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Navigation Test Flashcards

1
Q

What is the preferred form for filing an IFR flight plan?

A

DD 1801

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2
Q

When you go cross-country, you are responsible for filling out the AFTO Form 781 (True/False)

A

True

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3
Q

What is the WANTS checklist?

A

Weather
Activate
Notams
Told / Trouble T / Taxi / Fuel
SID / STAR / SELF

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4
Q

Why would you need an alternate?

A

Weather is less than 2000/3
Weather reporting not available
Winds forecasted out of limits
RVSM airspace denial
Anything else / NA on plate
GPS or RADAR only approaches
Unmonitored NAVAID

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5
Q

What are the 11-202v3 requirements for an alternate?

A

123TACR
+/- 1 Hour
1000/2 or 500/1 above lowest compatible
Tempo line included (unless Tstorms, Snow, etc)
Approach compatible
Crosswinds in limits
RVSM denial?

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6
Q

What are 11-248 PIC considerations for an alternate?

A

1500/3 GUNR
1500 / 3
GPS Only
Unmonitored NAVAID
No weather reporting
Radar required

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7
Q

What are the weather sources in priority?

A

MAJCOM approved
Regional weather squadron
DOD units (other military units)
Other US Government weather facilities
Foreign military services

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8
Q

What is the number one weather source by priority as stated in AFMAN 11-202 V3?

A

a. Local Military weather unit

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9
Q

You can use weather information from the ForeFlight app to help with your self-brief (True/False)

A

True

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10
Q

What part of the DD Form 175-1 gives information to compute TOLD?

A

a. Part 1

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11
Q

What information can be found in the DOD IFR Supplement and what is its main purpose?

A

Airport Information, airport hours, field elevation, runway lengths, NAVAID information, FBO contact info, changing a flight plan…
IFR Sup is used for PLANNING (except changing flt plan)

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12
Q

What information can be found in the FlH and what is its main purpose?

A

Emergency procedures, international flight procedures, position reporting codes, meteorological information, and standard communication procedures…
FIH is used for IN FLIGHT

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13
Q

What information can be found in the FLIP and what is its main purpose?

A

Enroute charts, terminal procedures, special use airspace, and MTRs…the FIH is also a part of the FLIP

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14
Q

Time critical aeronautical information, which is either temporary in nature or not known sufficiently in advance to permit publication in FLIP, is disseminated to aircrews via

A

Notices to Airmen or NOTAM system

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15
Q

Where do you go to get NOTAMs?

A

DoD Aeronautical Information Portal (DAIP)

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16
Q

FAA civil NOTAMs are divided into two categories

A

D (Distant)
FDC (Flight Data Center)

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17
Q

What are D NOTAMs?

A

D series NOTAMs are those that need wide dissemination.
In general, these are the type of NOTAMs that may affect your ability to use a particular airfield or NAVAID.

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18
Q

What are FDC NOTAMs?

A

FSSs maintain a file of FDC NOTAMs affecting the area within 400 miles of their facility.

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19
Q

What are “NTAP” NOTAMs?

A

Notices to Airmen Publication or “NTAP”. The NTAP book (no longer “hardcopy” only digital) contains NOTAM information that is expected to remain in effect for an extended period of time (greater than 90 days)

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20
Q

The “S” in the WANTS checklist stands for

A

SID, STAR, SELF

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21
Q

Where would you find the name of the FBO at your destination?

