Systems 1 Flashcards
1
Q
What do the primary flight controls do?
A
Control aircraft movement around the lateral, longitudinal, and vertical axes
2
Q
What are the 4 primary flight controls?
A
Elevator - controls movement around the lateral axis
Ailerons - control movement around the longitudinal axis
Rudder - controls movement around the vertical axis
Gust lock - locks controls to prevent wind damage
3
Q
How does the gust lock position the other primary flight controls?
A
The gust lock locks the ailerons and rudder in a neutral position and the elevator in a nose-down configuration
4
Q
What do secondary flight controls do?
A
Lessen the control forces required to maintain normal flight attitudes
5
Q
What are the 4 secondary flight controls?
A
Elevator Trim
Aileron Trim
Rudder Trim
Trim Aid Device
6
Q
How does aileron trim work?
A
There is no aileron trim tab, trim actuation moves the whole aileron
7
Q
What does the Trim Aid Device do?
A
Assists directional (yaw) trimming during airspeed and power changes
8
Q
What does the engine do?
A
Provides thrust for aircraft flight
Also, it powers the electrical, hydraulic, and fuel pump systems
9
Q
What 4 things does the hydraulic system operate?
A
Landing gear and main gear doors
Flaps
Speed Brake
Nose Wheel Steering
10
Q
What does the electrical system do? How does it do this primarily? What is its secondary source?
A
The electrical system provides electrical power for aircraft systems. Power is primarily from the starter/generator after engine start. Secondary power is available from the 24 volt battery
11
Q
What does the fuel system do?
A
The fuel system provides fuel storage and fuel feed to the engine. Also, it automatically maintains balance between the storage tanks
12
Q
What does the environmental system do?
A
The environmental control system ensures an acceptable cockpit environment. Also, it provides for automatic temperature and pressurization control
13
Q
What 6 things consist the communications system?
A
Radio Management Unit (RMU)
VHF transceiver
UHF transceiver
Transponder
Intercom system
Emergency Locator Transmitter
14
Q
What 5 things make up the navigation system?
A
VHF navigation system
Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)
Global Positioning System (GPS)
Attitude Heading Reference System (AHRS)
Traffic Advisory System (TAS)
15
Q
What do the primary flight instruments do?
A
Under normal circumstances, instrument flight is accomplished with the primary flight instruments
16
Q
What are the 5 primary flight instruments?
A
Electronic Attitude Director Indicator (EADI)
Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI)
Airspeed indicator
Altimeter
Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI)
17
Q
What do standby flight instruments do?
A
When needed, instrument flight may be conducted with the standby flight instruments
18
Q
What are the 5 standby flight instruments?
A
Airspeed indicator
Attitude indicator
Altimeter
Turn and bank indicator
Magnetic compass
19
Q
What kind of opening does the canopy have?
A
Side opening
20
Q
What kind of seal(s) does the canopy have?
A
A pressure and weather seal
21
Q
What kind of system does the canopy have for ejection and emergency ground egress?
A
A fracturing system
22
Q
What protects pilots from a bird strike?
A
The front cockpit windscreens
23
Q
Who makes the ejection seats?
A
Martin Baker
24
Q
How are the Martin Baker ejection seats propelled?
A
Initially by a compressed gas cartridge, and then by a rocket motor
25
101 E1. Which control surface controls aircraft movement around the pitch axis?
Elevator
26
101 E2. The Trim Aid Device (TAD) assists trimming for which control surface during airspeed and power changes?
The TAD senses torque, altitude, airspeed, and pitch rate and computes a desired rudder trim tab position.
27
101 E3. (True/False) Engine exhaust augments the thrust of the propeller
True. Exhaust gases are ejected rearward providing thrust which augments that produced by the propeller.
28
101 E4. Primary aircraft electrical power is provided by which component of the electrical system?
The generator function of the starter/generator.
29
101 E5. Tuning for each of the communications and navigation radios and the transponder is provided by which componenent?
RMU
30
101 E6. (True/False) The VHF navigation system provides VOR, ILS, localizer, and GPS capability.
False. The VHF system provides VOR, ILS, localizer, and glideslope capability.
31
101 E7. Primary navigation display is provided by which component of the Electronic Flight Instrument System?
Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI)
32
101 E8. Which standby flight instruments will operate without electrical power?
The standby altimeter, airspeed indicator, the ball in the turn and bank indicator, and the magnetic compass
33
101 E9. (True/False) The entire canopy structure is engineered to be protected from birdstrikes.
False. Only the windscreen and front canopy transparency are protected.
34
101 LR1. Landing gear extension and retraction is operated by which aircraft system?
Hydraulic
35
101 LR2. Movement around the roll axis is controlled by which primary control surface(s)?
Ailerons
36
101 LR3. What component of the ejection seat provides sufficient altitude for parachute deployment?
Rocket motor
37
101 LR4. True or False? The magnetic compass is one of the primary flight instruments.
False. The magnetic compass is a standby flight instrument.
38
101 LR5. Secondary aircraft electrical power is provided by what component?
24 volt battery
39
101 LR6. Which aircraft system provides automatic temperature and pressure control?
Environment control system
40
101 LR7. Control of the transponder is provided by which component?
Radio Management Unit (RMU)
41
101 LR8. True or False? The canopy is hinged at the rear and opens up.
False. The canopy is hinged along the right side and opens to that side.
42
101 LR9. Which primary instrument provides primary attitude display?
Electronic Attitude Director Indicator (EADI)
43
101 LR10. In the event of inadvertent aircraft contact with the ground, which component will be activated and generate a radio signal?
The Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT) senses impact loads and generates a signal on 121.5 and 406 MHz
44
What are the engine cowlings and what are their purpose?
The engine cowlings are metal panels that cover the engine compartment. These panels protect the engine components, decrease drag, and provide engine air intake.
45
Are the engine cowling panels removable?
All of the panels are removable. Most of the panels can be opened with quick release latches. These latches provide quick access to the engine compartment.
46
Where does air enter the engine cowling? What happens immediately after?
Air enters the cowling through an opening in the front just below the nose piece
The air is passed through the inertial separator before reaching the engine. The inertial separator causes the air molecules to turn 90º to the engine compartment. Heavier particles, such as water or debris, are not able to make the turn and are returned to the atmosphere through a bypass duct.
47
What is the purpose of the engine?
The engine generates the power to turn the propeller, which produces thrust
48
What type of engine is the T-6A equipped with?
Pratt & Whitney PT6A-68 free turbine, reverse flow design, turboprop engine
49
What does "free turbine" mean?
Free turbine refers to the fact that the compressor and power turbines are not physically connected. Air movement from one turbine to the other provides power to the propeller
50
What does "reverse flow" mean?
Reverse flow design refers to the flow of air through the engine. Air enters the engine at the rear and moves forward during the combustion cycle
51
What three elements are necessary for engine operation?
Air, Fuel, Heat
52
What are the two major sections that make up the engine?
Gas generation section
Power turbine section
(there is also an important area aft of the gas generation section called the accessory compartment)
53
The accessory compartment is located at the rear of the engine between the left and right cowling doors and contains several aircraft systems, such as:
Accessory gearbox
Oil tank
Starter/generator
Battery
54
What does the starter do?
The starter turns the compressor turbine and compressor which provides air to the engine until it starts and can sustain itself
55
The gas generation section is located between the accessory compartment and the power turbine section, and contains the following 4 components:
Compressor inlet
Compressor
Combustion chamber
Combustion turbine
56
Gas Generation Functions 1
Inlet air enters the engine through the ______ and is compressed by a _________ compressor and a _________ compressor.
compressor inlet
four-stage axial flow
single stage centrifugal flow
57
Gas Generation Functions 2
The compressed air is transferred to the _________. In the _________, the compressed air is mixed with fuel and ignited. Igniting the mixture causes the gases to _______. The expanding gases drive the ___________, which perpetuates the cycle.
combustion chamber
combustion chamber
expand
compressor turbine
58
The power turbine section is the front section and contains the following 4 components:
Power turbines
Exhaust case
Reduction gearbox
Propeller shaft
59
Power Turbine Section Functions 1
The _______ section uses the expanding gases generated by the gas generation section to produce horsepower. After the expanding gases pass through the compressor turbine, they drive the power turbines. Notice how the power turbine rotates in the _______ direction of the compressor turbine. This is possible because remember, there is no ________ between the two turbine sections.
power turbine
opposite
physical connection
60
Power Turbine Section Functions 2
The gases flow through the _______ system and back into the atmosphere. The power turbine drives the _______, which in turn drives the _______ at a reduced RPM.
exhaust
reduction gearbox
propeller shaft
61
The engine exhaust system consists of the following 2 components:
Exhaust ports
Exhaust stacks
62
Exhaust Purpose and Location
As the gases come off the _____, they are directed to the ______ on either side of the engine. From the exhaust ports, the gases make a _____ turn through the _____ before being released rearward. As the gases are released into the atmosphere, they provide a small amount of additional _____.
power turbine
exhaust ports
180º
thrust
63
Start and Ignition System Purpose
The ____ provides the initial airflow, the ______ (FMU) provides the fuel, and the _____ system provides the initial heat source.
starter
fuel management system
ignition
64
The T-6A uses a _____ to initiate combustion. This type of ignition system provides quick light ups over a wide range of temperatures.
dual spark plug ignition system
65
The ignition system consists of 3 components:
Ignition exciter
two high voltage igniter cables
two spark igniters
66
The ignition exciter is mounted on the ______. An _______ runs from the exciter to each spark igniter. The spark igniters are located at the __ and __ o’clock positions around the _______.
airframe
igniter cable
4 and 9
combustion chamber
67
Ignition System Operation
To create a spark, the ignition exciter receives a ______ input signal. The exciter transforms this signal to a _____ output signal. Ignition cables carry this high voltage signal to each ______. The spark igniters provide a spark to the air and fuel mixture in the combustion chamber.
low voltage
high voltage
spark igniters
68
Ignition Control Switch 1
An ignition control toggle switch is located on the right forward switch panel in each cockpit. Available switch positions are as follows:
ON
NORM
69
Ignition Control Switch 2
During autostart or normal operation, the ignition switch should be placed in the ____ position.
With the ignition switch in the ____ position, the igniters initiate when the starter switch is moved to ______. The power management unit (PMU) energizes and de-energizes the igniters as required during the start sequence. A green IGN SEL annunciator illuminates when the igniters are activated.
The ____ position is available for continuous igniter operation.
NORM
NORM
AUTO/RESET
ON
70
Power for the ignition system is provided through a circuit breaker labeled "___" located on the battery bus circuit breaker panel in the front cockpit
IGN
71
The Power Control Lever (PCL) controls _______, producing torque on the propeller, and ultimately controls the amount of _____ and aircraft _____.
fuel flow to the engine
engine power
aircraft speed
72
The front and rear PCLs are interconnected with a _____. As one PCL moves, the other follows. This provides identical control of the propulsion system from either cockpit
push-pull rod
73
The front PCL is connected to the Fuel Management Unit (FMU) _____ by a flexible cable. It is also connected _____ to the FMU by way of the PMU
mechanically
electrically
74
The front cockpit PCL has a friction adjust knob. The friction adjust knob is used to change the PCL tension. Rotating the knob ____ increases tension and rotating the knob ____ decreases tension.
right increases
left decreases
75
The PCL has the following labeled positions:
MAX
IDLE
OFF
76
Engine power is distributed ____ between IDLE and MAX
linearly
77
To find the start position, move the PCL forward until a green _____ light on the annunciator panel illuminates
ST READY
78
What is the PMU, where is it located, and what does it do?
The PMU is a computer unit located underneath the engine in the accessory compartment. The PMU processes power requests from the PCL and the keeps the engine and propeller within operating limits
79
How does moving the PCL enact changes to the FMU and PMU?
Moving the PCL forward provides a physical input to the FMU via the flexible cable, releasing a nominal amount of fuel from the FMU.
An electronic signal is transmitted to the PMU which fine tunes the power request and sends a signal to the FMU.
The combination of these inputs produces a near linear power response
80
The PMU switch has 2 positions, what are they? In the ____ position, all PMU functions are active
NORM and OFF
NORM
81
The primary power source for the PMU comes from the?
the Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA), which is mounted on the reduction gearbox
The PMA provides 32 VAC, which the PMU converts to DC. If the PMA fails, power is provided through the 28 VDC battery bus
82
During engine start, the starter/generator functions as a _____ to turn the compressor section. Once the start is completed, the starter/generator functions as a _____, with the compressor turbine powering the starter/generator and the other accessories attached to the gearbox.
starter
generator
83
During engine start, the starter motor turns the compressor via linkage in the accessory gear box. This generates ____ and ____ until the engine starts and is able to run at idle speed
airflow and compression
84
The generator provides ______ power, which powers many of the aircraft systems and charges the battery and the auxiliary battery to _____
28 VDC
24 VDC
85
The oil system includes (3 things):
a pressure system, scavenge system, and cooling system
86
Oil must be _____ to ensure lubrication of the necessary parts; this is done by the _______.
pressurized
pressure pump
The pressure pump must also supply pressure during inverted or negative G flight.
87
How many oil pickups are inside the oil tank?
Two
The first pickup is in the center of the tank and is submerged in oil during normal flight operations.
