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Airplane Stuff > Aerospace Physiology > Flashcards

Aerospace Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

AP101: What is the approximate percentage of oxygen, nitrogen and other gases at 18,000 feet MSL?

A

21% oxygen, 78% nitrogen, and 1% other gases

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2
Q

AP101: Which of the following is the best description of atmospheric pressure and its cause?

A

The combined weight of all the atmospheric gases which is caused by gravity pulling the gas molecules earthward and thermal and solar radiation expanding the gases outward toward space

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3
Q

AP101: What are the common units used to measure atmospheric pressure?

A

Inches of mercury (inHg), Millimeters of mercury (mmHg), and Pounds per square inch (psi) - All the above are correct.

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4
Q

AP101: Which of the following represents the notation for the partial pressure of gases?

A

PO2 partial pressure of oxygen, PCO2 partial pressure of carbon dioxide, PN2 partial pressure of nitrogen.

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5
Q

AP101: PO2 increases and the percentage of oxygen decreases as the altitude increases. (True/Flase)

A

False

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6
Q

AP101: What is the temperature lapse rate up to approximately 35,000 feet?

A

About 2 ºC per 1,000 feet

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7
Q

AP101: The human body is adapted to which physiological division of the atmosphere?

A

Physiological zone

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8
Q

AP101: Explain Boyle’s Law

A

Explains why a balloon expands as it ascends and also why a volume of air expands when trapped in a body cavity when the pressure is reduced around it
(Pressure v. volume)

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9
Q

AP101: Explain Henry’s Law

A

Explains why a soda pop bubbles after it is opened
(Gases dissolved in liquids)

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10
Q

AP101: Explain Dalton’s Law

A

Explains how exposure to a high altitude can reduce the available oxygen
(addition of all the partial pressures)

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11
Q

AP101: Explain Ideal Gas Law

A

Explains why the temperature increases in a cylinder that is being pressurized

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12
Q

AP101: Explain Law of Gaseous Diffusion

A

Explains how oxygen moves out of the lungs into the bloodstream

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13
Q

Human factors is concerned with?

A

optimizing the relationship between people and their activities, by the systematic application of human sciences, integrated within the framework of systems engineering

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14
Q

What is the SHELL model?

A

S: Software
H: Hardware
E: Environment
L: Liveware
L: Liveware-Liveware

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15
Q

In modern aviation, human factors have accounted for roughly how many aircraft accidents?

A

the majority of accidents (60-80%)

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16
Q

The atmosphere is defined as

A

the gaseous envelope surrounding the Earth

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17
Q

Almost all flying takes place in what layer of the atmosphere?

A

Troposphere

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18
Q

What are some characteristics of the troposphere?

A

-captures the most solar energy
-has water vapor (humidity)
-decrease in temperature with the increase of altitude
-weather phenomena

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19
Q

What changes about gases with increased altitude?

A

Pressure (NOT percent)

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20
Q

What is pressure defined as?

A

force that acts on a unit area

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21
Q

Density and pressure (increase/decrease) exponentially as one ascends from the earth’s surface

A

decrease

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22
Q

What is the standard temperature and pressure at sea level?

A

+15 ºC and 760 mmHg (29.92 inHg)

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23
Q

Where does the greatest pressure change occur?

A

The greatest pressure change occurs at lower atmospheric levels between sea level and 18,000 feet.

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24
Q

What is the standard temperature lapse?

A

Altitudes up to about 35,000 feet reflect a constant decrease in temperature of about 2 °C (3.6 °F) per 1,000 feet

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25
Q

What is the physiological zone and how far does it extend up to?

A

The physiological zone extends from sea level to approximately 10,000 feet and is the zone the human body is adapted to

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26
Q

What are the divisions of the atmosphere?

A

Physiological Zone: Sea level - 10,000’
Physiological Deficient Zone: 10,000’ - 50,000’
Space Equivalent Zone: above 50,000’

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27
Q

What is Dalton’s Law of Partial Pressure?

A

Dalton’s Law of Partial Pressure states the total pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of each gas in the mixture

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28
Q

How does Dalton’s Law explain how exposure to a high ambient altitude can reduce the available oxygen?

A

As ambient altitude increases, the total atmospheric pressure decreases causing, specifically partial pressure of oxygen (PO2) to decrease even though the percentage of oxygen remains the same.

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29
Q

What is Boyle’s Law?

A

Boyle’s Law states when the temperature remains constant, as in the human body, a volume of gas is inversely proportional to the pressure surrounding it.

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30
Q

What is the application of Boyle’s Law?

A

Boyle’s Law explains for the effects of pressure changes in the ears, sinuses, teeth, and gastrointestinal tract

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31
Q

What is Henry’s Law?