A

Navigation Information List at your home station (tricky question…the IFR Sup lists the number, but not the name)

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22
Q

A standardized route for arrival into an airfield is a

A

STAR

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23
Q

The DoD system for NOTAM retrieval is the

A

Defense Information and NOTAM Portal

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24
Q

You can request a NOTAM brief from a Flight Service Station (True/False)

A

True

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25
What is a good idea to record at the top of your AF Form 70?
departure, destination, planned altitude, takeoff, climb, and cruise data
26
What is STTO? What is it for the T-6A?
STTO represents the estimated time and fuel required to get airborne. In the T-6A, you normally enter a standard STTO of 1 minute and 50 pounds of fuel
27
When must you perform a "double entry" calculation for the climb problem?
If departure field elevation is above 5000 feet MSL (below that the effects are negligible)
28
Where can you find information on filling out an AF1801?
General Planning (GP), Chapter 4
29
In the T-6A, for STTO entry on the AF Form 70 use __________ minute(s) and __________ pounds of fuel.
1 minute and 50 pounds
30
Level off fuel (L/O) is the planned amount of fuel used from departure field elevation to planned cruise altitude (True/False)
True
31
Determine the distance to level off with a 180 knot average groundspeed and a time to climb of 8 minutes.
24 miles
32
In the T-6A, use a standard P&A fuel of __________ minute(s) and __________ pounds of fuel.
15 minutes and 100 pounds of fuel
33
Using the information shown, what would you enter in the “Total Fuel” block on your Form 70? Reserve fuel flow = 330 pph ETE to landing = 2+05 Fuel remaining at landing = 220 pounds
2+45
34
The time entered on the DD 1801 is based on UTC time (True/False)
True
35
Call signs on the DD 1801 are limited to a maximum of __________ characters.
7
36
At smaller airfields, or those without a clearance delivery frequency, clearances are normally obtained from the __________ frequency.
controller on the ground
37
For long range cruise data, use the altitude, in multiples of 5000 feet, that is __________ your cruise altitude.
at or below
38
A PIREP format can be found in the
FIH (its in flight and weather related)
39
The back cover of the __________ contains a guide to make changes to your flight plan.
IFR sup (planning changes)
40
In the T-6A, for STTO entry on the AF Form 70 use __________ minute(s) and __________ pounds of fuel.
1 minute and 50 pounds
41
In the T-6A, use a standard P&A fuel of __________ minute(s) and __________ pounds of fuel.
15 minutes and 100 pounds of fuel
42
What document lists Military Training Routes (MTRs)?
AP/1B
43
Who must you schedule a route with?
You must schedule the route with the scheduling activity and comply with all route requirements
44
When flying a low-level SR route or other MTR, you must contact
FSS and provide your entry point and time
45
What do you squawk for an SR route? What about for a VR route?
SR -> 1200 (VFR) VR -> 4000 (real MTR)
46
What channel must you monitor while on a MTR?
255.4
47
What altitude must you fly the low level between?
500 and 1500 feet AGL
48
Flying a successful low-level requires planning. In the T-6A, a constant groundspeed of ___ knots works very well for low-level missions. This equates to 1 minute for every ___ miles
210 knots 1 minute = 3.5 miles
49
Most turns at low-level are at __ degrees of bank
60 degrees
50
What is an ERAA? How is it defined (2 pubs)?
Emergency Route Abort Altitude 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle (2,000 feet in mountainous terrain) within 22 miles of the flight path (11-202v3) *11-248 says it must be 25 miles but NOT on the test*
51
If you must abort a route in VMC, then?
maintain safe separation from the terrain, comply with VFR altitude restrictions (if able), squawk an appropriate transponder code, maintain VMC, and attempt contact with a controlling agency, if required.
52
If you must abort a route in IMC, then?
IMC conditions encountered while flying VFR or low-level navigation constitute an emergency. If you cannot avoid flying into IMC, execute an immediate climb to the emergency route abort altitude (minimum) and squawk 7700. The climb should be expeditious, using maximum power and a safe airspeed.
