR4. True or False? The magnetic compass is one of the primary flight instruments.
False. The magnetic compass is a standby flight instrument.
101 LR5. Secondary aircraft electrical power is provided by what component?
24 volt battery
101 LR6. Which aircraft system provides automatic temperature and pressure control?
Environment control system
101 LR7. Control of the transponder is provided by which component?
Radio Management Unit (RMU)
101 LR8. True or False? The canopy is hinged at the rear and opens up.
False. The canopy is hinged along the right side and opens to that side.
101 LR9. Which primary instrument provides primary attitude display?
Electronic Attitude Director Indicator (EADI)
101 LR10. In the event of inadvertent aircraft contact with the ground, which component will be activated and generate a radio signal?
The Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT) senses impact loads and generates a signal on 121.5 and 406 MHz
What are the engine cowlings and what are their purpose?
The engine cowlings are metal panels that cover the engine compartment. These panels protect the engine components, decrease drag, and provide engine air intake.
Are the engine cowling panels removable?
All of the panels are removable. Most of the panels can be opened with quick release latches. These latches provide quick access to the engine compartment.
Where does air enter the engine cowling? What happens immediately after?
Air enters the cowling through an opening in the front just below the nose piece
The air is passed through the inertial separator before reaching the engine. The inertial separator causes the air molecules to turn 90ºto the engine compartment. Heavier particles, such as water or debris, are not able to make the turn and are returned to the atmosphere through a bypass duct.
What is the purpose of the engine?
The engine generates the power to turn the propeller, which produces thrust
What type of engine is the T-6A equipped with?
Pratt & Whitney PT6A-68 free turbine, reverse flow design, turboprop engine
What does “free turbine” mean?
Free turbine refers to the fact that the compressor and power turbines are not physically connected. Air movement from one turbine to the other provides power to the propeller
What does “reverse flow” mean?
Reverse flow design refers to the flow of air through the engine. Air enters the engine at the rear and moves forward during the combustion cycle
What three elements are necessary for engine operation?
Air, Fuel, Heat
What are the two major sections that make up the engine?
Gas generation section
Power turbine section
(there is also an important area aft of the gas generation section called the accessory compartment)
The accessory compartment is located at the rear of the engine between the left and right cowling doors and contains several aircraft systems, such as:
Accessory gearbox
Oil tank
Starter/generator
Battery
What does the starter do?
The starter turns the compressor turbine and compressor which provides air to the engine until it starts and can sustain itself
The gas generation section is located between the accessory compartment and the power turbine section, and contains the following 4 components:
Compressor inlet
Compressor
Combustion chamber
Combustion turbine
Gas Generation Functions 1
Inlet air enters the engine through the ______ and is compressed by a _________ compressor and a _________ compressor.
compressor inlet
four-stage axial flow
single stage centrifugal flow
Gas Generation Functions 2
The compressed air is transferred to the _________. In the _________, the compressed air is mixed with fuel and ignited. Igniting the mixture causes the gases to _______. The expanding gases drive the ___________, which perpetuates the cycle.
combustion chamber
combustion chamber
expand
compressor turbine
The power turbine section is the front section and contains the following 4 components:
Power turbines
Exhaust case
Reduction gearbox
Propeller shaft
Power Turbine Section Functions 1
The _______ section uses the expanding gases generated by the gas generation section to produce horsepower. After the expanding gases pass through the compressor turbine, they drive the power turbines. Notice how the power turbine rotates in the _______ direction of the compressor turbine. This is possible because remember, there is no ________ between the two turbine sections.
power turbine
opposite
physical connection
Power Turbine Section Functions 2
The gases flow through the _______ system and back into the atmosphere. The power turbine drives the _______, which in turn drives the _______ at a reduced RPM.
exhaust
reduction gearbox
propeller shaft
The engine exhaust system consists of the following 2 components:
Exhaust ports
Exhaust stacks
Exhaust Purpose and Location
As the gases come off the _____, they are directed to the ______ on either side of the engine. From the exhaust ports, the gases make a _____ turn through the _____ before being released rearward. As the gases are released into the atmosphere, they provide a small amount of additional _____.
power turbine
exhaust ports
180º
thrust
Start and Ignition System Purpose
The ____ provides the initial airflow, the ______ (FMU) provides the fuel, and the _____ system provides the initial heat source.