A second pickup, located near the top of the tank, ensures a constant flow of oil during inverted flight.
88
After the pressure pump supplies oil to the bearings, reduction gears, accessory drives, and propeller, what returns the oil to the oil tank?
A scavenge system
89
The scavenged oil is then routed through the ______ before the oil is returned to the oil tank
oil cooler
90
How is oil filtered? If this gets clogged, how does unfiltered oil continue to lubricate the engine?
Oil is filtered by a main oil filter in the oil tank. There are also several oil strainers located in the power, compressor, and accessory drive areas
If the main oil filter gets clogged, a filter bypass valve allows unfiltered oil to continue lubricating the engine.
91
The oil system also incorporates a chip detector system. Where is the chip detector sensor located? What does the chip detector sensor do?
in the reduction gearbox.
This sensor detects metallic particles in the oil and warns the pilot of possible gear damage.
92
If metal particles are detected in the oil, how would the chip detector warn the pilot?
If metal particles are detected in the oil, a red CHIP annunciator illuminates, the MASTER WARN light illuminates, and an aural tone is heard.
93
How are the oil levels checked (2 methods, although only 1 is used)?
Oil levels can be checked by removing the dipstick from the fill port and visually inspecting the oil levels on the dipstick. This method is only valid within 30 minutes of engine shutdown.
A second means for checking oil levels is provided through a sight glass on the side of the oil tank. This method is not used because it is not as accurate as the dipstick method.
94
What indicator is given if oil pressure is between 15 and 40 psi at IDLE power or between 40 and 90 psi for 10 seconds above IDLE power?
amber OIL PX annunciator illuminates
95
What indicator is given if oil pressure is 15 psi or below at IDLE power, or 40 psi or below above IDLE
red OIL PX annunciator illuminates
96
What indicator is given if oil pressure remains between 15 and 40 psi at IDLE power for 5 seconds or more?
both the red and amber OIL PX annunciators illuminate
97
Power for the oil pressure transducer is provided through a circuit breaker labeled "_____", located on the battery bus circuit breaker panel in the front cockpit.
OIL TRX
98
What is the purpose of the propeller system?
The purpose of the propeller system is to convert power into thrust.
99
What kind of propeller does the T-6A use?
A four-blade, variable pitch, constant speed propeller
100
The PMU and the Propeller Interface Unit (PIU) control propeller speed (NP) to maintain a constant propeller speed of?
2000 RPM (100% Np)
101
Where is 100% torque available from on a standard day?
100% torque is available from sea level to approx. 12,000 to 16,000 feet MSL on a standard day. Above 16,000 feet MSL, a decrease in the maximum torque available is noted
102
The propeller is driven by the power turbine, through the reduction gearbox. The reduction gearbox transfers power generated by the engine to the propeller, reducing engine output from ______ RPM to the propeller operating speed of ______ RPM
30,000 RPM to 2,000 RPM
103
The PMU directs the PIU to maintain propeller RPM at 100% (2,000 RPM) using an _____. A backup mechanical overspeed governor does not allow propeller RPM to exceed _____% (2,120 RPM.)
electronic governor
106%
104
How is propeller RPM regulated if the PMU or PIU fails?
If the PMU or PIU fails, the propeller RPM is automatically regulated by the backup system. If this system is used, the mechanical flyweight overspeed governor resets to maintain RPM at 100 ±2% (2,000 RPM.)
105
What is the PIU? How does it work?
The PIU responds to power requests from the PMU by regulating oil pressure to the pitch change mechanism.
The PIU increases the pressure of the oil that is transferred from the PIU through a tube and stationary transfer sleeve into the hollow propeller shaft. Changes in oil pressure result in changes to propeller pitch.
106
Propeller pitch changes are based upon?
changes in oil pressure
107
What are the three basic propeller pitch conditions?
Feathered
High pitch (coarse)
Low pitch (flat or fine)
108
In the feathered condition, the blade is aligned nearly ______, approximately __° from the perpendicular plane. This position produces the least amount of ____ and no ____.
straight into the wind
86º
drag
thrust
109
Without oil pressure, the counterweights and feathering spring move the propeller blades to which position?
Feathered
110
Which position will the propeller be in during most flight conditions?
High pitch (variable between feather and low pitch)
111
In the low pitch condition, the propeller blades are approximately __° from the perpendicular plane. The propeller blades produce some ____ and the most ____. The propeller will be in this position during ______ and ______ flight.
15º
thrust
drag
low speed and low throttle
112
As the PIU increases oil pressure, the sliding piston is forced _____, rotating the propeller blades toward ______.
forward
low pitch
113
To feather the propeller, place the PCL in the ____ position. This position activates two separate control valves within the PIU. The first is a microswitch which activates the _______ valve. The second, controlled by the PMU, releases oil pressure. Oil pressure being released by either valve allows the _____ and ______ to feather the propeller.
OFF
feather dump solenoid valve
feathering spring and counterweights
114
The feather dump solenoid valve receives power through a circuit breaker labeled? (located on the battery bus circuit breaker panel in the front cockpit)
PROP SYS
115
How does the T-6A pilot adjust the propeller pitch?
The propeller pitch is automatic, the T-6A pilot only needs to adjust the PCL to the desired level of engine power. The propeller system uses this input, as well as temperature, altitude and other conditions, to determine the necessary propeller pitch
116
103 E1. The engine cowling does all of the following:
protect the engine components
decrease drag
include an air inlet to the engine
117
103 E2. The purpose of the inertial separator is to
keep debris away from the engine
118
103 E3. Are the compressor and power turbines physically connected?
No
119
103 E4.What three elements are necessary for engine operation?
Air, fuel, and heat
120
103 E5. (True/False) As exhaust is released, additional thrust is provided.
True
121
103 E6. (True/False) Once the engine is started, and the ignition switch is in the ON position, igniters are automatically energized and de-
energized by the PMU.
False
122
103 E7. The primary purpose of the ignition system is to
ignite the air and fuel mixture in the combustion chamber
123
103 E8. (True/False) Friction control settings made to the front PCL affect the rear PCL
True
124
103 E9. When starting the T-6A, the PCL should be in what position?
pushed forward until a green ST READY annunciator is illuminated
125
103 E10. The PMU is located where?
underneath the engine in the accessory compartment
126
103 E11. The PMU performs the following functions:
Maintains operating limits
Processes power requests
Determines available power
127
103 E12. The PMU STATUS annunciator illuminates after landing when the PMU?
need maintenance
128
103 E13. (True/False) After engine start, the starter becomes a generator.
True
129
103 E14. (True/False) The MANUAL starter switch position will be used under normal circumstances
False
130
103 E15. If oil pressure is ________ psi or below at IDLE power, the red OIL PX annunciator will illuminate.
15
131
103 E16. If oil pressure remains between 15 and 40 psi at IDLE power for more than 5 seconds, __________ will be illuminated.
both the amber and red OIL PX annunciators
132
103 E17. The chip detector sensor is located in the?
reduction gearbox
133
103 E18. The oil system provides filtered oil to the following systems:
propeller
reduction gear
engine
134
103 E19. The reduction gearbox reduces engine output from _____ RPM to propeller speeds of _____ RPM
30,000 to 2,000
135
103 E20. The phase shift torque probe monitors
Propeller speed
136
103 E21. The PIU
regulates oil pressure to the pitch change mechanism
137
103 E22. If the propeller pitch change mechanism loses oil pressure, the propeller will automatically move towards the __________ position.
feathered
138
103 E23. Varying levels of thrust are achieved by changing
propeller pitch
139
103 LR1. What does the PMU do?
keeps engine and propeller within operating limits
140
103 LR2. If the oil filter gets clogged
the system uses unfiltered oil
141
103 LR3. In straight-and-level flight, for PCL positions above IDLE, oil pressure should be maintained between
__________ and __________ psi.
90; 120
142
103 LR4. The phase shift torque probe is located
in the reduction gearbox
143
103 LR5. Propeller pitch refers to the
angle of the propeller blades
144
103 LR6. Which propeller position produces the least amount of drag?
Feather
145
103 LR7. The propeller pitch change mechanism is able to change propeller blade angle by using
Oil pressure
146
103 LR8. The PMU directs the PIU to maintain propeller RPM at
2,000
147
103 LR9. The power turbine is driven by
expanding gases
148
103 LR10. During aerobatic flight, oil pressure should be maintained at or above __________ psi
40
149
What is the Engine Data Manager (EDM)? Where is it located?
The Engine Data Manager is a computer unit located in the left avionics bay that monitors and processes engine operation data.
150
What engine related tasks does the Engine Data Manager do?
It drives displays for: primary, alternate, and engine/systems
and it illuminates: advisory, caution, and warning annunciators
151
What non-engine related tasks does the Engine Data Manager do?
-Fuel balancing
-Fuel Quantity indications
-NWS annunciator
-displays: DC volts, DC amps, hydraulic pressure, cockpit pressure altitude, and cockpit pressure differential
152
Redundant power is supplied to the EDM through circuit breakers, labeled what? (located on the battery bus circuit breaker panel)
EDM
153
What is the Primary Engine Data Display (PEDD)? Where is it located?
The primary engine data display (PEDD) is an electronic instrument display (EID) that presents engine information received from the EDM. The PEDD is located on the right side of the instrument panel in each cockpit.
154
How does the PEDD get its data?
All primary engine data is gathered by various sensors and is transmitted to the PMU for processing. The EDM monitors engine parameters and passes the information to the PEDD.
155
What do the colors on the PEDD mean?
White/Green - Normal Operating Range
Amber - Caution Operating Range
Red - Exceeding operation limits
156
What information is displayed on the PEDD?
Torque
Interstage Turbine Temperature (ITT)
Gas generator speed (N1)
Propeller RPM (Np)
Indicated Outside Air Temperature (IOAT)
157
How is torque measured? Where is the red radial on the analog scale for torque?
Torque is measured by the phase shift torque probe located in the reduction gearbox and represents a percentage of the maximum rated torque
A maximum of 100% is indicated on the analog scale
158
What is ITT (Interstage Turbine Temperature)? How is the reading obtained?
ITT is the temperature between the compressor turbine and the power turbine
The reading is obtained from a sensing system around the combustion chamber
159
During a start sequence, ITT operating limits are from?
After the startup sequence is complete, operating limits are reset to ___ and ___ °C and the circular scale becomes proportionally smaller/
400 to 1000 ºC
400 to 820 ºC
(Out of limits is above 820 ºC)
160
What is N1 (gas generator speed)? How is it measured? What are its normal operating limits?
The gas generator speed (N1) represents the speed of the compressor turbine in the gas generator section of the engine.
N1 is measured by a magnetic pulse sensor in the accessory gearbox.
Normal limits are 60% to 104% (anything over 104% is out of limits)
161
What is Np? How is it measured? What are its normal operating limits?
Np represents a percent of the maximum rated propeller RPM
Propeller RPM is measured by the torque probe, a sensor in the reduction gearbox
NP ground operating limits are 0 – 61% and 81 – 100%. In order to prevent damage from ground resonance, sustained propeller operation between 62 and 80% NP is prohibited while on the ground.
Out-of-limits for in-flight operations are readings more than 102%
162
How is the IOAT (indicated outside air temperature) measured? How is the reading displayed?
Indicated Outside Air Temperature is measured by the T-1 probe, a sensor located in the inlet plenum. Readings are displayed as a white digital readout
163
Power for the PEDD travels through the circuit breaker labeled _____ on the generator bus circuit breaker panels in each cockpit.
PRI ENG DIS
164
What is the difference between the data provided by the PEDD and the AEDD (alternate engine data display)?
Except for torque, data for the AEDD is not processed by the PMU
165
What information is displayed by the AEDD?
Raw Interstage Turbine Temperature (RITT)
Torque
Gas generator speed (N1)
Cockpit pressure altitude
Cockpit differential pressure (ΔP)
Fuel flow
Fuel quantity
166
The AEDD redundantly provides information about torque, gas generator speed, and interstage turbine temperature also found on the PEDD.
Unlike the PEDD which shows both analog and digital readouts for these three gauges, the AEDD only uses ____ readouts.
digital
167
The cockpit pressure altitude display, labeled COCKPIT ALT, provides the pilot with?
Data for this display is generated by the?
Anytime the display exceeds ____, the digital readout is outlined with a yellow box. In addition, an amber CKPT ALT annunciator illuminates, the MASTER CAUTION light flashes, and an aural tone sounds.
the altitude maintained in the cockpit due to pressurization
EDM
19,000 feet
168
The cockpit differential pressure (ΔP) display, located below the cockpit altitude display, measures the difference between the air pressures inside and outside the cockpit. ΔP is processed by the EDM and is displayed by a white digital readout.
If ΔP exceeds _____ psi, the digital readout is outlined with a red box. In addition, a red CKPT PX annunciator illuminates, the MASTER WARN light flashes, and an aural tone sounds.
3.9 to 4.0 psi
169
The fuel quantity gauge displays fuel in what unit?
The fuel flow gauge shows rate of fuel consumption in what unit?
Pounds
PPH (pounds per hour)
170
The AEDD is powered through a circuit breaker labeled ____ located on the battery bus circuit breaker panel in each cockpit.