53
What airspeed should you abort the route at?
160 KIAS
54
Which document lists MTRs?
AP/1B
55
Normally, a minimum climb airspeed of __________ KIAS is sufficient when aborting the route.
160 KIAS
56
Describe Class A airspace
Airspace from 18,000 feet MSL up to and including FL600
57
Describe Class B airspace
Airspace surrounding the busiest airports, usually surface to 10,000 feet MSL. You must have ATC clearance prior to entering. Transponder/Mode C and ADS-B Out required
58
Describe Class C airspace
Airspace usually from surface to 4,000 feet above airport elevation surrounding airports with an operational control tower that are serviced by RAPCON and have a certain number of IFR operations or passenger enplanements. You must establish two-way radio comms with ATC prior to entering. Transponder/Mode C and ADS-B Out are required.
59
Describe Class D airspace
Airspace usually from surface to 2,500 feet above airport elevation surrounding airports with an operational control tower. You must establish two-way radio comms with ATC prior to entering unless otherwise authorized.
60
Describe Class E airspace
Controlled airspace that is not Class A, B, C, or D. In most areas, it extends from 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL. There are areas where Class E airspace begins at either the surface or 700 feet AGL. These are used to transition between the terminal and enroute environments (around non-towered airports). Transponder/Mode C and ADS-B Out are required at and above 10,000 feet MSL unless otherwise authorized.
61
Describe Class G airspace
Uncontrolled airspace
62
What special use airspace must you never enter?
Prohibited areas
63
PICs will not exceed ___ KIAS below 10,000 MSL (w/ 2 exceptions)
250 KIAS (except flight manual minimum safe airspeed or within MOAs)
64
PICs will not exceed ___ KIAS at or below 2,500 AGL within 4 NM of the primary airport in Class C or D airspace
200 KIAS
65
PICs will not exceed ___ KIAS in the airspace underlying Class B airspace
200 KIAS
66
What are VFR cloud clearances?
Class A: not applicable Class B: 3SM and CoC Class C/D: 3SM and 1/5/2 Class E/G below 10,000': 3SM and 5/1/2 Class E/G above 10,000': 5SM and 1/1/1
67
If conditions (weather, airspace) prevent you from completing the mission under VFR: (3 options)
Alter route to remain VFR Maintain VFR until obtaining an IFR clearance Maintain VFR and land at a suitable location
68
_______ spells out the rules, both IFR and VFR, which Air Force pilots must follow when planning either type of mission.
AF11-202v3
69
A careful examination of ______ will many times reveal an airspace circumstance for which we are not normally aware, or will pose some sort of limitation to our preferred flight plan.
NOTAMs
70
Which class of airspace surrounds the busiest airports and requires ATC clearance prior to entering?
Class B
71
How do you correct for magnetic variation?
East is Least (subtract) West is Best (add)
72
What altitudes should you cruise VFR?
West -> Even plus 500 East -> Odd plus 500
73
What is pilotage?
Navigation by reference to landmarks or checkpoints. Towns, rivers, lakes, airfields, etc. are easily discernable and make good checkpoints.
74
What is Dead Reckoning?
Navigation solely by means of computations based on time, airspeed, distance, and direction. Ultimately, wind corrected headings and groundspeeds are determined. DR is utilized on low-levels.
75
What is Radio Navigation?
Flying to and from NAVAIDs, specifically VORs, on radials, or following published routings.
76
Where would you find information on the useable reception range of NAVAIDs? What are VORs typically?
Reference the IFR Sup, NAVAIDs Section, to ensure you’re planning with the appropriate classification of VOR. Most VORs are High.
77
The __________ and __________ work hand in hand providing you the airfield information you seek for your VFR mission planning.
sectional; IFR supplement (PLANNING)
78
The difference between magnetic and true north is known as
Magnetic variation
79
__________ is navigation solely by means of computations based on time, airspeed, distance, and direction.
Dead Reckoning (DR)
80