A

if pressure is reduced above the solution, some gas
will come out of the solution.

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32
Q

What is the Ideal Gas Law?

A

describes gas behavior using three interrelated variables: pressure (P), volume (V), and temperature (T).

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33
Q

What is the Law of Gaseous diffusion?

A

A gas will diffuse from an area of higher
concentration or pressure to an area of lower
concentration or pressure until equilibrium is reached.
The speed of this movement depends on the relative
concentrations of the gases

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34
Q

What is the physiological significance of the Law of Gaseous Diffusion?

A

the transfer of gases between the blood or other
body fluids and the tissues they contact (also explains hypoxic hypoxia when coupled with Dalton’s Law)

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35
Q

What is the overall goal of Aerospace Physiology?

A

to train crewmembers to increase safety and mission effectiveness by identifying and eliminating physical, physiological, and psychological limitations of the flying environment.

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36
Q

AP102: The purpose of respiration is to get ____ into the body and to remove excess _____.

A

Oxygen into the body and remove excess Carbon Dioxide

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37
Q

AP102: What is/are the site(s) of gas exchange in the lung between the atmosphere and the blood?

A

Alveoli

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38
Q

AP102: What is the normal breathing rate of an average adult?

A

12-16 breaths per minute

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39
Q

AP102: What is the most important factor in the control of ventilation under normal conditions?

A

PCO2

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40
Q

AP102: What is the main function of red blood cells?

A

Carry oxygen

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41
Q

What are the functions of respiration?

A

-Intake, filtering, and conditioning of air (warm and humidify)
-Gas exchange
-Temperature regulation
-Metabolic function
-Maintain acid-base balance (pH) of blood

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42
Q

Why are the Oral-Nasal Cavities (mouth, nose, and pharynx) lined with a mucous membrane and why is it important?

A

the nasal cavity mucous membrane filter inspired air

Humidifying and warming the air protects the lungs from being cooled or dried out

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43
Q

What is the primary function of the lungs?

A

allow oxygen to move from the air to the microscopic blood vessels (capillaries) and carbon dioxide to move from the capillaries into the lungs

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44
Q

What are alveoli?

A

tiny air sacs in the lungs at the end of the bronchioles

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45
Q

Where does gas exchange for the respiratory and circulatory systems occur at in the lung?

Why do oxygen and carbon dioxide move between air and blood there?

A

Gas exchange occurs at the alveolar-capillary interface.

Oxygen and carbon dioxide move between air and blood by simple diffusion, (Law of Gaseous Diffusion) from an area of high to low partial pressure.

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46
Q

What does the rate and depth of breathing change in response to?

A

the concentrations of carbon dioxide (CO2), oxygen (O2), and hydrogen ions (H+) in arterial blood

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47
Q

What are the three ways the body regulates arterial blood pH?

A
  1. Chemical acid/base buffer system
  2. Respiratory system
  3. Kidneys
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48
Q

The most important factor in the control of ventilation under normal conditions is?

A

the PCO2 of the arterial blood

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49
Q

On ascent to high altitude, a large increase in ventilation can occur in response to a lack of sufficient PO2. What can this cause?

A

An increase in ventilation that can cause an increased loss of CO2 resulting in an increased arterial blood pH (hypocapnia)

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50
Q

What are the five distinct phases of respiration?

A

Ventilation
Diffusion (1)
Transportation
Diffusion (2)
Utilization

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51
Q

What is ventilation?

A

the inhalation and exhalation of gas

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52
Q

What is diffusion (1)?

A

when the oxygen and carbon dioxide pass through the alveolar membrane and capillary walls into the red blood cells

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53
Q

What is transportation?

A

when oxygen is carried by the blood to the cell and tissues for utilization

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54
Q

What is diffusion (2)?

A

the movement of gases between the blood, the interstitial fluid, and the cells

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55
Q

What is utilization?

A

when the oxygen is used to produce energy which results in carbon dioxide and water as byproducts

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56
Q

What is the tidal volume of gas in adults? About how many breaths is that per minute?

A

about 500 milliliters
12-16 breaths per minute

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57
Q

What are the active and passive components of respiration? Why are they referred to this way?

A

The active component of respiration is inspiration. This is because it is accomplished by the contraction (downward movement) of the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles.

The passive component of respiration is exaltation. Muscular effort is not required during exhalation.

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58
Q

What does the circulatory system do?

A

transports and distributes nutrients and oxygen to the tissues and removes waste products of metabolism

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59
Q

What is the circulatory system comprised of?

