Navigation Test Flashcards

1
Q

What is the preferred form for filing an IFR flight plan?

A

DD 1801

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2
Q

When you go cross-country, you are responsible for filling out the AFTO Form 781 (True/False)

A

True

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3
Q

What is the WANTS checklist?

A

Weather
Activate
Notams
Told / Trouble T / Taxi / Fuel
SID / STAR / SELF

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4
Q

Why would you need an alternate?

A

Weather is less than 2000/3
Weather reporting not available
Winds forecasted out of limits
RVSM airspace denial
Anything else / NA on plate
GPS or RADAR only approaches
Unmonitored NAVAID

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5
Q

What are the 11-202v3 requirements for an alternate?

A

123TACR
+/- 1 Hour
2000’ ceiling
3SM visibility
Tempo line included
Approach compatible
Crosswinds in limits
RVSM denial?

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6
Q

What are 11-248 PIC considerations for an alternate?

A

1500/3 GUNR
1500 / 3
GPS Only
Unmonitored NAVAID
No weather reporting
Radar required

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7
Q

What are the weather sources in priority?

A

MAJCOM approved
Regional weather squadron
DOD units (other military units)
Other US Government weather facilities
Foreign military services

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8
Q

What is the number one weather source by priority as stated in AFMAN 11-202 V3?

A

a. Local Military weather unit

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9
Q

You can use weather information from the ForeFlight app to help with your self-brief (True/False)

A

True

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10
Q

What part of the DD Form 175-1 gives information to compute TOLD?

A

a. Part 1

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11
Q

What information can be found in the DOD IFR Supplement and what is its main purpose?

A

Airport Information, airport hours, field elevation, runway lengths, NAVAID information, FBO contact info, changing a flight plan…
IFR Sup is used for PLANNING (except changing flt plan)

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12
Q

What information can be found in the FlH and what is its main purpose?

A

Emergency procedures, international flight procedures, position reporting codes, meteorological information, and standard communication procedures…
FIH is used for IN FLIGHT

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13
Q

What information can be found in the FLIP and what is its main purpose?

A

Enroute charts, terminal procedures, special use airspace, and MTRs…the FIH is also a part of the FLIP

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14
Q

Time critical aeronautical information, which is either temporary in nature or not known sufficiently in advance to permit publication in FLIP, is disseminated to aircrews via

A

Notices to Airmen or NOTAM system

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15
Q

Where do you go to get NOTAMs?

A

DoD Aeronautical Information Portal (DAIP)

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16
Q

FAA civil NOTAMs are divided into two categories

A

D (Distant)
FDC (Flight Data Center)

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17
Q

What are D NOTAMs?

A

D series NOTAMs are those that need wide dissemination.
In general, these are the type of NOTAMs that may affect your ability to use a particular airfield or NAVAID.

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18
Q

What are FDC NOTAMs?

A

FSSs maintain a file of FDC NOTAMs affecting the area within 400 miles of their facility.

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19
Q

What are “NTAP” NOTAMs?

A

Notices to Airmen Publication or “NTAP”. The NTAP book (no longer “hardcopy” only digital) contains NOTAM information that is expected to remain in effect for an extended period of time (greater than 90 days)

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20
Q

The “S” in the WANTS checklist stands for

A

SID, STAR, SELF

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21
Q

Where would you find the name of the FBO at your destination?

A

Navigation Information List at your home station (tricky question…the IFR Sup lists the number, but not the name)

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22
Q

A standardized route for arrival into an airfield is a

A

STAR

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23
Q

The DoD system for NOTAM retrieval is the

A

Defense Information and NOTAM Portal

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24
Q

You can request a NOTAM brief from a Flight Service Station (True/False)

A

True

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25
Q

What is a good idea to record at the top of your AF Form 70?

A

departure, destination, planned altitude, takeoff, climb, and cruise data

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26
Q

What is STTO? What is it for the T-6A?

A

STTO represents the estimated time and fuel required to get airborne.
In the T-6A, you normally enter a standard STTO of 1 minute and 50 pounds of fuel

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27
Q

When must you perform a “double entry” calculation for the climb problem?

A

If departure field elevation is above 5000 feet MSL (below that the effects are negligible)

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28
Q

Where can you find information on filling out an AF1801?