Reference the __________, NAVAIDS Section, to ensure you’re planning with the appropriate classification of VOR.
IFR Supplement
81
Whenever you are lost, remember to apply the three Cs:
Climb, Conserve, Confess
82
The maximum allowable cruise altitude for VFR flight is
17,500 MSL
83
A "rule of thumb” for choosing a cruise altitude is to use
10% of the total distance
84
The uniform frequency that can be used across the country to contact Flight Service is __________.
255.4
85
What does ++ mean on times?
During periods of daylight time, effective times are 1 hour earlier than shown
86
What is the official approved source of NOTAMs?
DAIP
87
What are Flight Data Center (FDC) NOTAMs?
They change approaches and are regulatory
88
What fuel charts do we use for Form 70s in cruise?
Long Range Cruise data
89
How much fuel reserve is required?
20 minutes or 10% of the flight time (up to 45 minutes) using max endurance at 10,000'
90
Where does RVSM airspace begin?
FL290
91
Explain the difference between Victor, T, Q, and Jet Routes.
Victor routes: up to, but not including, FL180 using traditional NAVAIDs Jet routes: same as above, expect FL180 and above T Routes: similar to Victor routes, except using GPS navigation Q Routes: same as above, except FL180 and above
92
When would you switch NAVAIDs while flying on routes?
3 instances: -Bend in the path -1/2 down the course -Mandatory change over point symbol (half nazi symbol)
93
How does a headwind v. tailwind impact TAS in cruise?
Headwind -> fly a faster TAS Tailwind -> fly a slower TAS (better FF)
94
How does colder than standard temperatures impact TAS and FF?
Colder = Lower TAS and FF (descend earlier than normal)
95
If winds are less than ___ KIAS, use the zero wind tab data
less than 40 KIAS
96
What document governs low levels?
AP/1B
97
What do you squawk on SR, VR, and IR?
SR: 1200 (VFR) VR: 4000 IR: assigned code
98
What groundspeed do you maintain for low levels in the T-6A?
210 knots ground speed
99
How do you change your timing during a low level?
Every second off...adjust IAS by that many knots, for 3.5 minutes
100
What is the SHAFT check on low levels?
Speed Heading Altitude Fuel Timing
101
What is the obstacle clearance rules on low levels?
Must stay 500' above the highest obstacle within 2 NM of aircraft (once identified must maintain 2,000 ft laterally)
102
How much fuel do we burn on low levels?
8 pounds per minute
103
What is the minimum altitude for VFR point to point missions?
3,000 feet AGL
104
What do you need to enter class B airspace?
EXPLICIT clearance
105
What are your airspeed limits?
250 KIAS below 10,000 feet 200 KIAS near airspaces (under B / within 4 miles of C/D)
106
What airspace may you never enter?
Prohibited areas
107
If flight plans change more than ___ minutes, you must notify
30 minutes
108
Where to find information on PMSV or Metro frequencies?
FIH or IFR sup (b/c its a Wx thing)
109
Where to find info on PIREPs?
FIH (b/c its in flight)
110
When using 1800Wx Brief, what callsign should you use?
Round DOWN to the nearest 5,000 ft
111
What must be depicted graphically?
SIDs
112
Does a Trouble T preclude departure from that airfield?
No, its an advisory provided to pilots
113
What is the preference for receiving Wx brief?
Military brief or in-person
114
What is the standard IFR climb gradient?
200 ft/NM
115
Who can make a route change in flight?
Pilot or ATC
116
What is initial fuel for the T-6A?
1100 pounds
117
What are Radio NAVAIDs?
Ground based NAVAIDs
118
Is Foreflight allowed for fuel planning?
No, unless you manually calculate it based on distances in Foreflight
119
If there is a SID/STAR/preferred routing...
FLY IT!!
120
What is P&A fuel for the T-6A?
100 pounds and 15 minutes
121
What is the uniform frequency for FSS?
255.4 (Callsign: radio)
122
What does POSEC mean? What is it?
Purpose Objective Situation Execution Contingencies -it is a thoughtful, repeatable process
123
What are NTAP notams and should you ask for them?
MUST ask for them and they're usually long wordy NOTAMs
124
Colder temperatures over route will result in?
Lower TAS and lower FF
125
What MUST you do before beginning a low level?
DESCENT CHECK and compare EHSI to mag compass
126
What weather do you need on a VR?
VFR weather mins (3000/5)
127
What is a 4 letter abbreviation for METRO?
PMSV

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