A

A pump (heart), a series of distributing and collecting tubes (arteries and veins), and an extensive system of thin vessels that allow the rapid exchange between the tissues and the vascular channels (the capillaries)

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60
Q

Blood circulates through the cardiovascular system in a mixture of cells within a liquid called?

A

Plasma

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61
Q

How much of the blood is plasma? What is plasma comprised of?

A

~55% of the blood
Plasma is made of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets

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62
Q

What is the primary function of red blood cells?

A

Transport O2 and CO2
(Hemoglobin is responsible within the cell for transporting O2)

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63
Q

What is the function of metabolism?

A

To convert chemical energy into mechanical and thermal energy to sustain life

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64
Q

What factors affect oxygen delivery to the tissues?

A
  1. Altitude
  2. G-forces
  3. Toxic Gases or substances
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65
Q

A lack of oxygen in body tissues that is sufficient to cause an impairment of function is called?

A

Hypoxia

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66
Q

AP103: During ascent (as ambient pressure decreases), gases trapped within body cavities will _____.

A

expand

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67
Q

AP103: The four areas of the body influenced by the mechanical effects of trapped gases are:

A

Ears
Sinuses
G.I Tract
Teeth

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68
Q

AP103: What is the best method of preventing problems with the ears and sinuses in-flight?

A

Do not fly with a cold

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69
Q

AP103: Match each symptom with the appropriate decompression sickness type
CNS (neurological manifestations)

A

Partial paralysis, loss of speech or hearing
Severe, persistent headache
Vertigo, loss of orientation
Tingling of one arm, leg, or side of the body

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70
Q

AP103: DCS is caused by _____ coming out of the solution in the tissues and blood

A

nitrogen

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71
Q

AP103: List, in order, the corrective actions for any suspected or observed DCS.

______ oxygen
______ the affected area
______ as soon as practical
Obtain ______ (flight surgeon)
______ therapy (if required)

A

100% or maximum
Immobilize
Land
Medical Assistance
Hyperbaric

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72
Q

AP103: Adequate protection against DCS can be established by _____ and/or _____

A

cabin pressure; denitrogenation

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73
Q

AP103: The USAF forbids flight within ______ hours of a compressed air exposure for all normal flying operations

A

24

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74
Q

AP103: ______ is a state of oxygen deficiency in the blood, cells, or tissues sufficient to cause an impairment of function

A

Hypoxia

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75
Q

AP103: ______ _______ is usually caused by exposure to low barometric pressure

A

Hypoxic hypoxia

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76
Q

AP103: Match each type of hypoxia with the appropriate cause
Hypoxic hypoxia

A

Loss of cabin pressurization
Oxygen equipment malfunctions
Improper use of oxygen equipment

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77
Q

AP103: Match each type of hypoxia with the appropriate cause
Stagnant hypoxia

A

Cold temperatures
Shock
Hyperventilation
“G” forces

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78
Q

AP103: Match each type of hypoxia with the appropriate cause
Hypemic hypoxia

A

Drugs
Carbon monoxide
Blood donation

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79
Q

AP103: Match each type of hypoxia with the appropriate cause
Histotoxic hypoxic

A

Alcohol
Cyanide

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80
Q

AP103: The most dangerous characteristic of hypoxia is its _____ _____

A

insidious onset

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81
Q

AP103: What signs/symptoms are normally associated with hypoxia

A

Bluing (cyanosis)
Impaired vision
Hot or cold flashes
Dizziness
Light headedness
Loss of muscle coordination
Apprehension
Feeling of well being
Tingling
Impaired judgment/confusion

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82
Q

AP103: The time of onset of hypoxia and the severity of symptoms are identical with all crewmembers from one day to the next. (True/False )

A

False

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83
Q

AP103: __________ of __________ is the period of time from the interruption of the oxygen supply or exposure to an oxygen poor environment, to the time when useful function is lost.

A

Time of useful consciousness

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84
Q

AP103: What factors decreases TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness)?

A

Increased physical activity
Stress
Hypoxia (histotoxic, hypemic, stagnant)
Rapid decompression
Anxiety
Increased altitude

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85
Q

AP103: A _____ can reduce your TUC by as much as _____ %

A

rapid decompression can reduce TUC by as much as 50%

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86
Q

AP103: Hyperventilation is a condition in which the _____ and/or _____ of breathing is abnormally increased

A

rate and/or depth

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87
Q

AP103: Hypocapnia causes an excessive loss of ______ from the lungs and blood

A

carbon dioxide

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88
Q

AP103: List five signs and symptoms of hypocapnia

A

Signs: muscle tightness/spasms, increased rate/depth of breathing, paleness, cold, clammy skin, unconsciousness

Symptoms: dizziness, faintness, slight nausea, numbness, tingling, coolness, muscle tremors

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89
Q

AP103: The most frequent cause of hypocapnia in flying training is?