ALT ENG DIS
171
The engine/systems display (ESD) is located just below the PEDD. In its normal state, this display provides?
Oil temperature
Oil pressure
Hydraulic pressure
DC voltage
DC amperage
172
Normal oil temperature operating limits range from? Cautionary limits are from ___ to ___. Out of limits readings are readings greater than 110 ºC
10 to 105
105 110
110+
173
What are the normal operating limits for hydraulic pressure? If hydraulic pressure falls below ___ psi or rises above ___ psi, the display changes color to amber to indicate caution.
2880 to 3120 psi
below 1800 or above 3120
174
What are the color ranges for DC voltage?
amber up to 21.9V
white from 22.0 to 29.5V
amber from 29.6 to 32.2V
red from 32.3V and above
175
How is the T-6A fire warning system designed?
The warning system consists of a core element, sensor tube, and responder assembly. The sensor tube is filled with pressurized helium gas. Inside this tube is a core element filled with hydrogen gas.
176
Do kinks, twists, or dents affect system reliability of the fire warning sensor tubes?
No.
177
Explain Fire Warning Operation 1
As average or localized temperatures rise, the helium gases expand, creating pressure inside the responder. When pressure in the responder reaches or exceeds the preset limit, a signal triggers the overheat/fire alarm.
178
Explain Fire Warning Operation 2
The hydrogen charged inner core is designed to respond to highly localized temperatures caused by fire or hot gases. As the temperature of the core element increases, it releases hydrogen gas into the sensor tube. The mixture of these gases causes the helium gas pressure to increase. When pressure limits are exceeded in the responder, it generates an overheat warning.
179
During fire warning system tests, when the #1 switch is selected only the ___ half of the FIRE annunciator lights up. Repeat the process for the #2 switch position, and note that only the ___ half illuminates for the #2 switch position
top
bottom
180
The firewall shutoff handle ____ shuts off _____ and ____ to the engine, as well as ____ from the engine. Valves may be reset by pushing the handle back in.
mechanically
hydraulic fluid
fuel flow
bleed air flow
181
104 E1. (True/False) All of the functions performed by the engine data manager (EDM) are engine related.
False
182
104 E2. The EDM is located
in the left avionics bay
183
104 E4. (True/False) All primary engine data is processed by the PMU prior to being displayed on the primary engine data display.
True
184
104 E5. In the event of abnormal engine operation, the primary engine data displays will warn the pilot by?
changing color
185
104 E6. In order to prevent possible damage due to ground resonance, what is the NP stabilized operation prohibited range while on the ground?
62-80%
186
104 E8. (True/False) All data provided to the alternate engine data display is first processed by the PMU.
False
187
104 E9. On the alternate engine data display, ΔP measures the
difference between cockpit pressure and outside pressure
188
104 E11. The engine/systems display provides (5 things)
oil temperature, oil pressure, hydraulic pressure, DC volts, and DC amps
189
104 E12. (True/False) Normal operating range for the oil pressure gauge is 90 – 140 psi
False
190
104 E14. (True/False) Shutoff valves activated by the Firewall Shutoff Handle may be reset by pushing the handle back in.
True
191
104 E14. When testing the integrity of the fire warning system, you will know the system is working properly if __________ and the aural tone sounds
the FIRE and MASTER WARN annunciators illuminate
192
104 LR1. The engine data manager does not
a. monitor engine operating parameters.
b. illuminate appropriate advisory, caution, or warning annunciators.
c. drive the primary, alternate, and engine/systems displays.
d. control all electronic displays in the cockpit.
the engine data manager does not control all electronic displays in the cockpit
193
104 LR2. The primary engine data display system
provides each cockpit with a visual indication of engine operation
194
104 LR3. The engine data manager is located
in the left avionics bay
195
104 LR5. (True/False) The alternate engine data display serves as a backup to the primary engine data display, and therefore displays some of the same data.
True
196
104 E6. The primary engine data display provides
torque, ITT, N1, NP, and IOAT
197
104 E7. The engine/systems display does not display __________ data in each cockpit.
a. outside environmental
b. hydraulic system
c. oil system
d. electrical system
a. outside environmental
198
104 LR9. All data presented on the alternate engine data display is processed by the PMU.
False
199
104 LR10. The FIRE switch located in the front cockpit is used to
test the integrity of the fire warning system
200
What are the 3 types of abnormal starts?
Hot
Hung
No start
201
What is the Normal Start Sequence?
ITT
N1
Np
202
What are possible indications of a Hot Start?
High/Rapidly rising ITT
Lower N1
Lower Np
(only one with high)
203
What are possible causes of a Hot Start?
PMU failure
FMU failure
Incorrect air/fuel mixture
Low battery
204
What are possible indications of a Hung Start?
Slow rising ITT
Lower N1
Lower Np
(2 lows and a slow)
205
What are some possible causes of a Hung Start?
PMU failure
FMU failure
Incorrect air/fuel mixture
Ignition system failure
Starter failure
Low battery
206
What are some indications of a No Start?
No ITT indication
Lower N1
No Np indication
No torque indication
(3 no's and a low)
207
What are some possible causes of a No Start?
PMU failure
FMU failure
Starter failure
Ignition system failure
Incorrect air/fuel mixture
208
What are the initial indications of an engine failure in flight?
Loss of power and airspeed
Rapid decay of N1, torque, and ITT
MASTER WARN lights and tone
Propeller moves toward feather
(everything is going down ccw)
209
What are the accompanying indications of an Engine Failure in Flight?
Rapidly decreasing ITT, Np
Lower-than-normal oil pressure
Engine noise
GEN, OIL PX, OBOGS FAIL, FUEL PX
annunciators (engine is goofing off ->GOOF lights)
Possibly PMU FAIL and CKPT ALT annunciators
210
What are some possible causes of an Engine Failure in Flight?
Fuel starvation
Mechanical failure
Compressor stall
211
What are some indications of PMU failure?
Power setup change
PMU FAIL and PMU STATUS annunciators
MASTER WARN light
Aural tone
212
What are some possible causes of PMU failure?
System failure
System malfunction
213
What are some indications of Uncommanded Power Changes/Loss of Power/Uncommanded Propeller Feather?
Reduction in power/thrust
Lower than expected fuel flow
Uncommanded decrease in N1
High raw ITT (RITT) on AEDD
With oil/engine/fuel system contamination, additionally:
Power surges
Uncontrollable high power
214
What are some possible causes of Uncommanded Power Changes/Loss of Power/Uncommanded Propeller Feather?
Engine rollback due to PMU scheduling
Oil/engine/fuel system contamination
215
What are some indications of uncommanded feather?
Rapid loss of power High torque
Lower NP
Possible PMU FAIL/PMU STATUS annunciators Engine vibration
Engine noise
216
What are some possible causes of Uncommanded Feather?
Feather dump solenoid malfunction
Loss of oil pressure to propeller pitch control mechanism
217
What are some possible indications of Prop Sleeve Touchdown?
NP fluctuations
Increasing torque
Decreasing thrust
Engine vibrations
Possible CHIP detector warning light
218
What are some possible causes of Prop Sleeve Touchdown?
Loss of oil pressure to propeller pitch control mechanism from momentary contact between oil transfer sleeve and propeller shaft
219
What are some indications of an engine fire in flight?
FIRE annunciator
MASTER WARN light
Aural tone
220
What are some possible causes of an Engine Fire in Flight?
Fuel or oil leaks
Fire getting outside the engine
221
What does FEVER stand for?
Fluctuating oil pressure, oil temperature, or
hydraulic pressure
Excessive turbine temperature
Visual indications
Erratic engine operation
Roughness or vibration
222
105 E1. What three elements are necessary for engine operation?
Air, Heat, and Fuel
223
105 E2. The T-6 propeller has __________ blades, __________ pitch, and __________ speed.
four
variable
constant
224
105 E3. Given indications of abnormal start, what should you do?
Begin abort start procedure
225
105 E4. What are the types of abnormal start?
Hot start, Hung start, No start
226
105 E5. What are the indications of a hot start?
High/rapidly rising ITT, Lower N1
227
105 E6. What are the indications of a hung start?
Low rising ITT, Lower N1, Lower Np
228
105 E7. What are the indications of no start?
No ITT indication, Lower N1, No Np indication
229
105 E8. What are some possible display indications of engine failure in flight?
Initial : Loss of power and airspeed; Rapid decay of N1, torque, and ITT; MASTER WARN lights and tone; Prop moves toward feather.
Accompanying: Rapidly decreasing ITT, Np; Lower than normal oil pressure; Engine noise, GEN FUEL PZ, OIL PX OBOGS FAIL annunciators; Possibly PMU FAIL and CKPT ALT annunciators.
230
105 E9. What are the indications of PMU failure?
Power strip change, PMU FAIL annunciator, MASTER WARN light, Aural tone
231
105 E10. What are the indications of uncommanded propeller feather?
Rapid loss of power; High torque; Lower Np; Possible PMU FAIL/PMU STATUS annunciators; Engine/airframe vibration; Engine noise
232
105 E11. What are some sensory indications of engine fire in flight?
See smoke or flames; Smell oil burning; Hear unusual sounds; Feel engine vibration or roughness
233
105 LR2. The power turbine is driven by?
Expanding gasses
234
105 LR3. What are the two engine sections?
Gas generator and power turbine section
235
105 LR4. What functions are performed by the PMU?
Maintain operating limits, process power requests, control engine and propeller, provide near linear power response
236
105 LR5. What is the purpose of the PIU?
Regulate oil pressure to the pitch change mechanism
237
105 LR8. What three elements are necessary for engine operation?
Air, fuel, and heat
238
The T-6A electrical system includes what 4 things?
28 VDC 300 amp starter/generator
24 VDC 42 amp lead acid battery
24 VDC 5 amp auxiliary battery
28 VDC external power receptacle
239
What 2 buses are on the T-6A?
battery bus and generator bus
240
What provides primary electrical power for the aircraft?
the generator
241
What monitors and regulates the starter/generator?
generator control unit under the aft cockpit
242
If either cockpit moves the generator control switch to ON, the other cockpit's switch gets set to?
OFF
243
How is power from the generator controlled?
a generator control switch labeled "GEN"
244
The generator bus is divided into a
front and rear bus for the respective cockpits
245
The front cockpit generator bus powers?
the rear generator bus and the front cockpit avionics bus
246
The rear cockpit avionics bus is powered by
the forward generator bus through the front cockpit avionics bus
247
The rear cockpit generator bus is controlled through a circuit labeled?
AFT GEN
248
Both front and rear cockpit avionics buses are controlled by circuit breakers labeled?
FWD AVI and AFT AVI
249
Like the generator bus, the battery bus also consists of a _____ bus for the respective cockpits. Each cockpit battery bus has a bus for _____.
front and rear
avionics
250
The rear cockpit battery bus receives power from the?
front cockpit battery bus
251
The rear cockpit avionics bus receives power from?
the front cockpit battery bus through the front cockpit avionics bus
252
The rear cockpit battery is controlled by a circuit breaker labeled?
AFT BAT
253
What does the hot battery bus do when it is installed?
provides continuous essential power to components which are required to operate continuously or may be necessary in an emergency. Each of these components is protected by individual circuit breakers
254
Power for all avionics and radio systems in both cockpits is furnished through an avionics master switch labeled?
AVIONICS MASTER on the right forward switch panel in the front cockpit
255
What does the avionics master switch do when it is placed in the ON position?
it de-energizes relays, allowing the forward and aft avionics buses to be powered by the battery and generator buses.
256
What is the circuit breaker for the avionics master panel?
AVI MSTR
257
What is the bus tie switch used for? What does it do when the switch is engaged (NORM)?
The bus tie switch on the front right forward switch panel, is used to tie the battery and generator buses together for normal operation
When the switch is engaged (NORM), the generator feeds both generator bus powered items and battery bus powered items
258
What happens if the bus tie switch is set to OPEN?
If the bus tie switch is set to OPEN, or if the bus tie fails, the battery and generator buses are isolated and each powers only equipment attached to that bus.
259
What warnings are given if the bus tie system is open?
In each cockpit, the amber BUS TIE light on the annunciator panel illuminates, the MASTER CAUTION light flashes, and the warning tone sounds.
260
Where are the circuit breakers protecting generator bus systems and equipment located in each cockpit?
on the right console panel
261
What is each circuit breaker marked with?
the maximum current load it will allow (in amps)
262
How many volts and amps is the battery?
24VDC 42 amp
263
How many volts and amps is the auxiliary battery?
24VDC 5 amp
264
What does the primary battery do?
Provides power for engine starts and is capable of powering all electrical systems in the event of generator failure with the bus tie closed
265
How is the battery switch labeled? How does it work between cockpits?
The battery switch is labeled "BAT" and it works identical to the GEN switch (As with the generator control switches, the battery switches are magnetically held and electrically interlocked)
266
Power for the battery is located on a circuit breaker labeled?
BAT SW
267
What does the auxiliary battery do?
The auxiliary battery powers a minimum number of aircraft systems and avionics in the event of failure of the generator and primary battery
268
When is the auxiliary battery tested? How is the switch labeled?
the auxiliary battery is tested during preflight
the switch is labeled "AUX BAT"
269
Where is the external power receptacle installed at? What does it do?