starter
fuel management system
ignition
The T-6A uses a _____ to initiate combustion. This type of ignition system provides quick light ups over a wide range of temperatures.
dual spark plug ignition system
The ignition system consists of 3 components:
Ignition exciter
two high voltage igniter cables
two spark igniters
The ignition exciter is mounted on the ______. An _______ runs from the exciter to each spark igniter. The spark igniters are located at the __ and __ o’clock positions around the _______.
airframe
igniter cable
4 and 9
combustion chamber
Ignition System Operation
To create a spark, the ignition exciter receives a ______ input signal. The exciter transforms this signal to a _____ output signal. Ignition cables carry this high voltage signal to each ______. The spark igniters provide a spark to the air and fuel mixture in the combustion chamber.
low voltage
high voltage
spark igniters
Ignition Control Switch 1
An ignition control toggle switch is located on the right forward switch panel in each cockpit. Available switch positions are as follows:
ON
NORM
Ignition Control Switch 2
During autostart or normal operation, the ignition switch should be placed in the ____ position.
With the ignition switch in the ____ position, the igniters initiate when the starter switch is moved to ______. The power management unit (PMU) energizes and de-energizes the igniters as required during the start sequence. A green IGN SEL annunciator illuminates when the igniters are activated.
The ____ position is available for continuous igniter operation.
NORM
NORM
AUTO/RESET
ON
Power for the ignition system is provided through a circuit breaker labeled “___” located on the battery bus circuit breaker panel in the front cockpit
IGN
The Power Control Lever (PCL) controls _______, producing torque on the propeller, and ultimately controls the amount of _____ and aircraft _____.
fuel flow to the engine
engine power
aircraft speed
The front and rear PCLs are interconnected with a _____. As one PCL moves, the other follows. This provides identical control of the propulsion system from either cockpit
push-pull rod
The front PCL is connected to the Fuel Management Unit (FMU) _____ by a flexible cable. It is also connected _____ to the FMU by way of the PMU
mechanically
electrically
The front cockpit PCL has a friction adjust knob. The friction adjust knob is used to change the PCL tension. Rotating the knob ____ increases tension and rotating the knob ____ decreases tension.
right increases
left decreases
The PCL has the following labeled positions:
MAX
IDLE
OFF
Engine power is distributed ____ between IDLE and MAX
linearly
To find the start position, move the PCL forward until a green _____ light on the annunciator panel illuminates
ST READY
What is the PMU, where is it located, and what does it do?
The PMU is a computer unit located underneath the engine in the accessory compartment. The PMU processes power requests from the PCL and the keeps the engine and propeller within operating limits
How does moving the PCL enact changes to the FMU and PMU?
Moving the PCL forward provides a physical input to the FMU via the flexible cable, releasing a nominal amount of fuel from the FMU.
An electronic signal is transmitted to the PMU which fine tunes the power request and sends a signal to the FMU.
The combination of these inputs produces a near linear power response
The PMU switch has 2 positions, what are they? In the ____ position, all PMU functions are active
NORM and OFF
NORM
The primary power source for the PMU comes from the?
the Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA), which is mounted on the reduction gearbox
The PMA provides 32 VAC, which the PMU converts to DC. If the PMA fails, power is provided through the 28 VDC battery bus
During engine start, the starter/generator functions as a _____ to turn the compressor section. Once the start is completed, the starter/generator functions as a _____, with the compressor turbine powering the starter/generator and the other accessories attached to the gearbox.
starter
generator
During engine start, the starter motor turns the compressor via linkage in the accessory gear box. This generates ____ and ____ until the engine starts and is able to run at idle speed
airflow and compression
The generator provides ______ power, which powers many of the aircraft systems and charges the battery and the auxiliary battery to _____
28 VDC
24 VDC
The oil system includes (3 things):
a pressure system, scavenge system, and cooling system
Oil must be _____ to ensure lubrication of the necessary parts; this is done by the _______.
pressurized
pressure pump
The pressure pump must also supply pressure during inverted or negative G flight.
How many oil pickups are inside the oil tank?
Two
The first pickup is in the center of the tank and is submerged in oil during normal flight operations.
A second pickup, located near the top of the tank, ensures a constant flow of oil during inverted flight.