A

Stress

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90
Q

AP103: Complete the crewmember’s emergency procedures for the treatment of hypocapnia and/or hypoxia

a. _____ oxygen under _____
b. Connections - _______
c. Breathe at a ______ and depth slightly less than normal until symptoms ______
d. Descend below _______ feet MSL and land as soon as ______

A

a. Max; pressure
b. Check security
c. rate; disappear
d. 10,000; practical

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91
Q

What is aircraft pressurization via isobaric system?

A

Constant cabin pressure

With this type of system, the pressure difference between cabin pressure and ambient pressure increases with altitude.

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92
Q

What is aircraft pressurization via an isobaric differential system?

A

With this system, the aircraft is unpressurized until a preset cabin pressure is reached. Once reached, the isobaric function of the system maintains a constant pressure within the cabin until a selected pressure differential (cabin pressure versus ambient pressure) is attained. Thereafter, as the aircraft climbs, the system maintains the designated pressure differential between cabin pressure and ambient pressure.

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93
Q

How does the T-6 pressurization system work? What kind of system is it?

A

The T-6 is equipped with an isobaric differential pressurization system. As the aircraft approaches 8,000 feet pressure altitude, the control valve regulator will open and close the control valve to maintain cockpit pressure. An 8,000-foot cockpit altitude is maintained until a pressure differential pressure of 3.6 ±0.2 psi is reached at 18,069 feet. This differential is maintained from 18,069 feet to 31,000 feet, where maximum cockpit pressure altitude is 16,600 feet.

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94
Q

Why are fighter/attack aircraft pressurization systems typically set at a lower pressure differential?

A

This safeguard is provided because of the smaller cabin volume and the increased danger of decompression during combat operations

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95
Q

What is the primary purpose for aircraft pressurization?

A

reduce the possibility of DCS and hypoxia

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96
Q

What are the advantages of aircraft pressurization?

A
  1. Reduced risk of hypoxia
  2. Reduced risk of decompression
  3. Reduced GI expansion
  4. Allow more room to move around with less oxygen equipment
  5. Protects sinus and inner ear with controlled descent
  6. Controls cabin temperature, humidity, and ventilation
  7. Minimizes fatigue and discomfort
  8. Reduce need for supplemental oxygen below 10,000 feet
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97
Q

What are the disadvantages of aircraft pressurization?

A

***1. Decompression
2. Increased weight
3. Additional design
4. Decreased performance
5. Increased cost
6. Requires control of cabin air contamination from smoke, fumes, etc.

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98
Q

What are the three types of decompression (and associated times)?

A

Explosive (0.5 sec)
Rapid (0.5 to 15 secs)
Slow (15 secs+)

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99
Q

What is the difference between explosive and rapid decompression?

A

Explosive decompression decompresses the lungs, which could damage them.

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100
Q

What is perhaps the most dangerous type of decompression?

A

A slow decompression is potentially the most dangerous type of decompression because it can be so slow that you may not even notice. If unaware of the decompression, hypoxia may occur, and you could be incapacitated

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101
Q

A pressurization loss requires descent to what altitude?

A

Below 10,000 feet

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102
Q

What determines the rate and severity of the decompression?

A

the pressure differential

The initial difference between the cabin pressure and the ambient pressure

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103
Q

What determines the time required for decompression?

A

The pressure ratio, defined as the ratio between cabin pressure and ambient pressure

The larger the ratio, the longer it takes for the two pressures to equalize.

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104
Q

The most severe physiological effects are produced by a decompression involving?

A

a large pressure change over a short period of time

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105
Q

What are physical indications of a rapid decompression?

A

Explosive noise
Pressure
Temperature
Fogging
Flying debris

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106
Q

AP104: The primary purpose for aircraft pressurization is to

A

reduce/prevent decompression sickness and hypoxia

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107
Q

AP104: List additional advantages of aircraft pressurization

A

a. Reduced need for supplemental oxygen
b. Reduced expansion of G.I. gas
c. Control temperature and humidity
d. Move without the encumbrance of oxygen equipment
e. Minimize fatigue
f. Protect ears/sinuses from rapid pressure change

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108
Q

AP104: The primary, and most critical, disadvantage of aircraft pressurization is the potential for a _____

A

decompression

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109
Q

Rods and cones are distributed over the entire retina except for?

A

where the optic nerves and blood vessels exit the eyeball

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110
Q

What is the optic disk known as?

A

The anatomical blind spot

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111
Q

Why can we not normally recognize the anatomical blind spot?