An external power receptacle is installed in the bottom of the left, aft fuselage, below the left avionics bay door
The external power system is capable of powering all T-6A systems, to include engine start.
270
How do you make external power available?
the battery switch (BAT) must be set to ON
271
How are interior lights controlled?
Instrument panel lights are controlled through a knob labeled INST. Side control panel lighting is controlled by a knob placarded SIDE, and area lights are controlled by the knob labeled FLOOD
272
What do you watch to set the instrument panel lighting brightness level at the desired level?
Set the AOA gauge to the desired level
273
Where is the landing light located?
The landing light is located aft and inboard of the left main landing gear strut, and is exposed as the landing gear is extended. (the switch has three bumps)
274
The landing and taxi lights only illuminates when?
when their switches are on and the gear is down and locked
275
Where are the navigation lights on the T-6?
the leading edge and trailing edge of each wingtip
276
How often do the anti-collision strobe lights flash?
about 30 times per minute
277
106 E1. What electrical component allows isolation of the generator and battery buses?
Bus tie switch
278
106 E2. The starter/generator is regulated and monitored by a __________ located under a panel in the rear cockpit.
generator control unit
279
106 E3. Generator power is controlled by the __________ switch located on the right forward switch panel in each cockpit
GEN
280
106 E4. The rear cockpit avionics bus receives power through the __________ bus.
front cockpit avionics
281
106 E5. Circuit breakers labeled FWD AVI and AFT AVI control front and rear cockpit avionics buses and are located on the front cockpit
battery bus and generator bus circuit breaker panels
282
106 E6. A circuit breaker labeled AFT BAT on the front cockpit battery bus circuit breaker panel controls the
rear cockpit battery bus
283
What circuit breaker bus is on the left side of the cockpit and on the right side of the cockpit?
left -> bat bus
right -> gen bus
284
106 E7. Except for the back-up UHF control head and UHF transceiver, power for all avionics and radio systems in both cockpits is furnished through __________ on the right forward switch panel in the front cockpit.
an Avionics Master Switch
285
106 E8. An amber __________ light on the annunciator panel in each cockpit will indicate an open bus tie switch.
BUS TIE
286
106 E9. Circuit breakers protecting systems and equipment operating from the battery bus are located on the __________ panel in each cockpit
left console
287
106 E10. Each circuit breaker is marked with the maximum __________ it will allow to pass before popping.
current load in amps
288
106 E11. Battery power is controlled through ___________ switch on the right forward switch panel in either cockpit.
a battery
289
106 E12. A switch labeled AUX BAT on the front cockpit left console test panel is positioned forward to test the __________ during preflight checks.
auxiliary battery
290
106 E13. External power is controlled by the __________ switch and distributed on the __________ bus.
battery; battery
291
106 E14. Lighting for EFIS displays, the RMU, the AOA indexer, and the GPS control panel is adjusted using the knob labeled INSTR PANEL on the trim control panel. (TRUE/FALSE)
FALSE
292
106 E15. __________ lights can be detached and relocated to the right canopy rail for use as an area or map light.
Utility
293
106 E16. The landing light will only come on when the landing light switch is activated and the landing gear?
is down and locked
294
106 E17. When switched on, white position lights at the trailing edge of each wingtip
are constantly illuminated
295
106 LR1. The generator provides 28 VDC power, and is capable of supplying _____ amps
300
296
106 LR2. The generator can be controlled from either cockpit through use of the generator?
control switch
297
106 LR3. What switch provides power for all avionics and radio systems in both cockpits (except the backup UHF control head)?
Avionics Master Switch
298
106 LR4. If a component or circuit malfunctions, the affected __________ will open, shutting off current flow to that component or circuit.
circuit breaker
299
106 LR5. The battery can be controlled from either cockpit through the use of the __________ switch.
battery
300
106 LR6. Light output from the instruments, control panels, and displays can be adjusted by using dimming controls located on the __________ panel in each cockpit.
Trim control
301
106 LR7. The taxi light is located aft and inboard of the
right main landing gear strut
302
106 LR8. A fault occurs in the circuit controlling the anti-collision lights. The COLL circuit breaker will pop on the battery bus circuit breaker panel located on the __________ cockpit.
left side of the front
303
106 LR9. What annunicator will illuminate if the bus tie switch is set to OPEN?
Yellow "BUS TIE"
304
106 LR10. The starter/generator provides 28 volts DC, while the battery and auxiliary battery are __________ VDC units.
24
305
How many fuel tanks are there? Name them.
Three fuel tanks:
Left-wing tank
Collector tank
Right-wing tank
306
Fuel is fed to the engine by a _____ flow system.
Motive
307
Motive flow results as fuel moves through the fuel lines, creating a _____ between the fuel lines and fuel tanks. This pressure differential causes lower _____ in the fuel lines and creates a “_____” effect that draws fuel from the tanks.
pressure differential
static pressure
siphoning
308
What is the maximum fuel the T-6A can hold? What is the maximum fuel when only using the primary refueling method?
1200 pounds
1100 pounds
309
What are the two methods to refuel the T-6A? What is the primary method?
single point pressure or over the wing gravity refueling. Single-point pressure refueling is the primary method of refueling
310
What are in the fuel tanks that are driven by motive flow to provide fuel to engine-driven low and high-pressure fuel pumps
Jet pumps
311
What type of pump is used for engine start or in case of engine-driven low-pressure fuel pump failure?
An electric boost pump
312
What is in the central collector tank supplies fuel feed during negative-G flight operations?
a flip-flop valve
313
How is equal fuel quantity maintained in the two wing tanks?
an auto-balancing system
314
Where is the single point refueling/defueling adapter located?
on the left side of the fuselage just in front of the wing
315
How is refueling shutoff controlled?
Refueling shutoff is automatically controlled by the level control pilot valves located at the outboard tip of each wing
316
Under pressurization (from a fuel truck or fuel pit), how long does it take to fill the tanks?
3 to 5 minutes
317
What is defueling, why would it happen, and how long does it take?
Defueling, removal of fuel from the aircraft, is generally performed prior to extensive maintenance on the aircraft.
The aircraft can be defueled in approximately 5 minutes by applying suction through the single point adapter
318
What is different about refueling via over the wing gravity refueling?
This method uses two ports, one located on the top of each wing tank.
Fuel capacity is approximately 50 pounds greater in each wing (100 pounds total) using this method if each wing tank is filled to the base of the filler neck.
There is no automatic shutoff for this method, and the aircraft cannot be defueled from the over the wing gravity refueling ports.
319
The boost pump is an _____ driven pump that provides a continuous flow of fuel to the _____ fuel pumps. It is sometimes used as an auxiliary or backup for other types of pumps (e.g., jet pumps) that perform the same function. The pump is located in the ______ and provides fuel delivery for _______. A redundant circuit in the starter relay activates the boost pump whenever the starter is activated, regardless of fuel pressure.
electrically
engine driven
collector tank
initial engine startups
320
The fuel is pumped through the engine feed line to the fuel filter, which is installed to do what?
prevent contaminants from reaching the main fuel pumps or engine.
The filter is equipped with a fuel bypass, which enables fuel flow to the engine if the filter becomes restricted
321
How many shutoff valves are incorporated into the engine feed line?
Two (firewall shutoff valve and maintenance shutoff valve)
322
A 10 psi pressure switch senses _______ flow line and activates the _______ anytime fuel pressure drops below 10 psi and the PCL is above the start ready position. The switch also illuminates the ____ (low fuel pressure) annunciator.
fuel pressure in the motive
electric boost pump
FUEL PX
323
What do transfer jet pumps do? How many of them are there? Where are they located?
As fuel is drawn from the collector tank by the primary jet pump, transfer jet pumps in the wing tanks direct fuel from the wing tanks to the collector tank. This keeps the collector tank pressurized. There are four transfer jet pumps on the T-6A. They are located at the inboard corners of each wing tank.
324
How does the flow of both the primary jet pump and the 4 transfer jet pumps work?
Venturi flow
Fuel is forced through a tapered restriction in the pumps, causing an increase in the velocity of the fuel flow. This creates a suction effect which draws additional fuel from the tanks.
325
Why does fuel flows toward the collector tank during normal flight?
the dihedral of the wings
326
How much time with fuel does the flip-flop valve provide regardless of orientation?
Minimum of 60 seconds (and prevents air ingestion into the fuel system)
327
How many fuel probes are in the T-6A tanks?
Seven
3 in each wing tank and 1 in the collector tank
328
If the left fuel arrow is pointing at a "4" and the right fuel arrow is pointing at a "4," how much fuel do you have?
800 pounds
329
What fuel flow is normal for cruise?
350 PPH
330
What does the annunciator "FUEL PX" mean?
This annunciator indicates low fuel pressure delivery to the engine, and is illuminated by activation of the low pressure switch (below 10 psi) on the motive flow line
331
What does the annunciator "L FUEL LO" or "R FUEL LO" mean?
This annunciator indicates that fuel quantity in the left or right wing tank is low (110 pounds or less)
332
What does the annunciator "FUEL BAL" mean?
This annunciator indicates that the fuel imbalance has exceeded 30 pounds for more than 2 minutes and the automated balancing system has not corrected the condition. It also lights if a fuel probe fails. It remains illuminated until the fuel system is reset.
333
What does the annunciator "M FUEL BAL" mean?
This annunciator is illuminated any time the fuel balance switch is not in the AUTO position
334
What does the annunciator "BOOST PUMP" mean?
This annunciator, when lit, indicates that
the boost pump has been activated by either turning the boost
pump switch ON, automatically by operation of low pressure switch or whenever the starter is activated
335
Why is the boost pump typically not needed after engine start?
Because pressurized fuel is
being provided by the primary jet pump during engine
operation
336
How close does the auto balance system maintain the fuel load in each wing tank?
within 20 pounds
337
107 E1. (True/False) The motive flow system is normally driven by the electric boost pump.
False
338
107 E2. When using the primary refueling method, the total amount of usable fuel in the tanks is approximately __________ pounds.
1,100 pounds
339
107 E3. The collector tank holds a maximum of approximately __________ pounds of fuel.
40 pounds
340
107 E4. What is the primary method of refueling the T-6A?
Single point pressure refueling
341
107 E5. Using the single point pressure refueling method, approx. how long does it take to refuel the aircraft?
3 to 5 minutes
342
107 E6. The secondary or backup method for refueling the T-6A is called __________ refueling
over the wing gravity
343
107 E7. The engine-driven high-pressure fuel pump is fed from the
engine-driven low pressure fuel pump
344
107 E8. The motive flow line routes fuel to which of the following pumps?
Primary jet pump and transfer jut pumps
345
107 E9. The collector tank is equipped with two fuel pumps for engine feed operations. Which one is used AFTER engine start?
Primary jet pump
346
107 E11. During negative-G flight, the flip-flop valve activates, providing the engine access to fuel located in the
collector tank
347
107 E15. (True/False) Once the engine is running and motive flow has been activated, the boost pump is automatically turned off by the low pressure switch.
True
348
107 E17. (True/False) The wing tanks are internally vented to each other by float valves.
False.
If the aircraft is parked on a sloped surface, fuel flows from the high wing to the low wing, causing an imbalance.
A float valve installed in the vent opening at the tip end of each wing tank closes when rising fuel reaches it. This prevents the fuel from draining to the outside.
349
107 E18. The fuel system incorporates an auto balance system which maintains the fuel load in each wing tank to within __________ pounds of the other wing.
20 pounds
350
107 LR1. Using the primary refueling method, the maximum fuel quantity for one wing tank is __________ pounds.
530 pounds
351
107 LR2. The flip-flop valve in the collector tank provides a minimum of _____ seconds of fuel regardless of aircraft orientation
60 seconds
352
107 LR3. Which method of refueling fills the wing tanks simultaneously?
Single point pressure refueling
353
107 LR5. Which of the following maintains fuel balance by shutting off fuel flow to the light wing tank?
Transfer (solenoid) valve
354
107 LR6. The primary and transfer jet pumps are operated by
venturi flow
355
107 LR8. How long does it take to defuel the T-6A through the over the wing gravity refueling ports?
The T-6A cannot be defueled through the over the wing gravity refueling ports.
356
107 LR9. Fuel is routed from the engine-driven fuel pump to the primary jet pump through which line?
Motive flow line
357
107 LR10. The left and right fuel quantity arrows on the AEDD turn yellow when indicated fuel quantity in the respective tank is below __________ pounds.