After the pressure pump supplies oil to the bearings, reduction gears, accessory drives, and propeller, what returns the oil to the oil tank?
A scavenge system
The scavenged oil is then routed through the ______ before the oil is returned to the oil tank
oil cooler
How is oil filtered? If this gets clogged, how does unfiltered oil continue to lubricate the engine?
Oil is filtered by a main oil filter in the oil tank. There are also several oil strainers located in the power, compressor, and accessory drive areas
If the main oil filter gets clogged, a filter bypass valve allows unfiltered oil to continue lubricating the engine.
The oil system also incorporates a chip detector system. Where is the chip detector sensor located? What does the chip detector sensor do?
in the reduction gearbox.
This sensor detects metallic particles in the oil and warns the pilot of possible gear damage.
If metal particles are detected in the oil, how would the chip detector warn the pilot?
If metal particles are detected in the oil, a red CHIP annunciator illuminates, the MASTER WARN light illuminates, and an aural tone is heard.
How are the oil levels checked (2 methods, although only 1 is used)?
Oil levels can be checked by removing the dipstick from the fill port and visually inspecting the oil levels on the dipstick. This method is only valid within 30 minutes of engine shutdown.
A second means for checking oil levels is provided through a sight glass on the side of the oil tank. This method is not used because it is not as accurate as the dipstick method.
What indicator is given if oil pressure is between 15 and 40 psi at IDLE power or between 40 and 90 psi for 10 seconds above IDLE power?
amber OIL PX annunciator illuminates
What indicator is given if oil pressure is 15 psi or below at IDLE power, or 40 psi or below above IDLE
red OIL PX annunciator illuminates
What indicator is given if oil pressure remains between 15 and 40 psi at IDLE power for 5 seconds or more?
both the red and amber OIL PX annunciators illuminate
Power for the oil pressure transducer is provided through a circuit breaker labeled “_____”, located on the battery bus circuit breaker panel in the front cockpit.
OIL TRX
What is the purpose of the propeller system?
The purpose of the propeller system is to convert power into thrust.
What kind of propeller does the T-6A use?
A four-blade, variable pitch, constant speed propeller
The PMU and the Propeller Interface Unit (PIU) control propeller speed (NP) to maintain a constant propeller speed of?
2000 RPM (100% Np)
Where is 100% torque available from on a standard day?
100% torque is available from sea level to approx. 12,000 to 16,000 feet MSL on a standard day. Above 16,000 feet MSL, a decrease in the maximum torque available is noted
The propeller is driven by the power turbine, through the reduction gearbox. The reduction gearbox transfers power generated by the engine to the propeller, reducing engine output from ______ RPM to the propeller operating speed of ______ RPM
30,000 RPM to 2,000 RPM
The PMU directs the PIU to maintain propeller RPM at 100% (2,000 RPM) using an _____. A backup mechanical overspeed governor does not allow propeller RPM to exceed _____% (2,120 RPM.)
electronic governor
106%
How is propeller RPM regulated if the PMU or PIU fails?
If the PMU or PIU fails, the propeller RPM is automatically regulated by the backup system. If this system is used, the mechanical flyweight overspeed governor resets to maintain RPM at 100 ±2% (2,000 RPM.)
What is the PIU? How does it work?
The PIU responds to power requests from the PMU by regulating oil pressure to the pitch change mechanism.
The PIU increases the pressure of the oil that is transferred from the PIU through a tube and stationary transfer sleeve into the hollow propeller shaft. Changes in oil pressure result in changes to propeller pitch.
Propeller pitch changes are based upon?
changes in oil pressure
What are the three basic propeller pitch conditions?
Feathered
High pitch (coarse)
Low pitch (flat or fine)
In the feathered condition, the blade is aligned nearly ______, approximately __° from the perpendicular plane. This position produces the least amount of ____ and no ____.
straight into the wind
86º
drag
thrust
Without oil pressure, the counterweights and feathering spring move the propeller blades to which position?
Feathered
Which position will the propeller be in during most flight conditions?
High pitch (variable between feather and low pitch)
In the low pitch condition, the propeller blades are approximately __° from the perpendicular plane. The propeller blades produce some ____ and the most ____. The propeller will be in this position during ______ and ______ flight.