A

General Planning (GP), Chapter 4

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29
Q

In the T-6A, for STTO entry on the AF Form 70 use __________ minute(s) and __________ pounds of fuel.

A

1 minute and 50 pounds

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30
Q

Level off fuel (L/O) is the planned amount of fuel used from departure field elevation to planned cruise altitude (True/False)

A

True

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31
Q

Determine the distance to level off with a 180 knot average groundspeed and a time to climb of 8 minutes.

A

24 miles

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32
Q

In the T-6A, use a standard P&A fuel of __________ minute(s) and __________ pounds of fuel.

A

15 minutes and 100 pounds of fuel

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33
Q

Using the information shown, what would you enter in the “Total Fuel” block on your Form 70?
Reserve fuel flow = 330 pph
ETE to landing = 2+05
Fuel remaining at landing = 220 pounds

A

2+45

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34
Q

The time entered on the DD 1801 is based on UTC time (True/False)

A

True

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35
Q

Call signs on the DD 1801 are limited to a maximum of __________ characters.

A

7

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36
Q

At smaller airfields, or those without a clearance delivery frequency, clearances are normally obtained from the __________ frequency.

A

controller on the ground

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37
Q

For long range cruise data, use the altitude, in multiples of 5000 feet, that is __________ your cruise altitude.

A

at or below

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38
Q

A PIREP format can be found in the

A

FIH (its in flight and weather related)

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39
Q

The back cover of the __________ contains a guide to make changes to your flight plan.

A

IFR sup (planning changes)

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40
Q

In the T-6A, for STTO entry on the AF Form 70 use __________ minute(s) and __________ pounds of fuel.

A

1 minute and 50 pounds

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41
Q

In the T-6A, use a standard P&A fuel of __________ minute(s) and __________ pounds of fuel.

A

15 minutes and 100 pounds of fuel

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42
Q

What document lists Military Training Routes (MTRs)?

A

AP/1B

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43
Q

Who must you schedule a route with?

A

You must schedule the route with the scheduling activity and comply with all route requirements

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44
Q

When flying a low-level SR route or other MTR, you must contact

A

FSS and provide your entry point and time

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45
Q

What do you squawk for an SR route? What about for a VR route?

A

SR -> 1200 (VFR)
VR -> 4000 (real MTR)

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46
Q

What channel must you monitor while on a MTR?

A

255.4

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47
Q

What altitude must you fly the low level between?

A

500 and 1500 feet AGL

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48
Q

Flying a successful low-level requires planning. In the T-6A, a constant groundspeed of ___ knots works very well for low-level missions. This equates to 1 minute for every ___ miles

A

210 knots
1 minute = 3.5 miles

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49
Q

Most turns at low-level are at __ degrees of bank

A

60 degrees

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50
Q

What is an ERAA? How is it defined (2 pubs)?

A

Emergency Route Abort Altitude
1,000 feet above the highest obstacle (2,000 feet in mountainous terrain) within 22 miles of the flight path (11-202v3)

11-248 says it must be 25 miles but NOT on the test

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51
Q

If you must abort a route in VMC, then?

A

maintain safe separation from the terrain, comply with VFR altitude restrictions (if able), squawk an appropriate transponder code, maintain VMC, and attempt contact with a controlling agency, if required.

52
Q

If you must abort a route in IMC, then?

A

IMC conditions encountered while flying VFR or low-level navigation constitute an emergency. If you cannot avoid flying into IMC, execute an immediate climb to the emergency route abort altitude (minimum) and squawk 7700. The climb should be expeditious, using maximum power and a safe airspeed.

53
Q

What airspeed should you abort the route at?

A

160 KIAS

54
Q

Which document lists MTRs?

A

AP/1B

55
Q

Normally, a minimum climb airspeed of __________ KIAS is sufficient when aborting the route.

A

160 KIAS

56
Q

Describe Class A airspace

A

Airspace from 18,000 feet MSL up to and including FL600

57
Q

Describe Class B airspace

A

Airspace surrounding the busiest airports, usually surface to 10,000 feet MSL. You must have ATC clearance prior to entering. Transponder/Mode C and ADS-B Out required

58
Q

Describe Class C airspace

A

Airspace usually from surface to 4,000 feet above airport elevation surrounding airports with an operational control tower that are serviced by RAPCON and have a certain number of IFR operations or passenger enplanements. You must establish two-way radio comms with ATC prior to entering. Transponder/Mode C and ADS-B Out are required.