150 pounds
358
108 E1. During normal operation, while the bus tie is closed, which electrical buses does the generator supply?
Both generator and battery buses are powered by the generator
359
108 E2. The GCU is located under a side panel in which cockpit?
The GCU is under a panel on the right side of the rear cockpit
360
108 E3. Generator and battery buses are tied together through what switch?
Bus tie switch
361
108 E4. Power for aircraft avionics is supplied by which bus?
Both generator and battery buses supply power to avionics and radios
362
108 E5. Battery bus circuit breakers are located on which side of the cockpit?
Battery bus circuit breakers are located on the left side of the cockpit
363
108 E6. Control of battery power is transferable between cockpits using what?
Battery power control is transferable using the battery switch
364
108 E7. True or false? The auxiliary battery will activate automatically upon failure of the primary battery.
False. It must be activated by the auxiliary battery switch
365
108 E8. The landing and taxi lights are activated by the LDG and TAXI switched when the gear is _______.
Down and locked
366
108 E9. The navigation lights at the leading edge wingtips are what colors?
Red on the left wingtip and Green on the right wingtip
367
108 E10. Using single point refueling, the T-6A's maximum usable fuel is how many pounds?
1,100 pounds
368
108 E11. Which refueling method allows more fuel to be pumped into the wing tanks?
Over the wing gravity refueling
369
108 E12. The primary jet pump and transfer jet pumps are operated by what means?
the Venturi flow generated by fuel flowing in the motive fuel line
370
108 E13. Data from the fuel flow transmitter is displayed on what instrument?
AEDD
371
108 E14. AEDD fuel quantity indications are derived from how many sensors in the fuel tanks?
Seven
372
108 E15. What is indicated if the M FUEL BAL annunciator is lighted?
The fuel balance switch on the right forward switch panel has been set to MAN/RESET
373
108 E16. (True/False) The weight of the fuel in the collector tank is included in the total fuel weight on the AEDD.
True
374
108 E17. Which component prevents fuel from draining from the wing tank?
Float valve
375
108 E18. If tank loads are out of balance, the auto balance system stops motive flow to which tank?
Motive flow is halted to the light tank
376
108 E19. The FUEL BAL annunciator will illuminate if the fuel weight difference between the left and right tank exceeds what figure for more than 2 minutes?
30 pounds
377
108 E21. The BOOST PUMP annunciator is cycling on and off. This could be an indication of what?
Low fuel pressure
378
108 LR1. The generator supplies what voltage to the generator and battery buses?
28 volts DC
379
108 LR2. The anti-collision strobe lights are located where?
The strobe lights are on each wingtip near the leading edge
380
108 LR3. External power is distributed on which bus?
Battery bus
381
108 LR4. Gravity refueling adds how many total pounds to the T-6A normal capacity?
100 pounds
382
108 LR5. Generator bus circuit breakers are located on which side of the aircraft?
Right side
383
108 LR7. (True/False) Single-point refueling fills all three tanks sequentially beginning with the collector tank.
False. Single-point refueling fills all three tanks simultaneously
384
108 LR8. The control for which shutoff valve is located in the cockpit?
Firewall shutoff valve is located in left console of front cockpit
385
108 LR9. Which annunciator illuminates if the auto balance system has failed or if the difference in weight between the left and right tanks exceeds 30 pounds for more than 2 minutes
the FUEL BAL annunciator will illuminate in these instances
386
108 LR10. Which electrical component provides power for engine starts?
the primary battery
387
The T-6A's primary flight controls are all manually operated using?
mechanical linkages
388
How are the secondary flight controls operated?
electromechanically
389
What 5 components make up the aileron system?
Left and right ailerons
Two control sticks
Interconnect tube
Push-pull rods
Bellcranks
390
For the aileron system, aileron trailing edge travel is limited to:
20º up
11º down
391
What is the Aileron Ground Adjusted Trim Tabs?
These are used by maintenance personnel only to adjust for a stick neutral trim input to the controls. They should not be tampered with by the aircrew.
392
Each primary flight control surface on the T-6A is “_____.” This simply means that the center of gravity of each control surface falls along its pivot or hinge line.
mass balanced
393
What 8 components make up the elevator system?
Elevator
Two control sticks
Push-pull rods
Interconnect tube
Bell cranks
Elevator cables
Downsprings
Bob-weight
394
What is the elevator bobweight and what is its purpose?
The bobweight is simply metal plates attached to the base of the front control stick. This extra weight provides a heavier stick force whenever G-loading is increased. Heavier stick force helps enhance control feedback to help prevent overstressing of the airframe.
395
Aft stick input causes the elevator trailing edge to deflect ___. Conversely, forward stick input causes the elevator trailing edge to deflect _____.
upward (pitch up)
downward (pitch down)
396
Maximum travel of the elevator trailing edge is:
18º up
16º down
397
In both the ailerons and elevator systems, what prevents the control sticks from conflicting inputs?
interconnect tube between the control sticks
398
What 7 components make up the rudder system?
Rudder
Two sets of rudder pedals
Rudder cables
Pulleys
Bell cranks
Tie rods
Centering springs
399
How are the front and rear rudder pedals connected?
Tie rods
400
What do centering springs do in the rudder system?
Centering springs are installed to provide a tendency for the rudder to return to the neutral position and to enhance control feedback.
401
What allows you to set the rudder pedals to a comfortable position?
A rudder pedal adjustment hand crank
402
Maximum deflection of the rudder is
24º to the left and right
403
The left rudder pedal deflects the rudder to the ____. This causes static pressure to increase which ultimately forces the nose to the _____.
Left pedal deflects the rudder to the left which forces the nose to the left
404
How is elevator and aileron trim controlled by the pilot?
A roll/pitch trim switch on the top of each control stick
405
Which cockpit has priority in the event of conflicting trim inputs?
Rear cockpit for all trim inputs
406
How is rudder trim controlled by the pilot?
A rocker switch on the front side of the PCL
407
What is the trim interrupt button?
In the event of a trim system malfunction, a trim interrupt button is available for rapid disconnect of all trim systems. The button is located left of the roll/pitch trim switch on top of each control stick.
Pressing and holding the button in either cockpit interrupts all power to the aileron, elevator, and rudder trim actuators, and the TRIM OFF annunciator is illuminated. When activated, the trim interrupt button also causes the TAD to disengage.
408
If the trim interrupt button is released, is power restored to the trim actuators and TAD?
When the button is released, power is restored to the trim actuators. However, the TAD remains disengaged.
409
What two circuit breakers are associated with trim on the battery bus circuit breaker?
AIL/EL TRIM
RUD TRIM
410
What is the purpose of the TAD?
A rudder TAD is installed on the T-6A to assist the pilot in maintaining directional trim, reduce out-of-trim rudder forces, and maintain coordinated flight. The TAD does this by automatically adjusting rudder trim to compensate for airspeed and power changes.
411
How does the TAD operate?
the TAD inputs a precalculated takeoff setting to the rudder trim tab. No further inputs are made by the TAD until the aircraft reaches 80 KIAS and there is no weight on the wheels.
412
What is the purpose of the gust lock and how does it hold the control surfaces?
When the aircraft is parked, a gust lock is used to prevent excess wear and damage to the primary flight controls. The gust lock is located in the front cockpit.
When put in place, the gust lock holds the aileron and rudder surfaces in a neutral position. The elevator is also locked, but in a nose down configuration
413
109 E1. The ailerons control movement of the aircraft in which axis?
longitudinal or roll
414
109 E2. Which of the following is not a part of the aileron control system?
a. Left and right aileron
b. Bellcranks
c. TAD
d. Push-pull rods
e. Front and rear cockpit control sticks
c. TAD
415
109 E3. (True/False) The elevator controls aircraft movement around the lateral or pitch axis.
True
416
109 E4. What is the purpose of the bobweight located on the forward control stick?
Enhances control feedback and helps prevent overstressing of the airframe
417
109 E5. The rudder controls movement around which axis?
Vertical/yaw axis
418
109 E6. Rudder pedal position is adjusted with a hand crank located on the
a. left console.
b. lower portion of the center console.
c. right side of the cockpit.
d. upper portion of the center console.
b. lower portion of the center console
419
109 E7. Which flight control electromechanical trim system(s) utilize movement of the actual primary control surface?
Aileron
420
109 E8. (True/False) In the event of conflicting aileron or elevator trim inputs from the front and rear cockpit, the front cockpit input will take priority.
False
421
109 E9. Visual indication of pitch, roll, and yaw trim can be found on the
a. triple trim indicator on the right instrument panel.
b. trim annunciator system.
c. TAD control panel on the center console.
d. trim position indicators located on both trim panels.
d. trim position indicators located on both trim panels
422
109 E10. A primary purpose of the TAD system is to assist the pilot
a. in maintaining roll trim.
b. in maintaining pitch trim.
c. by maintaining reduced control stick forces.
d. in maintaining directional trim.
d. in maintaining directional trim
423
109 E11. The TAD computes input to the rudder trim system based on
a. engine torque, airspeed, altitude, and pitch rate.
b. engine torque, rudder pedal control forces, and altitude.
c. altitude, airspeed, pitch rate, and propeller RPM.
d. engine torque, airspeed, altitude, and temperature.
a. engine torque, airspeed, altitude, and pitch rate
424
109 E12. In addition to the TRIM OFF annunciator, actuating the trim interrupt button will also illuminate the __________ annunciator light.
a. NO TRIM
b. TAD OFF
c. RUDDER INOP
d. ELEVATOR FAIL
b. TAD OFF
425
109 E13. What control surfaces are locked when the gust lock is engaged?
a. Elevator
b. Rudder
c. Ailerons
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
426
109 LR1. The primary aircraft flight controls consist of the
a. electromechanical trim system, TAD, ailerons, and rudder.
b. ailerons, Trim Aid Device, and elevator.
c. ailerons, elevator, and rudder.
d. control stick, PCL, and rudder pedals.
c. ailerons, elevator, and rudder
427
109 LR3. (True/False) The aileron ground adjustable trim tabs are for maintenance use only and should not be tampered with by the aircrew.
True
428
109 LR4. Which statement best describes the purpose of the bobweight attached to the forward control stick?
a. Provides increased aileron sensitivity during high speed flight
b. Provides increased rudder authority during low altitude turns
c. Prevents aircraft overcontrolling by the Trim Aid Device
d. Provides higher stick forces as G-loading increases, helps prevent overstressing the airframe
d. Provides higher stick forces as G-loading increases, helps prevent over-stressing the airframe
429
109 LR5. Which of the following is NOT included in the rudder control system?
a. Centering springs
b. Cables
c. Bell crank
d. Bobweight
d. Bobweight
430
109 LR6. (True/False) Pilot control of aileron trim is accomplished by movement of an electromechanical trim tab installed on the right aileron.
False
431
109 LR7. The TAD computer relays trim input to the
a. elevator trim tab actuator.
b. rudder trim tab actuator.
c. rudder pedals.
d. aileron trim system.
b. rudder trim tab actuator
432
109 LR8. The TAD maintains a takeoff trim setting until __________ KIAS and no weight on the wheels.
80 KIAS
433
109 LR9. A green TAD OFF annunciator will illuminate when
a. there is an internal failure of the TAD system.
b. there is a failure of the rudder tab actuator.
c. the TRIM DISCONNECT switch is placed in the YAW CONNECT
d. the TRIM AID switch is set to OFF.
d. the TRIM AID switch is set to OFF
434
109 LR10. The flight control gust lock is used to
a. prevent aircraft overcontrol during gusty landing conditions.
b. lock the secondary flight control surfaces when parked.
c. lock the primary flight control surfaces when parked.
d. lock only the elevator and rudder when parked.
c. lock the primary flight control surfaces when parked
435
The T-6A has a hydraulic system that uses fluid pressurized to
3000 +/- 120 psi
436
What 4 things does the hydraulic system operate?
Landing gear and main landing gear inboard doors
Flaps
Speed brake
Nosewheel steering
437
What is the source for the primary hydraulic system? Once pressure exceeds ____ psi, the system can be used.
Engine-driven pump
1800 psi
438
What does the reservoir piston and cylinder do?
The reservoir provides pressurized fluid back to the pump to keep the pump “charged” with fluid. A piston steps down the fluid to 50 psi so the pump itself is not damaged
439
What does the pressure relief valve do?
Located in the hydraulic service bay, the pressure release valve operates at 3,250 to 3,500 psi to avoid any damage caused by possible hydraulic overpressure
440
What is the purpose of the slide valve?
The purpose of the slide valve is to isolate the hydraulic pressure coming from the engine-driven pump from the rest of the hydraulic system when the emergency system is activated.
441
What is the selector manifold?
The selector manifold located in the hydraulic service bay allows the hydraulic system, the cockpit controls, and the aircraft devices operated by the hydraulic system to work together.
Specifically, the selector manifold contains five electrical selector valves that connect to an actuator that physically moves the landing gear, main inboard gear doors, flaps, or speed brake. (NOT the NWS however)
442
How does the hydraulic system sequence flow? For example, what actually happens when the landing gear is activated
As the landing gear is activated, an electrical switch sends a signal to the selector manifold.
The selector manifold opens the appropriate electrical selector valve associated with the landing gear.
Hydraulic pressure produced by the pump is released through selector valves and moves through the primary hydraulic lines.
The increased hydraulic pressure activates the respective actuator strut which extends, forcing the landing gear down.
443
If the hydraulic fluid level in the reservoir drops below what, the annunciator panel displays an amber HYDR FL LO light?
1 quart
444
Give a brief overview of the emergency hydraulic system:
The emergency hydraulic system is independent from the primary system. It is pressurized at the time of engine start-up.
It will be used if: primary hydraulic system failure, engine failure, or battery bus failure
It provides one-time lowering for: the landing gear and flaps (however, once lowered they cannot be retracted in flight)
445
Does the emergency hydraulic system have a pump like the primary system?