15º
thrust
drag
low speed and low throttle
As the PIU increases oil pressure, the sliding piston is forced _____, rotating the propeller blades toward ______.
forward
low pitch
To feather the propeller, place the PCL in the ____ position. This position activates two separate control valves within the PIU. The first is a microswitch which activates the _______ valve. The second, controlled by the PMU, releases oil pressure. Oil pressure being released by either valve allows the _____ and ______ to feather the propeller.
OFF
feather dump solenoid valve
feathering spring and counterweights
The feather dump solenoid valve receives power through a circuit breaker labeled? (located on the battery bus circuit breaker panel in the front cockpit)
PROP SYS
How does the T-6A pilot adjust the propeller pitch?
The propeller pitch is automatic, the T-6A pilot only needs to adjust the PCL to the desired level of engine power. The propeller system uses this input, as well as temperature, altitude and other conditions, to determine the necessary propeller pitch
103 E1. The engine cowling does all of the following:
protect the engine components
decrease drag
include an air inlet to the engine
103 E2. The purpose of the inertial separator is to
keep debris away from the engine
103 E3. Are the compressor and power turbines physically connected?
No
103 E4.What three elements are necessary for engine operation?
Air, fuel, and heat
103 E5. (True/False) As exhaust is released, additional thrust is provided.
True
103 E6. (True/False) Once the engine is started, and the ignition switch is in the ON position, igniters are automatically energized and de-
energized by the PMU.
False
103 E7. The primary purpose of the ignition system is to
ignite the air and fuel mixture in the combustion chamber
103 E8. (True/False) Friction control settings made to the front PCL affect the rear PCL
True
103 E9. When starting the T-6A, the PCL should be in what position?
pushed forward until a green ST READY annunciator is illuminated
103 E10. The PMU is located where?
underneath the engine in the accessory compartment
103 E11. The PMU performs the following functions:
Maintains operating limits
Processes power requests
Determines available power
103 E12. The PMU STATUS annunciator illuminates after landing when the PMU?
need maintenance
103 E13. (True/False) After engine start, the starter becomes a generator.
True
103 E14. (True/False) The MANUAL starter switch position will be used under normal circumstances
False
103 E15. If oil pressure is ________ psi or below at IDLE power, the red OIL PX annunciator will illuminate.
15
103 E16. If oil pressure remains between 15 and 40 psi at IDLE power for more than 5 seconds, __________ will be illuminated.
both the amber and red OIL PX annunciators
103 E17. The chip detector sensor is located in the?
reduction gearbox
103 E18. The oil system provides filtered oil to the following systems:
propeller
reduction gear
engine
103 E19. The reduction gearbox reduces engine output from _____ RPM to propeller speeds of _____ RPM
30,000 to 2,000
103 E20. The phase shift torque probe monitors
Propeller speed
103 E21. The PIU
regulates oil pressure to the pitch change mechanism
103 E22. If the propeller pitch change mechanism loses oil pressure, the propeller will automatically move towards the __________ position.
feathered
103 E23. Varying levels of thrust are achieved by changing
propeller pitch
103 LR1. What does the PMU do?
keeps engine and propeller within operating limits
103 LR2. If the oil filter gets clogged
the system uses unfiltered oil
103 LR3. In straight-and-level flight, for PCL positions above IDLE, oil pressure should be maintained between
__________ and __________ psi.
90; 120
103 LR4. The phase shift torque probe is located
in the reduction gearbox
103 LR5. Propeller pitch refers to the
angle of the propeller blades
103 LR6. Which propeller position produces the least amount of drag?
Feather
103 LR7. The propeller pitch change mechanism is able to change propeller blade angle by using
Oil pressure
103 LR8. The PMU directs the PIU to maintain propeller RPM at
2,000
103 LR9. The power turbine is driven by
expanding gases
103 LR10. During aerobatic flight, oil pressure should be maintained at or above __________ psi
40
What is the Engine Data Manager (EDM)? Where is it located?
The Engine Data Manager is a computer unit located in the left avionics bay that monitors and processes engine operation data.
What engine related tasks does the Engine Data Manager do?
It drives displays for: primary, alternate, and engine/systems
and it illuminates: advisory, caution, and warning annunciators
What non-engine related tasks does the Engine Data Manager do?