A

the optic disks are in different locations in each eye, therefore, when the eyes are being used simultaneously, called binocular vision, the nerve impulses from the retinas provide the brain with an image negating the effects of the blind spots. The blind spot will only be noticed when an object is being viewed with one eye, monocular vision

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112
Q

Why do you not notice a blank spot even with monocular vision?

A

the blind spots is “active.” The brain “fills in” the missing visual information caused by the blind spot with surrounding visual information

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113
Q

What is the fovea?

A

a tiny pit containing only cones and the natural point on the retina where the lens focuses an image. Your best color vision and maximum visual acuity are in the fovea

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114
Q

What are cones?

A

Cones are the photoreceptors allowing you to see the details of the world in color under bright light conditions. They are densest in the center of the retina and decrease in number toward the periphery.

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115
Q

What are rods?

A

Rods are the photoreceptors densest at the periphery of the retina and decreasing in number as the center of the retina is approached. They allow you to see in gray tones under conditions of dim light and provide for our peripheral vision. Anything interfering with rod function interferes with your ability to see at night.

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116
Q

What are the three types of vision?

A

Photopic: daytime vision
(Colors are easily discerned, and images are sharp)
Scotopic: nighttime vision
(Cone cells are ineffective, resulting in poor resolution of detail. Color vision is lost)
Mesopic: dawn and dusk
(both rods and cones are active, although not at peak efficiency)

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117
Q

The total visual field is roughly how many degrees?

A

150º

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118
Q

What is considered “central vision”?

A

The center 30º of the visual field

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119
Q

How much of central vision is used for focal vision or high acuity?

A

The very center 3º
(The rest of the visual field is considered peripheral)

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120
Q

What kind of vision is processed at a higher level of consciousness?

A

Focal vision is processed at a higher level of consciousness and peripheral vision is processed at a more subconscious level.

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121
Q

Why does focal vision require high illumination levels?

A

Focal vision also requires high illumination levels because the fovea consists solely of cone cells. As a result, you don’t have the same visual acuity during night or low-light operations as during the day.

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122
Q

What is peripheral vision primarily used for? What photoreceptors make up most of the peripheral vision?

A

Peripheral vision is used primarily to orient oneself relative to the environment

Most of the photoreceptors used in peripheral vision are rods (poor visual acuity)

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123
Q

What is the mechanism for judging distances of objects within about 200 meters?

A

Stereopsis

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124
Q

Binocular cues refer to?

A

the mechanisms by which aircrew assess depth and distance

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125
Q

What are the 4 Common Physiological Limitations and Threats?

A

Visual Contrast
Shapes of Targets
Movement of a Target
Environment

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126
Q

Visual Contrast helps the eye acquire the target. Objects are sensed by the differences between light and dark. Therefore, the greater the contrast of a target against its background, the ____ it is to detect.

A

easier

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127
Q

Shapes of Targets also affect the eyes’ ability to acquire them. The larger, more angular the shape of the target, the _____ it is to see

A

easier it is to see and is sometimes referred to as its “visual cross section.”

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128
Q

The movement of a target is easier to detect than a stationary target. What kind of background is easier to detect movement in?

A

An aircraft flying against a broken, irregular background, like a partly cloudy sky, requires less apparent movement to be detected than when it is flying against a featureless background, like a clear sky

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129
Q

Name one environmental influence on vision

A

Hypoxia (starving the eyes of oxygen)

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130
Q

Terrain around airfields can contribute to miscues and false perceptions of altitude during approach to landing. An airfield situated at an end of a valley with slowly rising terrain at the approach end of the runway can cause you to land your aircraft ______. Conversely, flying an approach over terrain sloping away from the approach end of the runway may cause you to ______.

A

land long with rising terrain

descend early with sloping away terrain

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131
Q

How can differently shaped runways change your perception during landing?

A

Longer/skinnier runways will make you feel too high on the approach, whereas shorter/fatter runways make you feel too low on the approach

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132
Q

Reaction time is a measure of how quickly an organism can respond to a particular stimulus. How long does it take an average aviator to make a decision with a resultant motor input?

A

6.1 seconds

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133
Q

What is the proper scanning techniques?

A

During the day, a “Z” pattern
At night, an off-centered diamond

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134
Q

Most near mid-air collisions in the United States occur

A

below 12,500 feet MSL

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135
Q

A majority of bird strikes occur

A

Below 2,000 feet AGL

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136
Q

What does the subtle limitation (tending to increase perception time/reaction time) of expectancy mean?