No. The emergency package gets its its pressure to move the actuators from a major system component called the emergency accumulator
446
After engine start, the primary hydraulic system continuously keeps the emergency system pressurized through?
a one-way check valve
447
The emergency package is pressurized at the time of engine start-up. Specifically, pressure from the primary system presses a metal bellows that in turn compresses helium gas stored inside the?
emergency accumulator
448
The landing gear requires power from the T-6A hydraulic system. The T-6A has fully retractable tricycle landing gear. The extension and retraction system is ____ actuated, _____ sequenced, and ______ operated.
hydraulically
electrically
mechanically
449
How are the main gear inboard doors operated differently from the main gear outboard doors?
The hydraulically operated main gear inboard doors share a single actuator that turns a torque tube and bell crank.
The mechanically operated main gear outboard doors are directly connected to the strut. These doors are simply pulled along as the strut is lowered and raised by their individual actuators which convert hydraulic pressure to mechanical force.
450
Just like the main gear outboard doors, the nosewheel doors are?
simply pulled along with the nose strut as it lowers and raises.
451
Once retracted, the main gear are covered by the main gear doors, but the nosewheel?
does not completely retract into the wheel well and is not completely covered by the nose gear doors
452
A normal gear extension/retraction sequence takes approximately
6 seconds
453
Why would the gear handle illuminate red?
The main gear inboard doors are not closed.
The PCL is approaching IDLE with the gear handle UP
454
The aural landing gear position warning can be heard in any of the 3 scenarios:
Gear handle not DOWN (regardless of gear indications), PCL below a mid‐range position (approximately 87% N1), airspeed below 120 KIAS, and flaps UP or TAKEOFF.
All gear not indicating down and locked with flaps LDG (regardless of gear door position, power setting, or airspeed).
There is weight on the wheels with the gear handle not DOWN.
455
What does the downlock override button do?
When the weight-on-wheels (WOW) switch senses the aircraft on the ground, the downlock solenoid prevents movement of the landing gear select handle.
The downlock override button can be used to override the downlock solenoid when the right WOW switch is energized on the ground. This only allows the landing gear selector handle to be raised and the landing gear will not retract.
When the aircraft is airborne and use of the downlock override button is necessary (emergency situation), the landing gear selector handle can be raised and the landing gear retracts.
456
Does the emergency landing gear system take the same amount of time to extend?
the extension using the emergency system takes longer than the usual 5–6 seconds
457
110 E1. What are the four devices operated by the primary hydraulic system under normal operations?
Landing gear/main gear inboard doors, flaps, speed brake, and nosewheel steering
458
110 E2. The hydraulic system and the return side of the power package reservoir are pressurized to which levels respectively?
3,000 ±120 and 50 psi
459
110 E3. When you select a cockpit control to lower the flaps, which element of the primary hydraulic system is responsible for activating the corresponding actuator?
Electrical selector valve
460
110 E5. During the loss of engine power, the primary hydraulic system, or the battery bus, the emergency package will allow a one-time extension of
flaps, landing gear, and main gear inboard doors.
461
110 E6. The emergency package's manifold contains which of the following?
a. Two emergency extension selector valves
b. Two metal bellows compressing helium gas
c. Two actuators
d. 2,000 psi emergency accumulator
a. Two emergency extension selector valves
462
110 E7. What is the purpose of the pressure release valve in the emergency hydraulic system?
To automatically release pressure, should it reach 3500 psi
463
110 E8. When the EHYD PX LO annunciator illuminates, it means that emergency accumulator hydraulic pressure is below __________ ±150 psi.
a. 1790
b. 1880
c. 2400
d. 3000
c. 2400
464
110 E9. Which set of landing gear doors are operated hydraulically?
a. The nosewheel doors
b. The main gear inboard and outboard doors
c. The main gear inboard doors
d. The main gear outboard doors
c. The main gear inboard doors
465
110 E10. A red light illuminated in the landing gear selector handle indicates that the PCL is approaching IDLE, with the gear handle up, or which of the following?
a. The landing gear doors are up and locked.
b. The landing gear doors are not closed.
c. The landing gear circuit breaker needs to be reset.
d. The landing gear is malfunctioning.
b. the landing gear doors are not closed
466
110 E12. Before extending the landing gear,
a. activate the aural warning silence button.
b. reduce airspeed below 150 KIAS.
c. ensure at least 2,000 psi is available.
d. reduce airspeed below 120 KIAS.
b. reduce airspeed below 150 KIAS
467
110 E13. What is the function of the emergency landing gear extension handle?
a. It releases hydraulic pressure once it reaches 3,500 psi.
b. It activates the emergency system.
c. It closes the slide valve assembly.
d. It activates the accumulator piston.
b. it activates the emergency system
468
110 LR1. The engine-driven pump pressurizes the hydraulic system to which of the following?
3000 +/- 120 psi
469
110 LR2. The primary hydraulic system operates which of the following?
Landing gear, main gear inboard doors, flaps, nosewheel steering, and speed brake
470
110 LR3. What is true about the power package reservoir?
a. It releases excess pressure at 1,790 psi.
b. It is pressurized using compressed nitrogen gas.
c. It is pressurized using compressed helium gas.
d. A piston helps to step-down pressure to protect the pump
d. A piston helps to step-down pressure to protect the pump
471
110 LR4. The primary hydraulic system's selector manifold contains which of the following?
a. Engine-driven pump
b. Electrical selector valves
c. Actuators
d. Reservoir piston
b. Electrical selector valves
472
110 LR5. Two specific conditions in which the emergency hydraulic system is used are:
a. The pressure drops below 3,000 psi, and you’re below 6,000 feet
b. Loss of engine power or the primary hydraulic system fails
c. Loss of engine power and the airspeed is less than 120 knots
d. More than a 2-second drop in pressure, and altitude is less than 6,000 feet
b. Loss of engine power or the primary hydraulic system fails
473
110 LR6. The emergency hydraulic system specifically operates which of the following?
a. Landing gear, flaps, and speed brake
b. Landing gear, main gear doors, speed brake, and flaps
c. Landing gear, main gear doors, nose gear doors, and flaps
d. Landing gear, main gear inboard doors, and flaps
d. Landing gear, main gear inboard doors, and flaps
474
110 LR7. The emergency package receives its pressure from which of the following?
a. Directly from a nitrogen pre-charge in the reservoir
b. From the emergency accumulator
c. Directly from the reservoir piston
d. From the emergency selector valves
b. From the emergency accumulator
475
110 LR8. Before lowering the gear using either the primary or emergency systems, ensure the
a. flaps are retracted.
b. airspeed is below 120 KIAS.
c. flap handle is in the LAND position and airspeed less than 120 KIAS.
d. airspeed is below 150 KIAS.
d. airspeed is below 150 KIAS
476
110 LR9. The amber EHYD PX LO annunciator light means which of the following?
a. Pressure in the emergency accumulator is below 2,400 psi ±150.
b. Pressure in the reservoir is below 3,000 ±120 psi.
c. Pressure in the emergency package is below 2,870 psi.
d. Pressure in the emergency package is below 1 quart.
a. Pressure in the emergency accumulator is below 2,400 psi ±150.
477
110 LR10. The HYDR FL LO annunciator means which of the following?
a. Fluid level is below .5 quart.
b. Fluid level is below 1,790 psi.
c. Accumulator fluid level is below 1 quart.
d. Reservoir fluid level is below 1 quart.
d. Reservoir fluid level is below 1 quart.
478
110 LR11. When the power package slide valve closes, the hydraulic pump pressure is prevented from energizing any hydraulic components except for the
a. main landing gear actuator.
b. nosewheel steering actuator.
c. flap actuator.
d. emergency selector manifold.
b. nosewheel steering actuator.
479
The T-6A uses a ___ flap concept with an inboard and outboard panel on each wing
split
480
The flaps are ____ controlled and ____ operated
electrically controlled
hydraulically operated
481
Electrical power for the flaps system is provided through a circuit
breaker placarded ____ on the battery bus circuit breaker panel in the front cockpit
FLAP CONT
482
The flap system includes (5 things):
Two selector valves
An emergency extension selector solenoid
A flap actuator
A flap torque tube
Associated microswitches
483
You can monitor the position of the flaps using the?
flap indicator gauge
484
Make sure your airspeed is below __ KIAS before you operate the flaps
150 KIAS
485
As you select the flap switch on the PCL quadrant, the electrical system sends a signal to the _____ in the manifold to open or close.
Pressure released by the selector valve moves through the hydraulic line to the _____.
The flap actuator drives the flap actuator ___ which rotates the torque tube and flap segments to the selected setting
electric selector valve
flap actuator
strut
486
emergency flap extension can only be operated after?
after the emergency landing gear handle has been activated. When the handle is pulled, stored pressure from the emergency accumulator is released allowing the flaps to be lowered.
487
Emergency flap operation is powered by?
the hot battery bus
488
What is the purpose of the speed brake?
allow you to increase drag.
This allows you to:
Decelerate
Increase descent rate without increasing airspeed
489
As the pilot moves the speed brake switch, the ____ operates a selector valve that controls hydraulic pressure to the actuator.
The selector valve then opens or closes.
The actuator uses the pressure provided by the ____ to create a mechanical force that is used to extend or retract the speed brake.
The ____ works to extend or retract the speed brake
selector manifold
primary hydraulic system
actuator
490
The speed brake does not extend if?
the flaps are already extended
491
Once extended, the speed brake remains extended until any of three things take place?
The speed brake switch is moved forward.
The flaps are extended to the landing or takeoff position.
The power control lever is moved to MAX
492
Is the speed brake operated by the emergency hydraulic system?
No. Should the primary hydraulic system fail, you are not able to use the speed brake.
493
Because there is a speed brake switch in both cockpits, it is important to note that the speed brake responds to
whoever makes the last input
494
When the speed brake is extended, it causes the nose of the aircraft to
pitch up slightly which becomes pronounced as airspeed increases. The opposite is true when it is retracted
495
To help counteract this pitch change, the speed brake is interconnected to the
elevator trim tab actuator through a flexible cable system to automatically input pitch trim changes when the speed brake is operated (these inputs will counteract some, but not all of the pitch change tendency)
496
What are the 3 methods of steering the T-6A on the ground?
differential braking
hydraulic nosewheel steering system (NWS)
the rudder (with sufficient propwash or airflow)
497
The NWS is activated with a push button on the ____. A ____ indicator illuminates on the left side of each instrument panel when NWS is activated
control stick grip
green
498
NWS is mechanically operated by cables connected to the rudder pedals. After activating the NWS, you steer the aircraft by simply
pushing the left or right rudder pedal to turn the nosewheel in the desired direction
499
The nosewheel is free castoring, turning on its own up to __° in either direction when the NWS is off and rudder or differential braking is used.
80º
500
When selecting the NWS, you control the amount of movement of the nosewheel up to __° in either direction
12º
501
What does the centering valve do?
It returns the wheel to a centered position before it is extended from or retracted into the nosewheel bay.
502
What are the two purposes of the wheel brakes?
The primary purpose of the wheel brakes is to slow down and/or stop the aircraft on the ground.
The wheel brakes can also be used to turn the aircraft on the ground in case a tight turning radius is required.
503
Is the wheel brake system operated by the primary hydraulic system?
No. The wheel brake system is a non-boosted, mechanically actuated system that operates using an independent hydraulic system
(The brake system is not affected by the failure of the primary hydraulic system, either)
504
How does the brake unit work? How does it work between the two cockpits?
When you push on the toe pedals while pulling and turning the handle, a separate cable closes a brake valve. This prevents the return of fluid.
The brake discs are then locked in place so the wheels cannot rotate.
Since the front and rear brake pedals are interconnected by sharing a master cylinder for the left and right rudder pedals, the pilot applying the most force on the pedal determines the amount of braking that occurs.
505
111 E1. What does using flaps in the landing setting allow you to do?
a. Maintain approach glidepath while increasing airspeed
b. Decrease approach glidepath while maintaining airspeed
c. Decrease approach glidepath while increasing airspeed
d. Maintain approach glidepath while reducing airspeed
d. maintain approach glidepath while reducing airspeed
506
111 E2. What happens if the primary hydraulic system fails?
a. The flaps cannot be used until they are serviced on the ground.
b. The electrical FLAPS CONT circuit breaker must be reset.
c. The flaps can be operated using the emergency system package.
d. The emergency system provides a one-time lowering and retraction of the flaps.
c. The flaps can be operated using the emergency system package
507
111 E3. Before operating the flaps using the emergency system, you must
a. check the flaps visually to find their position.
b. increase your speed above 150 KIAS.
c. check the annunciator panel for the BATTERY BUS indicator.
d. lower the landing gear using the emergency system.
d. lower the landing gear using the emergency system.
508
111 E4. Which of the following is a critical limitation of the speed brake?
a. The speed brake will only extend if the flaps are extended.
b. The speed brake does not operate using the emergency hydraulic system.
c. The speed brake extends automatically if the PCL is moved to the MAX position.
d. The speed brake’s actuator is a part of the selector manifold.
b. The speed brake does not operate using the emergency hydraulic system.