-Fuel balancing
-Fuel Quantity indications
-NWS annunciator
-displays: DC volts, DC amps, hydraulic pressure, cockpit pressure altitude, and cockpit pressure differential
Redundant power is supplied to the EDM through circuit breakers, labeled what? (located on the battery bus circuit breaker panel)
EDM
What is the Primary Engine Data Display (PEDD)? Where is it located?
The primary engine data display (PEDD) is an electronic instrument display (EID) that presents engine information received from the EDM. The PEDD is located on the right side of the instrument panel in each cockpit.
How does the PEDD get its data?
All primary engine data is gathered by various sensors and is transmitted to the PMU for processing. The EDM monitors engine parameters and passes the information to the PEDD.
What do the colors on the PEDD mean?
White/Green - Normal Operating Range
Amber - Caution Operating Range
Red - Exceeding operation limits
What information is displayed on the PEDD?
Torque
Interstage Turbine Temperature (ITT)
Gas generator speed (N1)
Propeller RPM (Np)
Indicated Outside Air Temperature (IOAT)
How is torque measured? Where is the red radial on the analog scale for torque?
Torque is measured by the phase shift torque probe located in the reduction gearbox and represents a percentage of the maximum rated torque
A maximum of 100% is indicated on the analog scale
What is ITT (Interstage Turbine Temperature)? How is the reading obtained?
ITT is the temperature between the compressor turbine and the power turbine
The reading is obtained from a sensing system around the combustion chamber
During a start sequence, ITT operating limits are from?
After the startup sequence is complete, operating limits are reset to ___ and ___ °C and the circular scale becomes proportionally smaller/
400 to 1000 ºC
400 to 820 ºC
(Out of limits is above 820 ºC)
What is N1 (gas generator speed)? How is it measured? What are its normal operating limits?
The gas generator speed (N1) represents the speed of the compressor turbine in the gas generator section of the engine.
N1 is measured by a magnetic pulse sensor in the accessory gearbox.
Normal limits are 60% to 104% (anything over 104% is out of limits)
What is Np? How is it measured? What are its normal operating limits?
Np represents a percent of the maximum rated propeller RPM
Propeller RPM is measured by the torque probe, a sensor in the reduction gearbox
NP ground operating limits are 0 – 61% and 81 – 100%. In order to prevent damage from ground resonance, sustained propeller operation between 62 and 80% NP is prohibited while on the ground.
Out-of-limits for in-flight operations are readings more than 102%
How is the IOAT (indicated outside air temperature) measured? How is the reading displayed?
Indicated Outside Air Temperature is measured by the T-1 probe, a sensor located in the inlet plenum. Readings are displayed as a white digital readout
Power for the PEDD travels through the circuit breaker labeled _____ on the generator bus circuit breaker panels in each cockpit.
PRI ENG DIS
What is the difference between the data provided by the PEDD and the AEDD (alternate engine data display)?
Except for torque, data for the AEDD is not processed by the PMU
What information is displayed by the AEDD?
Raw Interstage Turbine Temperature (RITT)
Torque
Gas generator speed (N1)
Cockpit pressure altitude
Cockpit differential pressure (ΔP)
Fuel flow
Fuel quantity
The AEDD redundantly provides information about torque, gas generator speed, and interstage turbine temperature also found on the PEDD.
Unlike the PEDD which shows both analog and digital readouts for these three gauges, the AEDD only uses ____ readouts.
digital
The cockpit pressure altitude display, labeled COCKPIT ALT, provides the pilot with?
Data for this display is generated by the?
Anytime the display exceeds ____, the digital readout is outlined with a yellow box. In addition, an amber CKPT ALT annunciator illuminates, the MASTER CAUTION light flashes, and an aural tone sounds.
the altitude maintained in the cockpit due to pressurization
EDM
19,000 feet
The cockpit differential pressure (ΔP) display, located below the cockpit altitude display, measures the difference between the air pressures inside and outside the cockpit. ΔP is processed by the EDM and is displayed by a white digital readout.
If ΔP exceeds _____ psi, the digital readout is outlined with a red box. In addition, a red CKPT PX annunciator illuminates, the MASTER WARN light flashes, and an aural tone sounds.