59
Q

Describe Class D airspace

A

Airspace usually from surface to 2,500 feet above airport elevation surrounding airports with an operational control tower. You must establish two-way radio comms with ATC prior to entering unless otherwise authorized.

60
Q

Describe Class E airspace

A

Controlled airspace that is not Class A, B, C, or D. In most areas, it extends from 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL. There are areas where Class E airspace begins at either the surface or 700 feet AGL. These are used to transition between the terminal and enroute environments (around non-towered airports). Transponder/Mode C and ADS-B Out are required at and above 10,000 feet MSL unless otherwise authorized.

61
Q

Describe Class G airspace

A

Uncontrolled airspace

62
Q

What special use airspace must you never enter?

A

Prohibited areas

63
Q

PICs will not exceed ___ KIAS below 10,000 MSL (w/ 2 exceptions)

A

250 KIAS (except flight manual minimum safe airspeed or within MOAs)

64
Q

PICs will not exceed ___ KIAS at or below 2,500 AGL within 4 NM of the primary airport in Class C or D airspace

A

200 KIAS

65
Q

PICs will not exceed ___ KIAS in the airspace underlying Class B airspace

A

200 KIAS

66
Q

What are VFR cloud clearances?

A

Class A: not applicable
Class B: 3SM and CoC
Class C/D: 3SM and 1/5/2
Class E/G below 10,000’: 3SM and 5/1/2
Class E/G above 10,000’: 5SM and 1/1/1

67
Q

If conditions (weather, airspace) prevent you from completing the mission under VFR: (3 options)

A

Alter route to remain VFR
Maintain VFR until obtaining an IFR clearance
Maintain VFR and land at a suitable location

68
Q

_______ spells out the rules, both IFR and VFR, which Air Force pilots must follow when planning either type of mission.

A

AF11-202v3

69
Q

A careful examination of ______ will many times reveal an airspace circumstance for which we are not normally aware, or will pose some sort of limitation to our preferred flight plan.

A

NOTAMs

70
Q

Which class of airspace surrounds the busiest airports and requires ATC clearance prior to entering?

A

Class B

71
Q

How do you correct for magnetic variation?

A

East is Least (subtract)
West is Best (add)

72
Q

What altitudes should you cruise VFR?

A

West -> Even plus 500
East -> Odd plus 500

73
Q

What is pilotage?

A

Navigation by reference to landmarks or checkpoints. Towns, rivers, lakes, airfields, etc. are easily discernable and make good checkpoints.

74
Q

What is Dead Reckoning?

A

Navigation solely by means of computations based on time, airspeed, distance, and direction. Ultimately, wind corrected headings and groundspeeds are determined. DR is utilized on low-levels.

75
Q

What is Radio Navigation?

A

Flying to and from NAVAIDs, specifically VORs, on radials, or following published routings.

76
Q

Where would you find information on the useable reception range of NAVAIDs? What are VORs typically?

A

Reference the IFR Sup, NAVAIDs Section, to ensure you’re planning with the appropriate classification of VOR. Most VORs are High.

77
Q

The __________ and __________ work hand in hand providing you the airfield information you seek for your VFR mission planning.

A

sectional; IFR supplement (PLANNING)

78
Q

The difference between magnetic and true north is known as

A

Magnetic variation

79
Q

__________ is navigation solely by means of computations based on time, airspeed, distance, and direction.

A

Dead Reckoning (DR)

80
Q

Reference the __________, NAVAIDS Section, to ensure you’re planning with the appropriate classification of VOR.

A

IFR Supplement

81
Q

Whenever you are lost, remember to apply the three Cs:

A

Climb, Conserve, Confess

82
Q

The maximum allowable cruise altitude for VFR flight is

A

17,500 MSL

83
Q

A “rule of thumb” for choosing a cruise altitude is to use

A

10% of the total distance

84
Q

The uniform frequency that can be used across the country to contact Flight Service is __________.

A

255.4

85
Q

What does ++ mean on times?

A

During periods of daylight time, effective times are 1 hour earlier than shown

86
Q

What is the official approved source of NOTAMs?

A

DAIP

87
Q

What are Flight Data Center (FDC) NOTAMs?