509
111 E5. Where does the pressure come from that creates the mechanical force to extend the speed brake?
a. From the primary hydraulic system
b. From the emergency accumulator
c. From the turning of the torque tube
d. From the circuit breaker placarded SPEED BRAKE on the generator bus circuit breaker panel
a. From the primary hydraulic system
510
111 E6. Which of the following is an important difference between using the NWS or differential braking?
a. Differential braking results in a wider turn radius than NWS.
b. NWS is more sensitive than differential braking.
c. Differential braking should be avoided above 20 knots.
d. NWS provides a tighter turn radius than differential braking.
b. NWS is more sensitive than differential braking.
511
111 E7. What happens to NWS if the primary hydraulic system fails?
a. The NWS receives its hydraulic pressure from the emergency accumulator.
b. The pilot must manually deselect NWS.
c. NWS sensitivity will increase because of differential pressure.
d. The NWS system will be inoperative and use of rudder and/or differential braking on the ground will be necessary.
d. The NWS system will be inoperative and use of rudder and/or differential braking on the ground will be necessary.
512
111 E8. Which is true regarding the wheel brake system?
a. If the hydraulic system fails, the parking brake must be used.
b. The wheel brakes are not serviced by the emergency system, and will not be available if the primary system fails.
c. The wheel brake system will continue to operate if the primary hydraulic system fails.
d. The wheel brake system shares the primary hydraulic system pressure lines.
c. The wheel brake system will continue to operate if the primary hydraulic system fails.
513
111 E9. Which is the procedure for activating the parking brake?
a. Pull and turn the handle 90° counterclockwise while pushing on the toe brakes.
b. Push and turn the handle 90° clockwise while pushing on the toe brakes.
c. Pull the handle while pushing on the toe brakes.
d. Pull and turn the handle 90° clockwise while pushing on the toe brakes.
d. Pull and turn the handle 90° clockwise while pushing on the toe brakes.
514
111 LR1. Which is true regarding the nosewheel steering system?
a. NWS has only one actuator in the manifold.
b. The emergency system provides pressure to NWS through the alternate hydraulic lines.
c. The NWS is separate from the selector manifold.
d. NWS has two actuators in the manifold.
c. The NWS is separate from the selector manifold.
515
111 LR2. Which is true regarding the NWS and emergency systems?
a. The emergency system powers the NWS through the accumulator.
b. The NWS will not operate if the primary hydraulic system fails.
c. Differential braking will not work if the primary hydraulic system fails.
d. The emergency system powers the NWS through the selector control valve.
b. The NWS will not operate if the primary hydraulic system fails.
516
111 LR3. Which component specifically ensures the nosewheel is properly aligned before it is retracted or extended?
a. Selector valve
b. Centering valve
c. Servo valve
d. Rotary actuator
b. centering valve
517
111 LR4. Engaging NWS at high speeds can result in
a. directional control problems due to increased sensitivity.
b. damage to the nosewheel steering actuator.
c. damage to the nosewheel steering centering valve.
d. the speed brake automatically extending, slowing the aircraft down.
a. directional control problems due to increased sensitivity.
518
111 LR5. What are the functions of the speed brake?
a. Reduce drag and reduce lift
b. Decelerate, and increase descent rate without increasing airspeed
c. Increase drag and accelerate
d. Increase true airspeed while reducing induced and parasite drag
b. Decelerate, and increase descent rate without increasing airspeed
519
111 LR6. Which is true regarding the speed brake?
a. It will not operate using the emergency system.
b. It extends only partially using the emergency system.
c. It extends but will not retract using the emergency system.
d. It will remain extended until the PCL is moved to IDLE.
a. It will not operate using the emergency system.
520
111 LR7. Which of the following will not cause the speed brake to retract?
a. The PCL is moved to MAX.
b. The flaps are extended.
c. The speed brake switch is moved forward.
d. The gear is retracted.
d. The gear is retracted.
521
111 LR8. If the flap indicator fails, how can flap extension be confirmed?
a. Observing a slight nose down tendency
b. Observing a slight nose up tendency
c. The pilot must visually confirm the flap position
d. By using the hydraulic pressure gauge
b. Observing a slight nose up tendency
522
111 LR9. Which statement below is correct regarding flap operations?
a. Normal flap operation is available when the battery bus has failed.
b. The flap position indicator will function normally when the battery bus has failed.
c. Emergency flap operation is not available when the auxiliary battery is the only source of electrical power.
d. Emergency flap operation is available when the auxiliary battery is the only source of electrical power.
c. Emergency flap operation is not available when the auxiliary battery is the only source of electrical power.
523
111 LR10. Which is true regarding the parking brake?
a. The parking brake will not operate if the hydraulic system fails.
b. It is activated by first pulling and turning the handle 90° clockwise or counterclockwise.
c. The parking brake will operate partially using the emergency system.
d. The parking brake is applied by pushing on the toe brakes while simultaneously activating the handle.
d. The parking brake is applied by pushing on the toe brakes while simultaneously activating the handle.
524
111 LR11. Before lowering the flaps, you should ensure your airspeed is less than which value?
a. 120 KIAS
b. 138 KIAS
c. 147 KIAS
d. 150 KIAS
d. 150 KIAS
525
111 LR12. Which component is responsible for sending pressure to the main wheel brakes?
a. Selector valve
b. Reservoir
c. Master cylinder
d. Solenoid valve
c. Master cylinder
526
111 LR13. The __________ is/are interconnected with the elevator trim tab actuator to automatically input pitch trim to compensate for pitch effects as it is operated.
a. landing gear
b. flaps
c. rudder
d. speed brake
d. speed brake
527
112 E1. The ailerons control aircraft movement around which axis?
Roll or longitudinal axis
528
112 E2. What are the aileron trailing edge limits
20º up
11º down
529
112 E3. How are the ailerons mass balanced and what function does this serve?
Small weights are placed along the leading edge at the point where the ailerons pivot. These weights ensure the center of gravity for each aileron is at the pivot point. This is necessary because the mass of each aileron is rearward of the hinge line
530
112 E4. What is the function of the bobweight?
Provides heavier stick force when G-load is increasing and helps prevent overstressing of aircraft frame
531
112 E5. What is the function of the elevator system?
It controls the pitch angle of the aircraft around the lateral (pitch) axis
532
112 E6. If you move the stick forward in flight, how will the aircraft react?
Elevator trailing edge deflects downward and aircraft nose pitches down
533
112 E7. What is the purpose of the rudder system?
It controls the aircraft’s yaw movement around the vertical (yaw) axis
534
112 E8. What happens when you step on the right rudder pedal?
The rudder will deflect to the right, moving the tail left and the nose right
535
112 E9. How does the pilot adjust the rudder pedals to position them at a more convenient setting?
By rotating the pedal adjustment hand crank
536
112 E10. Which primary flight control surface actually moves as part of the trim system?
Ailerons
537
112 E11. Where are the trim controls for the aileron trim setting, the elevator trim setting, and the rudder trim setting?
Elevator/aileron trim is on the top of each control stick
Rudder trim is located on the PCL
538
112 E12. What is the function of the trim disconnect switch?
It removes power from the trim system and disengages the TAD
539
112 E13. hat are the indications the trim disconnect switch has been selected?
The green TRIM OFF and TAD OFF annunciator lights will illuminate
540
112 E14. How is electrical power provided to operate the aileron and elevator trim system?
Through a circuit breaker labeled AIL/EL TRIM on the battery bus of the front cockpit
541
112 E15. What four factors does the TAD computer consider when calculating the rudder trim setting?
Torque, airspeed, altitude, and pitch rate
542
112 E16. If the gust lock is properly installed, how will the control surfaces appear when visually inspected?
Ailerons and rudder: neutral
elevator: nose down
543
112 E17. What aircraft components are operated by the primary hydraulic system?
Flaps, Speed Brake, Main landing gear (and doors), and NWS
544
112 E18. What component is the source of pressure for the primary hydraulic system?
The engine-driven pump
545
112 E19. What gauge color indicates hydraulic pressure is in the extended scale, but within safe operating limits?
White
546
112 E20. When the HYDR FLO annunciator light illuminates, what does it indicate?
The fluid level in the reservoir has dropped below 1 quart
547
112 E21. What is the purpose of the the emergency hydraulic system?
It provides a one-time lowering of the landing gear, main gear inboard doors, and flaps
548
112 E22. What are the normal operating ranges for the hydraulic system pressure and fluid quantity?
Pressure between 2880 and 3120 psi on the Engine/Systems display
FULL AC (accumulator charged) or FULL AD (accumulator discharged) displayed on the green indicating rod in the reservoir level window
549
112 E23. What is the maximum speed to operate the landing gear?
150 KIAS
550
112 E24. When is the emergency landing gear extension system used?
Loss of primary hydraulic system/ loss of battery bus power/ engine failure
551
112 E25. What is the normal sequence for the emergency extension of the landing gear?
Lower the landing gear selector handle
Pull the emergency landing gear extension handle
552
112 E26. What is the maximum flap operating speed?
150 KIAS
553
112 E27. Can the flaps be operated in the event the primary hydraulic system fails?
Yes, after the landing gear has been lowered using the emergency system.
554
112 E28. What is the purpose of the speed brake?
Allows you to decelerate. Also allows you to increase descent rate without increasing your airspeed
555
112 E29. Where is the SPEED BRAKE circuit breaker located?
On the front cockpit generator bus circuit breaker panel
556
112 E30. What can happen if NWS is engaged at high taxi speeds?
It can result in directional control problems due to increased sensitivity
557
112 E31. Which has the larger turn radius, nosewheel steering or differential braking?
Nosewheel steering
558
112 E32. What are the indications of abnormal primary flight control operations?
Uncommanded pitch, roll, or yaw movements; Sluggish response to control inputs
559
112 E33. What is the corrective action to take in the case of runaway trim?
Perform Runaway Trim checklist procedures
560
112 E34. If the EHYD PX LO illuminates, what aircraft devices should you consider inoperative?
Emergency landing gear and flap extension
561
112 E35. What are some indications of unsafe landing gear?
Indicator lights
Lack of noticeable drag
Lack of noticeable noise
AOA indexer not active
Inability to turn on landing or taxi lights Tendency to roll (main gear)
562
112 E36. What indicator lights would illuminate with the main landing gear full down, the nose gear still fully retracted, and the PCL above IDLE?
Two green mains, two red mains, red gear handle light
563
112 E37. When lowering flaps using the emergency system, what two conditions might result?
The flaps might extend only partially and they may take longer to extend.
564
112 E38. What are the indications of wheel brake failure?
Inability to maintain directional control
Inability to decelerate
“Spongy” or soft brake pedal
The aircraft pulls to one side
565
112 LR1. The elevator controls the aircraft around what axis?
Lateral axis (pitch)
566
112 LR2. The ailerons move opposite each other to cause the aircraft to move about what axis?
Longitudinal (roll)
567
112 LR3. The rudder causes a yaw movement around the ____ axis
vertical
568
112 LR4. A “ground-adjustable” trim tab is found on __________.
ailerons
569
112 LR5. What are the factors used by the TAD computer to calculate proper rudder trim tab settings?
Engine torque, airspeed, altitude, pitch rate
570
112 LR6. Once takeoff trim is set, the TAD will make no further trim inputs until __________.
above 80 KIAS with no weight on the wheels
571
112 LR7. The primary hydraulic system is pressurized to what level?
3000 +/- 120 psi
572
112 LR8. What is the function of the hydraulic system engine-driven pump?
It creates hydraulic pressure that is transferred to the primary system and to the emergency accumulator.
573
112 LR9. The emergency hydraulic system services which aircraft components?
The landing gear, main gear inboard doors, and flaps, for a one-time extension
574
112 LR10. When extending the landing gear, which gear door ultimately closes as part of the extension sequence?
The main inboard doors
575
112 LR11. What does the red light in the landing gear selector handle indicate when illuminated?
The gear doors are not closed, or the PCL is approaching IDLE with the gear handle UP
576
112 LR12. What happens to nosewheel steering if the hydraulic system fails?
NWS will not operate
577
112 LR13. What happens to the speed brake if the hydraulic system fails?
The speed brake will not operate
578
112 LR14. The flaps should not be operated above what airspeed?
150 KIAS
579
112 LR15. When completing a sharp turn, how should nosewheel steering be used?
NWS should be turned off prior to the turn since it will limit the nosewheel castor
580
112 LR16. What causes the EHYD PX LO annunciator light to illuminate?
If the emergency accumulator pressure is less than 2400 psi (plus or minus 150 psi)
581
112 LR17. Will you have use of the speed brake with the emergency hydraulic system?
No. The emergency system is only for the landing gear, flaps, and main gear inboard doors
582
112 E18. Can you expect to use the wheel brakes if operating with a failure of the primary hydraulic system?
Yes. They are an independent hydraulic system
583
What does the Environmental Control System do?
provides automatic temperature and pressurization control through conditioned engine bleed air
584
The engine provides bleed air for what 5 things?
the canopy pressurization seal
anti-G system
cockpit heating and defogging
pressurization
on-board oxygen generation system (OBOGS)
585
An engine-driven vapor cycle system supplies air for what 2 things?
cockpit air conditioning and avionics cooling
586
Where is the environmental control panel located?
the front cockpit right side console
587
What is the label for the environmental control panel circuit breaker?
CKPT TEMP
588
When is fresh air ventilation available for the cockpit?
during ground operations and unpressurized flight
589
What provides ventilation air in flight? What about on the ground?