A

Once you are notified of conflicting traffic, and especially if you are given the type of conflicting aircraft, you form a mental picture of your target. Unfortunately, your mental picture may not accurately reflect what you should really be seeing

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137
Q

What is the physiological blind spot?

A

At night, there may not be enough light emanating or being reflected from a target to stimulate the cones in the fovea. Therefore, the central area of vision (cone vision) becomes a central area of no-vision

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138
Q

How long do rods take in absolute darkness to obtain maximum sensitivity?

A

20-30 minutes or longer

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139
Q

What is the Black Hole Illusion?

A

The black hole illusion is produced during night landing, when there are no visual references except runway lights. Suppose a pilot makes a visual approach at night into an area of low cultural lighting and does not use glide slope guidance. In that case, inevitably, the pilot will fly the approach below the normal approach angle and often find himself quite a bit short of the threshold or overrun.

140
Q

What is the “autokinesis” illusion?

A

This illusion occurs by staring at a single light source against a dark background. After staring at the light for a few moments, it appears to move randomly.

141
Q

What is the indistinct/false horizons illusion?

A

At night a false horizon can be caused by any series of lights in a linear formation.

142
Q

Why do you seem to feel closer to runway lights when there is fog/haze present?

A

The lights appear larger because of the diffusing and scattering of the light by the fog or haze.

143
Q

Why does self-imposed stress play a role in nighttime illusions?

A

The problem of night visual illusions increases because you are flying at times that are usually out of alignment with your normal sleep-wake cycles and you tend to be fatigued. The problem also increases when traveling across time zones.

144
Q

The word “LASER” is an acronym for?

A

Light Amplification by the Stimulated Emission of Radiation

145
Q

How are lasers different than typical white light sources?

A

Collimation
Lasers produce light that doesn’t spread out in all directions or diverge like normal white light sources

146
Q

Laser damage potential for flight crews can be characterized by the following terms?

A

Dazzle, Glare Blindness, or Retina Burn

147
Q

What is a laser threat defined as?

A

any laser light that could alter operations without causing catastrophic structural damage to platforms

148
Q

What does the reporting acronym “LASER” mean?

A

Location of source
Appearance
Scanning or tracking
Effects
Regularity

149
Q

What are the two blind spots contained by the retina?

A

the anatomical blind spot formed by the optic disk and the night-blind spot caused by the concentration of cones in the fovea

150
Q

AP105: What is the innermost layer of tissue of the eye?

A

Retina

151
Q

AP105: What are the light-sensitive cells distributed over the retina

A

Rods and Cones

152
Q

AP105: Determine if the following are characteristics of (A) the rod cells or (B) the cone cells:
a. Most dense at the periphery of the retina
b. Require high light levels to function
c. Allow you to see gray tones under conditions of dim light
d. Densest in the center of the retina
e. Provide for peripheral vision
f. Allow you to see detail under bright light conditions
g. More sensitive to light

A

a. Rod
b. Cone
c. Rod
d. Cone
e. Rod
f. Cone
g. Rod

153
Q

AP105: What is the primary function of focal vision?

A

Recognize and identify objects

154
Q

AP105: What is the primary function of peripheral vision?

A

To orient oneself relative to the environment

155
Q

AP105: An object requires less motion to be seen in a clear blue sky than an object in a partly cloudy sky (True/False)

A

False

156
Q

AP105: In mid-air collisions, the primary peripheral visual cue of _____ is not available. Therefore, you must acquire the target aircraft with your _____ vision, using the scanning technique.

A

motion
central

157
Q

AP105: Perception/reaction time is affected by

A

physiological and perceptual limitations

158
Q

AP105: Maximum scanning effectiveness is achieved by?

A

a series of short (long enough for the eye to focus), regularly spaced eye fixations

159
Q

AP105: What is the acronym used for reporting laser exposures?

A

LASER

160
Q

AP107: Briefly define the USAF Aerospace and Operational Physiology definition of situational awareness

A

The accurate perception of the elements in the environment within a volume of time and space, the comprehension of their meaning and the projection of their status in the near future

161
Q

AP107: Label this SA component.

Knowledge of the location of one’s own aircraft, other aircraft, terrain features, airports, cities, waypoints, navigation, fixes and position relative to designated features, runway and taxi assignments, and climb and descent points. It is critical to understand that a loss of Geographical SA can precipitate a loss of Spatial/Temporal SA and in many cases may even lead to spatial disorientation (SD).

A

Geographical

162
Q

AP107: Label this SA component.

Knowledge of the aircraft’s altitude, attitude, heading, velocity, vertical velocity, G-loading, flight path, aircraft capabilities, projected flight path, and project landing time.

A

Spatial/Temporal

163
Q

AP107: Label this SA component.