A

They change approaches and are regulatory

88
Q

What fuel charts do we use for Form 70s in cruise?

A

Long Range Cruise data

89
Q

How much fuel reserve is required?

A

20 minutes or 10% of the flight time (up to 45 minutes) using max endurance at 10,000’

90
Q

Where does RVSM airspace begin?

A

FL290

91
Q

Explain the difference between Victor, T, Q, and Jet Routes.

A

Victor routes: up to, but not including, FL180 using traditional NAVAIDs
Jet routes: same as above, expect FL180 and above
T Routes: similar to Victor routes, except using GPS navigation
Q Routes: same as above, except FL180 and above

92
Q

When would you switch NAVAIDs while flying on routes?

A

3 instances:
-Bend in the path
-1/2 down the course
-Mandatory change over point symbol (half nazi symbol)

93
Q

How does a headwind v. tailwind impact TAS in cruise?

A

Headwind -> fly a faster TAS
Tailwind -> fly a slower TAS (better FF)

94
Q

How does colder than standard temperatures impact TAS and FF?

A

Colder = Lower TAS and FF (descend earlier than normal)

95
Q

If winds are less than ___ KIAS, use the zero wind tab data

A

less than 40 KIAS

96
Q

What document governs low levels?

A

AP/1B

97
Q

What do you squawk on SR, VR, and IR?

A

SR: 1200 (VFR)
VR: 4000
IR: assigned code

98
Q

What groundspeed do you maintain for low levels in the T-6A?

A

210 knots ground speed

99
Q

How do you change your timing during a low level?

A

Every second off…adjust IAS by that many knots, for 3.5 minutes

100
Q

What is the SHAFT check on low levels?

A

Speed
Heading
Altitude
Fuel
Timing

101
Q

What is the obstacle clearance rules on low levels?

A

Must stay 500’ above the highest obstacle within 2 NM of aircraft (once identified must maintain 2,000 ft laterally)

102
Q

How much fuel do we burn on low levels?

A

8 pounds per minute

103
Q

What is the minimum altitude for VFR point to point missions?

A

3,000 feet AGL

104
Q

What do you need to enter class B airspace?

A

EXPLICIT clearance

105
Q

What are your airspeed limits?

A

250 KIAS below 10,000 feet
200 KIAS near airspaces (under B / within 4 miles of C/D)

106
Q

What airspace may you never enter?

A

Prohibited areas

107
Q

If flight plans change more than ___ minutes, you must notify

A

30 minutes

108
Q

Where to find information on PMSV or Metro frequencies?

A

FIH or IFR sup (b/c its a Wx thing)

109
Q

Where to find info on PIREPs?

A

FIH (b/c its in flight)

110
Q

When using 1800Wx Brief, what callsign should you use?

A

Round DOWN to the nearest 5,000 ft

111
Q

What must be depicted graphically?

A

SIDs

112
Q

Does a Trouble T preclude departure from that airfield?

A

No, its an advisory provided to pilots

113
Q

What is the preference for receiving Wx brief?

A

Military brief or in-person

114
Q

What is the standard IFR climb gradient?

A

200 ft/NM

115
Q

Who can make a route change in flight?

A

Pilot or ATC

116
Q

What is initial fuel for the T-6A?

A

1100 pounds

117
Q

What are Radio NAVAIDs?

A

Ground based NAVAIDs

118
Q

Is Foreflight allowed for fuel planning?

A

No, unless you manually calculate it based on distances in Foreflight

119
Q

If there is a SID/STAR/preferred routing…

A

FLY IT!!

120
Q

What is P&A fuel for the T-6A?

A

100 pounds and 15 minutes

121
Q

What is the uniform frequency for FSS?

A

255.4 (Callsign: radio)

122
Q

What does POSEC mean? What is it?

A

Purpose
Objective
Situation
Execution
Contingencies
-it is a thoughtful, repeatable process

123
Q

What are NTAP notams and should you ask for them?

A

MUST ask for them and they’re usually long wordy NOTAMs

124
Q

Colder temperatures over route will result in?

A

Lower TAS and lower FF

125
Q

What MUST you do before beginning a low level?

A

DESCENT CHECK and compare EHSI to mag compass

126
Q

What weather do you need on a VR?

A

VFR weather mins (3000/5)

127
Q

What is a 4 letter abbreviation for METRO?

A

PMSV