3.9 to 4.0 psi
The fuel quantity gauge displays fuel in what unit?
The fuel flow gauge shows rate of fuel consumption in what unit?
Pounds
PPH (pounds per hour)
The AEDD is powered through a circuit breaker labeled ____ located on the battery bus circuit breaker panel in each cockpit.
ALT ENG DIS
The engine/systems display (ESD) is located just below the PEDD. In its normal state, this display provides?
Oil temperature
Oil pressure
Hydraulic pressure
DC voltage
DC amperage
Normal oil temperature operating limits range from? Cautionary limits are from ___ to ___. Out of limits readings are readings greater than 110 ºC
10 to 105
105 110
110+
What are the normal operating limits for hydraulic pressure? If hydraulic pressure falls below ___ psi or rises above ___ psi, the display changes color to amber to indicate caution.
2880 to 3120 psi
below 1800 or above 3120
What are the color ranges for DC voltage?
amber up to 21.9V
white from 22.0 to 29.5V
amber from 29.6 to 32.2V
red from 32.3V and above
How is the T-6A fire warning system designed?
The warning system consists of a core element, sensor tube, and responder assembly. The sensor tube is filled with pressurized helium gas. Inside this tube is a core element filled with hydrogen gas.
Do kinks, twists, or dents affect system reliability of the fire warning sensor tubes?
No.
Explain Fire Warning Operation 1
As average or localized temperatures rise, the helium gases expand, creating pressure inside the responder. When pressure in the responder reaches or exceeds the preset limit, a signal triggers the overheat/fire alarm.
Explain Fire Warning Operation 2
The hydrogen charged inner core is designed to respond to highly localized temperatures caused by fire or hot gases. As the temperature of the core element increases, it releases hydrogen gas into the sensor tube. The mixture of these gases causes the helium gas pressure to increase. When pressure limits are exceeded in the responder, it generates an overheat warning.
During fire warning system tests, when the #1 switch is selected only the ___ half of the FIRE annunciator lights up. Repeat the process for the #2 switch position, and note that only the ___ half illuminates for the #2 switch position
top
bottom
The firewall shutoff handle ____ shuts off _____ and ____ to the engine, as well as ____ from the engine. Valves may be reset by pushing the handle back in.
mechanically
hydraulic fluid
fuel flow
bleed air flow
104 E1. (True/False) All of the functions performed by the engine data manager (EDM) are engine related.
False
104 E2. The EDM is located
in the left avionics bay
104 E4. (True/False) All primary engine data is processed by the PMU prior to being displayed on the primary engine data display.
True
104 E5. In the event of abnormal engine operation, the primary engine data displays will warn the pilot by?
changing color
104 E6. In order to prevent possible damage due to ground resonance, what is the NP stabilized operation prohibited range while on the ground?
62-80%
104 E8. (True/False) All data provided to the alternate engine data display is first processed by the PMU.
False
104 E9. On the alternate engine data display, ΔP measures the
difference between cockpit pressure and outside pressure
104 E11. The engine/systems display provides (5 things)
oil temperature, oil pressure, hydraulic pressure, DC volts, and DC amps
104 E12. (True/False) Normal operating range for the oil pressure gauge is 90 – 140 psi
False
104 E14. (True/False) Shutoff valves activated by the Firewall Shutoff Handle may be reset by pushing the handle back in.
True
104 E14. When testing the integrity of the fire warning system, you will know the system is working properly if __________ and the aural tone sounds
the FIRE and MASTER WARN annunciators illuminate
104 LR1. The engine data manager does not
a. monitor engine operating parameters.
b. illuminate appropriate advisory, caution, or warning annunciators.
c. drive the primary, alternate, and engine/systems displays.
d. control all electronic displays in the cockpit.
the engine data manager does not control all electronic displays in the cockpit
104 LR2. The primary engine data display system
provides each cockpit with a visual indication of engine operation
104 LR3. The engine data manager is located
in the left avionics bay
104 LR5. (True/False) The alternate engine data display serves as a backup to the primary engine data display, and therefore displays some of the same data.