Knowledge of system status, functioning and settings, settings of radio, altimeter and transponder equipment, flight modes and automation settings, impact of malfunctions and system degradation, fuel, time, and distance available of fuel.

A

System

164
Q

AP107: Label this SA component.

Knowledge of weather formations, temperature, icing, ceilings, clouds, fog, sun, availability, visibility, turbulence, winds, microbursts, IFR vs. VFR conditions, areas and altitudes to avoid, projects weather conditions.

A

Environmental

165
Q

AP107: Label this SA component.

Knowledge and identification of tactical status, type, capabilities, targeting, threat prioritization, location and flight dynamics of other aircraft, aircraft detections, launch capabilities, imminence and assignments, current and projected threats intentions, firing and maneuvering, mission timing and status.

A

Tactical

166
Q

AP107: SA theorist Micah Endsley (1995) supposes there are three levels of awareness; Level 1: __________, Level 2: __________, and Level 3: __________.

A

Perception; Comprehension; Prediction

167
Q

AP107: (True/False) Type of Stimulus is a factor that affects both perception and reaction time.

A

True

168
Q

AP107: (True/False) Temporal (event) preparation reduces the potential time points of stimulus presentation and thus improves reaction time.

A

True

169
Q

AP107: (True/False) Chair flying, mission pre-briefings, self-assessment, and rehearsal of probable events are all effective tools for improving attention management.

A

True

170
Q

Why is situational awareness a primary concern?

A

loss of SA is either the primary factor or a contributing factor in most human performance related mishaps.

171
Q

What 4 sensory systems do we have?

A

Visual
Auditory
Vestibular: sense of balance
Somatosensory: seat-of-the-pants

172
Q

What sensory system is the most reliable and which is the least reliable?

A

Visual system. This is usually the most reliable information and where most information comes from.
Auditory system is the least reliable

173
Q

The conscious part of our minds is considered a ____ processor. This is the level at which we actively process information; we are at our best when we do one thing at a time.

A

serial

174
Q

The conscious level is much _____ than the subconscious level but much _____ prone to illusion and habit pattern interference.

A

slower
less

175
Q

The subconscious part of our minds is considered a _____ processor. This level can do more than one thing at a time and can do them very quickly. Habit patterns, memory, and skills are kept in the subconscious.

A

parallel

176
Q

What are the 3 levels of awareness?

A

Level 1: Perception (Basic)
Level 2: Comprehension (Intermediate)
Level 3: Prediction (Advanced)

177
Q

How is spatial disorientation defined?

A

the inability to accurately orient yourself with respect to the earth’s horizon

178
Q

AP108: What is the least dangerous spatial disorientation?

A

Type II - Recognized

179
Q

AP108: What is the most dangerous spatial disorientation?

A

Type I - Unrecognized

180
Q

AP108: What type of spatial disorientation is rarely experienced, but dangerous?

A

Type III - Incapacitating

181
Q

AP108: List the 4 sensory systems enabling you to maintain orientation, equilibrium, and balance.

A

Visual, Vestibular, Auditory, Somatosensory

182
Q

AP108: The system primarily used for orientation is the __________ system. In the absence of __________ cues, the __________ system becomes dominant.

A

visual, visual, vestibular

183
Q

AP108: The primary means the visual system uses to collect orientation cues is __________

A

peripheral vision

184
Q

AP108: The vestibular system’s two subsystems are the __________ and the __________.

A

semicircular canals; otolith organs

185
Q

AP108: The __________ detect angular accelerations and are responsible for __________ illusions.

A

semicircular canal; somatogyral

186
Q

AP108: The __________ detect linear accelerations and are responsible for __________ illusions.

A

otolith organs; somatogravic

187
Q

AP108: The __________ system is useless as an orientation system in the absence of accurate visual cues

A

somatosensory

188
Q

AP108: What is the Leans? What kind of illusion is it?

A

Somatogyral
Set up by a roll rate below the threshold of 0.14°/sec2 to 0.5°/sec2 and then correcting with a roll in the opposite direction at a roll rate greater than the threshold.

189
Q

AP108: What is the Graveyard Spin? What kind of illusion is it?

A

Somatogyral
Results when you correct for a spin or spiral and sense you have entered a spin in the opposite direction or are turning in the opposite direction

190
Q

AP108: What is the Coriolis Illusion? What kind of illusion is it?

A

Somatogyral
Results when you move your head out of a plane of motion and perceive a tumbling sensation.

191
Q

AP108: Somatogravic illusions result from the stimulation of which organs?

A

Otolith organs

192
Q

AP108: The __________ occurs when the aircraft is in a turn, and you are head-up looking towards the inside of the turn or head-down looking towards the outside of the turn.