The ram air inlet on top of the cowl provides ventilation air in flight, and a blower provides it on the ground. The air is then ducted back through the firewall into the cockpit.
590
What is controlling whether outside air is flowing through the blower or in the ram air inlet?
the weight-on-wheels switch
591
How is the position of the fresh air valve controlled?
the RAM AIR FLOW switch on the environmental control panel in the front cockpit
592
What are the 3 switch positions for RAM AIR FLOW?
OFF (valve closed)
NORM (valve mid open)
HI (valve full open)
The pressurization system overrides this switch and closes the fresh air valve when the aircraft reaches a pressure altitude of about 8,000 feet.
593
How does the cockpit get air for heating?
The engine supplies bleed air from the engine compressor right side P3 bleed air port for cockpit heating.
The system routes all or part of this hot bleed air through a heat exchanger and/or a heat exchanger bypass valve, through the firewall, and into the cockpit.
594
With the TEMP CONTROL switch in the AUTO range, the temperature controller automatically adjusts the bypass valve to maintain cockpit temperature. You adjust the temperature between __° and __ °F by turning the arrow toward COLD or HOT.
60º and 90º F
595
What happens when moving the arrow toward COLD or HOT?
the temperature controller will favor more or less hot bleed air mixes with the cool air from the heat exchanger
596
To manually adjust the temperature of the air entering the cockpit, place the TEMP CONTROL knob in the spring-loaded ___ position and then hold the switch in either the COLD or HOT direction until reaching the desired temperature.
MANUAL
597
Why would the Firewall Shutoff Handle also mechanically shut off bleed air flow from the engine?
This prevents smoke and/or fumes the engine compartment from being drawn into the cockpit.
598
The environmental system has __ temperature sensing switches to alert the pilot of overtemperature conditions in the ducting. One switch is in the duct near the firewall shutoff valve, and the other is located at the aft defog control valve.
These temperature switches light the amber ____ annunciator if the duct air temperature exceeds __ °F at any time.
two
DUCT TEMP
300ºF
599
Electrical power for the inflow system is provided by a circuit breaker labeled ____ on the front cockpit battery bus circuit breaker panel.
INFLOW SYS
600
Setting the DEFOG switch to __ opens the defog valve and sets the inflow valve to high (full open), providing a higher volume of bleed air flow to the heating system. It also turns on the air conditioning compressor to remove moisture from the air.
ON
601
The air conditioning system only operates when?
the engine running, the generator on-line, and the AIR COND and/or DEFOG switch is ONThe
602
The cockpit blowers are available when?
any time the generator bus is powered
603
When will the pressurization system overide and close the fresh air valve?
when the aircraft reaches a pressure altitude of about 8,000 feet
604
How does the evaporator/blower work?
The liquid refrigerant flows from the condenser to the evaporator coils in the front and rear cockpit evaporator and blower modules.
The blower draws ambient cockpit air over the coil where the refrigerant absorbs heat from the air and changes back to a vapor.
Cooled air from the evaporator / blower module discharges from an “eyeball” outlet in the cockpit center console, and also through ductwork to outlets on the glareshield
605
Where does the canopy pressure seal receive bleed air from?
the Anti-G system
606
Where is the ΔP regulator located and what does it do?
on the aft pressure bulkhead and monitors the cockpit differential pressure
If the differential pressure exceeds 4.0 psi, the ΔP regulator signals the safety outflow valve to open
607
To ensure the aircraft is not pressurized on the ground?
the weight-on-wheels switch removes power from the solenoid, opening the pressurization control valve
608
After takeoff, the weight-on-wheels switch returns power to the solenoid. The control valve regulator keeps the control valve open until the aircraft approaches ___ feet pressure altitude. Above that altitude, the control valve regulator opens and closes the control valve as necessary to regulate cockpit pressure.
8,000 feet
609
What illuminates if the cockpit pressure altitude exceeds 19,000 feet?
CKPT ALT
610
What illuminates if the cockpit differential pressure exceeds 3.9 to 4.0 psi?
CKPT PX
611
The _____ switch on the environmental control panel is the primary control for the cockpit pressurization system. The switch has three positions.
PRESSURIZATION
612
What does NORM mean on the PRESSURIZATION switch?
In this position, the system maintains cockpit pressurization automatically
613
What does DUMP mean on the PRESSURIZATION switch?
terminates electrical power to the solenoid
dump valve, which opens the pressurization control valve to
depressurize the cockpit. Bleed air inflow continues, the fresh air valve remains closed, and ram air is not provided to the cockpit.
614
What does RAM/DUMP mean on the PRESSURIZATION switch?
depressurizes the cockpit and opens the fresh air valve, allowing ram air into the cockpit. It also automatically closes the defog valve, eliminating one source of engine bleed air.
615
What happens to the weighted rod during positive G acceleration?
It moves further open and the pressure in the anti-G suit increases proportionally
616
What in the OBOGS unit automatically adjusts the oxygen concentration for the current altitude based on the cockpit pressure?
the concentrator
617
What is the small holding tank located below the concentrator in line between the OBOGS unit and the regulators?
the plenum
618
What does the plenum do?
In the event of OBOGS system failure, the plenum provides a limited supply of oxygen until the emergency oxygen system activates.
619
What is the difference between the NORMAL, EMERGENCY, and TEST MASK positions on the oxygen regulator?
NORMAL position, the regulator adds a slight positive pressure to the flow demanded by the pilot
EMERGENCY position supplies increased positive pressure for emergency conditions, such as when experiencing hypoxia symptoms.
TEST MASK position sends a high-pressure flow to check the face-to-mask seal
620
When does the ABOS automatically activate?
Automatic activation occurs with either an OBOGS FAIL Caution or CKPT ALT Caution
621
How do you deactivate the ABOS if the BOS PUSH MAN button was pressed?
The ABOS must be deactivated in each cockpit in which the BOS PUSH MAN button was pushed to activate it.
622
How much O2 will the ABOS supply?
two pilots breathing normally for at least 13 minutes and one pilot 20 minutes
623
114 E1. Which T-6A environmental system is an engine-driven vapor cycle system?
Air conditioning
624
114 E2. The vent control lever directs air output to the ____ vents
a. footwarmer or defog
b. front or rear cockpit
c. canopy or instrument panel
d. defog or air conditioner
a. footwarmer or defog
625
114 E1. On the ground, the __________ switch activates the fresh air blower.
a. TEMP CONTROL
b. landing gear weight-on-wheels
c. RAM AIR FLOW
d. VENT BLOWER
b. landing gear weight-on-wheels
626
114 E2. The pressurization system overrides the RAM AIR FLOW switch and closes the fresh air valve when the aircraft reaches an altitude of approximately __________ MSL.
8,000
627
114 E1. While in flight, cool air from the __________ passes through the heat exchanger, cooling the hot bleed air from the engine, and then exits through a vent in the lower right cowling.
a. blower
b. ram air inlet
c. right P3 air port
d. inflow valve
b. ram air inlet
628
114 E2. (True/False) Turning the TEMP CONTROL switch toward COLD moves the heat exchanger bypass valve more open, allowing more cool air from the heat exchanger into the cockpit.
False
629
114 E3. Activating the __________ prevents engine compartment smoke and/or fumes from entering the cockpit through the heating system after an engine shutdown situation.
Firewall shutoff handle
630
114 E4. You can adjust the heating system temperature between __________ Fahrenheit by setting the TEMP CONTROL knob between HOT and COLD within the AUTO range.
60º and 90º
631
114 E5. (True/False) The air heating system ejector forces high-volume bleed air into the cockpit to remove moisture from the ambient
False
632
114 E6. Place the vent control lever in the __________ position to direct the high-volume warm air into the windshield and canopy side defog ducts.
a. FOOT
b. CANOPY
c. HIGH
d. HOT
b. CANOPY
633
114 E1. Which component converts vapor refrigerant to a high-pressure liquid?
Condenser
634
114 E2. Maintenance personnel recharge the system refrigerant when necessary through service fittings behind a panel on the __________ fuselage __________ of the wing leading edge.
right; aft
635
114 E3. The __________ produces up to 350 cubic feet per minute of airflow in the HI setting.
a. evaporator blower
b. condenser blower
c. bleed air inflow
d. ram air flow
a. evaporator blower
636
114 E1. The pressurization control valve regulator maintains a cockpit pressure altitude of __________ feet until the differential pressure (ΔP) reaches __________ at an aircraft pressure altitude of 18,069 feet.
8,000; 3.6+/11-0.2
637
114 E2. What switch position opens the pressurization control valve, closes the defog valve, leaves the bleed air inflow valve open, and leaves the fresh air valve closed?
DUMP
638
114 E3. The ΔP regulator opens the safety outflow valve if the cockpit differential pressure (ΔP) exceeds __________ psi.
4.0
639
114 E1. During maneuvers, __________ G force opens the anti-G valve on the left side console in each cockpit.
a. increasing negative
b. decreasing negative
c. increasing positive
d. decreasing positive
increasing positive
640
114 E2. The anti-G system helps protect against __________ during high-G maneuvers.
a. altitude effects
b. physiological effects
c. poor mission preparation
d. loss of instrument indications
b. physiological effects
641
114 E1. What does the OBOGS supply lever do?
controls electrical power to the OBOGS
642
114 E2. The __________ valve incorporated into the oxygen hose attachment fitting on the right console in each cockpit allows you to continue breathing ambient cockpit air if the OBOGS fails.
a. ambient air
b. fail safe
c. anti-suffocation
d. emergency oxygen
a. ambient air
643
114 E3. The OBOGS __________ annunciator lights approximately 4 minutes after initial power up if the system fails the BIT.
a. TEST b. TEMP c. FAIL d. BIT
a. TEST
644
114 E1. The ABOS is armed for automatic activation when
a. at least one Oxygen regulator supply lever is ON.
b. both Oxygen regulator supply levers are ON.
c. the battery switched placed to ON.
d. the Automatic Activation Switch is placed to ON
a. at least one Oxygen regulator supply lever is ON.
645
114 E2. Automatic activation occurs when an __________ Caution illuminates.
a. OXY CRIT or BOSS FAIL
b. BOSS FAIL or OXY LOW
c. OBOGS FAIL or CKPT ALT
d. CKPT PX or OXY CRIT
c. OBOGS FAIL or CKPT ALT
646
114 E3. Once activated, within __________ seconds, the ABOS will pressurize the O2 lines sufficiently to trigger the ON light in the BOS pushbutton switch.
12 seconds
647
114 LR1. The engine supplies bleed air to the heating system through the __________ port.
a. left side P3
b. right side P5
c. left side P5
d. right side P3
d. right side P3
648
114 LR2. The engine-driven air conditioner compressor pumps refrigerant in vapor form to the
a. evaporator.
b. condenser.
c. heat exchanger.
d. blower.
b. condenser.
649
114 LR3. What switch controls the position of the fresh air valve?
RAM AIR FLOW
650
114 LR4. The __________ display shows cockpit pressure altitude and differential pressure.
alternate engine data
651
114 LR5. After pressing the BIT button on the regulator to start the OBOGS I-BIT, which light do you expect to see on the annunciator panel when the oxygen concentration falls below normal?
OBOGS FAIL
652
114 LR6. Place the DEFOG switch to ON to open the __________ valve and allow a higher volume of bleed air into the heating system.
a. inflow
b. ram air
c. defog
d. heat exchanger bypass
c. defog
653
114 LR8. The blower in each cockpit evaporator module pulls __________ air through the evaporator coils where refrigerant cools it.
a. ram
b. cooled bleed
c. fresh
d. ambient cockpit
d. ambient cockpit
654
114 LR9. Which annunciator lights when inflow air temperature exceeds 300° Fahrenheit?
DUCT TEMP
655
114 LR10. After takeoff, the __________ supplies cooling air to the heat exchanger.
a. ram air inlet
b. fresh air blower
c. bleed air system
d. air conditioner
a. ram air inlet
656
114 LR11. The air conditioning system only operates when the engine is running with the __________ and the __________.
a. generator on-line; AIR COND and/or DEFOG switch ON
b. generator on-line; AIR COND and/or DEFOG switch OFF
c. battery switch ON; AIR COND and/or DEFOG switch ON
d. battery switch ON; AIR COND and/or DEFOG switch OFF
a. generator on-line; AIR COND and/or DEFOG switch ON
657
114 LR12. The amber CKPT ALT means that the cockpit pressure altitude exceeds __________ feet
10,000
658
114 LR13. The environmental system has two temperature sensors to alert you to overtemperature in the
a. heating/defog ducting.
b. ECS heat exchanger.
c. evaporator/blower modules.
d. engine-driven compressor.
a. heating/defog ducting.
659
114 LR14. What control allows you to test the pressure to the anti-G suit
HI FLOW
660
114 LR15. The __________ is the only visual indication of the ABOS oxygen bottle exhaustion in the cockpit.
a. BOS FAIL caution illuminating
b. OXY CRIT caution illuminating
c. OBOGS FAIL caution illuminating
d. BOS PUSH MAN switch green ON advisory extinguishing
d. BOS PUSH MAN switch green ON advisory extinguishing
661
What switch/knob controls the heat exchange bypass valve?
The temperature control switch
662