True
104 E6. The primary engine data display provides
torque, ITT, N1, NP, and IOAT
104 E7. The engine/systems display does not display __________ data in each cockpit.
a. outside environmental
b. hydraulic system
c. oil system
d. electrical system
a. outside environmental
104 LR9. All data presented on the alternate engine data display is processed by the PMU.
False
104 LR10. The FIRE switch located in the front cockpit is used to
test the integrity of the fire warning system
What are the 3 types of abnormal starts?
Hot
Hung
No start
What is the Normal Start Sequence?
ITT
N1
Np
What are possible indications of a Hot Start?
High/Rapidly rising ITT
Lower N1
Lower Np
(only one with high)
What are possible causes of a Hot Start?
PMU failure
FMU failure
Incorrect air/fuel mixture
Low battery
What are possible indications of a Hung Start?
Slow rising ITT
Lower N1
Lower Np
(2 lows and a slow)
What are some possible causes of a Hung Start?
PMU failure
FMU failure
Incorrect air/fuel mixture
Ignition system failure
Starter failure
Low battery
What are some indications of a No Start?
No ITT indication
Lower N1
No Np indication
No torque indication
(3 no’s and a low)
What are some possible causes of a No Start?
PMU failure
FMU failure
Starter failure
Ignition system failure
Incorrect air/fuel mixture
What are the initial indications of an engine failure in flight?
Loss of power and airspeed
Rapid decay of N1, torque, and ITT
MASTER WARN lights and tone
Propeller moves toward feather
(everything is going down ccw)
What are the accompanying indications of an Engine Failure in Flight?
Rapidly decreasing ITT, Np
Lower-than-normal oil pressure
Engine noise
GEN, OIL PX, OBOGS FAIL, FUEL PX
annunciators (engine is goofing off ->GOOF lights)
Possibly PMU FAIL and CKPT ALT annunciators
What are some possible causes of an Engine Failure in Flight?
Fuel starvation
Mechanical failure
Compressor stall
What are some indications of PMU failure?
Power setup change
PMU FAIL and PMU STATUS annunciators
MASTER WARN light
Aural tone
What are some possible causes of PMU failure?
System failure
System malfunction
What are some indications of Uncommanded Power Changes/Loss of Power/Uncommanded Propeller Feather?
Reduction in power/thrust
Lower than expected fuel flow
Uncommanded decrease in N1
High raw ITT (RITT) on AEDD
With oil/engine/fuel system contamination, additionally:
Power surges
Uncontrollable high power
What are some possible causes of Uncommanded Power Changes/Loss of Power/Uncommanded Propeller Feather?
Engine rollback due to PMU scheduling
Oil/engine/fuel system contamination
What are some indications of uncommanded feather?
Rapid loss of power High torque
Lower NP
Possible PMU FAIL/PMU STATUS annunciators Engine vibration
Engine noise
What are some possible causes of Uncommanded Feather?
Feather dump solenoid malfunction
Loss of oil pressure to propeller pitch control mechanism
What are some possible indications of Prop Sleeve Touchdown?
NP fluctuations
Increasing torque
Decreasing thrust
Engine vibrations
Possible CHIP detector warning light
What are some possible causes of Prop Sleeve Touchdown?
Loss of oil pressure to propeller pitch control mechanism from momentary contact between oil transfer sleeve and propeller shaft
What are some indications of an engine fire in flight?
FIRE annunciator
MASTER WARN light
Aural tone
What are some possible causes of an Engine Fire in Flight?
Fuel or oil leaks
Fire getting outside the engine
What does FEVER stand for?
Fluctuating oil pressure, oil temperature, or
hydraulic pressure
Excessive turbine temperature
Visual indications
Erratic engine operation
Roughness or vibration
105 E1. What three elements are necessary for engine operation?
Air, Heat, and Fuel
105 E2. The T-6 propeller has __________ blades, __________ pitch, and __________ speed.
four
variable
constant
105 E3. Given indications of abnormal start, what should you do?
Begin abort start procedure
105 E4. What are the types of abnormal start?
Hot start, Hung start, No start
105 E5. What are the indications of a hot start?
High/rapidly rising ITT, Lower N1
105 E6. What are the indications of a hung start?
Low rising ITT, Lower N1, Lower Np
105 E7. What are the indications of no start?
No ITT indication, Lower N1, No Np indication
105 E8. What are some possible display indications of engine failure in flight?
Initial : Loss of power and airspeed; Rapid decay of N1, torque, and ITT; MASTER WARN lights and tone; Prop moves toward feather.
Accompanying: Rapidly decreasing ITT, Np; Lower than normal oil pressure; Engine noise, GEN FUEL PZ, OIL PX OBOGS FAIL annunciators; Possibly PMU FAIL and CKPT ALT annunciators.
105 E9. What are the indications of PMU failure?
Power strip change, PMU FAIL annunciator, MASTER WARN light, Aural tone
105 E10. What are the indications of uncommanded propeller feather?
Rapid loss of power; High torque; Lower Np; Possible PMU FAIL/PMU STATUS annunciators; Engine/airframe vibration; Engine noise
105 E11. What are some sensory indications of engine fire in flight?
See smoke or flames; Smell oil burning; Hear unusual sounds; Feel engine vibration or roughness
105 LR2. The power turbine is driven by?
Expanding gasses
105 LR3. What are the two engine sections?
Gas generator and power turbine section
105 LR4. What functions are performed by the PMU?
Maintain operating limits, process power requests, control engine and propeller, provide near linear power response
105 LR5. What is the purpose of the PIU?
Regulate oil pressure to the pitch change mechanism
105 LR8. What three elements are necessary for engine operation?
Air, fuel, and heat
The T-6A electrical system includes what 4 things?
28 VDC 300 amp starter/generator
24 VDC 42 amp lead acid battery
24 VDC 5 amp auxiliary battery
28 VDC external power receptacle
What 2 buses are on the T-6A?
battery bus and generator bus
What provides primary electrical power for the aircraft?
the generator
What monitors and regulates the starter/generator?
generator control unit under the aft cockpit
If either cockpit moves the generator control switch to ON, the other cockpit’s switch gets set to?
OFF
How is power from the generator controlled?
a generator control switch labeled “GEN”
The generator bus is divided into a
front and rear bus for the respective cockpits
The front cockpit generator bus powers?
the rear generator bus and the front cockpit avionics bus
The rear cockpit avionics bus is powered by
the forward generator bus through the front cockpit avionics bus
The rear cockpit generator bus is controlled through a circuit labeled?
AFT GEN
Both front and rear cockpit avionics buses are controlled by circuit breakers labeled?
FWD AVI and AFT AVI
Like the generator bus, the battery bus also consists of a _____ bus for the respective cockpits. Each cockpit battery bus has a bus for _____.
front and rear
avionics
The rear cockpit battery bus receives power from the?
front cockpit battery bus
The rear cockpit avionics bus receives power from?
the front cockpit battery bus through the front cockpit avionics bus
The rear cockpit battery is controlled by a circuit breaker labeled?
AFT BAT
What does the hot battery bus do when it is installed?
provides continuous essential power to components which are required to operate continuously or may be necessary in an emergency. Each of these components is protected by individual circuit breakers
Power for all avionics and radio systems in both cockpits is furnished through an avionics master switch labeled?
AVIONICS MASTER on the right forward switch panel in the front cockpit
What does the avionics master switch do when it is placed in the ON position?
it de-energizes relays, allowing the forward and aft avionics buses to be powered by the battery and generator buses.
What is the circuit breaker for the avionics master panel?
AVI MSTR
What is the bus tie switch used for? What does it do when the switch is engaged (NORM)?
The bus tie switch on the front right forward switch panel, is used to tie the battery and generator buses together for normal operation
When the switch is engaged (NORM), the generator feeds both generator bus powered items and battery bus powered items
What happens if the bus tie switch is set to OPEN?
If the bus tie switch is set to OPEN, or if the bus tie fails, the battery and generator buses are isolated and each powers only equipment attached to that bus.
What warnings are given if the bus tie system is open?
In each cockpit, the amber BUS TIE light on the annunciator panel illuminates, the MASTER CAUTION light flashes, and the warning tone sounds.
Where are the circuit breakers protecting generator bus systems and equipment located in each cockpit?
on the right console panel
What is each circuit breaker marked with?
the maximum current load it will allow (in amps)
How many volts and amps is the battery?
24VDC 42 amp
How many volts and amps is the auxiliary battery?
24VDC 5 amp
What does the primary battery do?
Provides power for engine starts and is capable of powering all electrical systems in the event of generator failure with the bus tie closed