A

G-excess effect

193
Q

AP108: The interconnection of the vestibular system with the visual system causes __________: a reflexive response of the eyes to stimulation of the semicircular or otolith organs.

A

nystagmus

194
Q

AP108: (True/False) Like all other vestibular illusions, the pitch-up illusion is increased when external visual cues are limited or absent.

A

True

195
Q

AP108: Identify whether the following statements refer to (A) environmental or (B) physiological factors influencing susceptibility to spatial disorientation.
a. Factors you have little or no control over
b. Mental and physical fatigue
c. Alcohol and self-medication
d. You have some control over
e. Flight weather
f. Type and duration of mission

A

a. Environmental
b. Physiological
c. Physiological
d. Physiological
e. Environmental
f. Environmental

196
Q

AP108: List three methods you can use to prevent or minimize the threat of spatial disorientation.

A

Understand limitations
Remedy correctable factors
Use capabilities properly
Recognize high-risk situations
Stay alert!

197
Q

AP108: List four techniques you can use to overcome spatial disorientation.

A

Transition to instruments
Believe the instruments
Back up the pilot flying on instruments
Minimize head movements
Fly straight and level
Be prepared to transfer/assume control
Egress

198
Q

AP108: (True/False) Motion sickness increases if good outside visual references exist.

A

False

199
Q

What systems work together to tell you where you are in relation to your environment?

A

Visual, vestibular, and somatosensory

200
Q

Somatogyral illusions are caused by the stimulation of the semicircular canals due to?

A

Angular acceleration

201
Q

What measures angular acceleration caused when the head is turned or tilted?

A

Semicircular canals

202
Q

What senses linear acceleration?

A

Otolith Organs

203
Q

What is the Giant-Hand phenomenon?

A

The giant-hand phenomenon is a subconscious reflex behavior, generated by vestibular inputs interfering with your conscious control of the aircraft. The giant-hand phenomenon occurs when the vestibular stimulus is so strong that you cannot physically overcome the sensation of an opposite bank or roll.

204
Q

How would you overcome the Giant-Hand phenomenon?

A

To overcome this illusion, you should momentarily remove your hand from the aircraft controls to interrupt the reflex response from the illusion.

205
Q

What is the difference between the Coriolis illusion and the G-Excess effect?

A

Coriolis: Somatogyral illusion. Occurs when two or more of the semicircular canals are stimulated and the crewmember moves their head out of the plane of motion

G-Excess effect: Somatogravic illusion. Occurs when the aircraft is in a turn and you are looking outside the aircraft with your head up, towards the inside of the turn, or head-down looking towards the outside of the turn. The sensation perceived is a decrease in the bank angle. As a result, you perceive you are not banked as much as you should be, and you increase the bank; the nose of the aircraft begins to drop below the horizon and the aircraft loses altitude

206
Q

The potential for SD is greatest for _____ flights during night or weather conditions.

A

formation

207
Q

One of the most important tools available to prevent motion sickness is your ability to eliminate or minimize?

A

Self-imposed stress

208
Q

How is motion sickness usually resolved?

A

Acquiring a good outside visual reference will usually remove the symptoms.

209
Q

The ____ system is the primary mode of orientation. However, when the visual cues are removed (instrument flight conditions), the _____ system becomes the primary source of orientation information. Unfortunately, in-flight, the vestibular system and somatosensory system are not only powerful but also ______.

A

visual, vestibular, untrustworthy

210
Q

AP110: Noise is _____

A

unwanted sound

211
Q

AP110: The primary characteristics of noise concerning crewmembers are __________, __________, and __________.

A

frequency, intensity, and duration

212
Q

AP110: The number of times (each second) compression and rarification of air occurs is __________.

A

frequency (measured in Hertz)

213
Q

AP110: Noise (sound) intensity perceived by the human ear is measured in __________.

A

decibels

214
Q

AP110: The two types of hearing loss you can suffer are __________ hearing loss and __________ hearing loss.

A

conductive; sensorineural

215
Q

AP110: Crewmembers on the flightline are being exposed to 97 dB of noise. Their time of maximum unprotected exposure to this noise before they must leave is __________ minutes.

A

30

216
Q

AP110: What is the most practical method of noise protection for you?

A

Combination of protective devices

217
Q

AP110: Select the statements describing vibration. (Select all that apply)
a. Approximate range hazardous to humans is 1 to 100 Hz.
b. Relaxes the crewmember.
c. Occurs throughout the frequency spectrum.
d. Midfrequency and intensity are of most concern.

A

a. Approximate range hazardous to humans is 1 to 100 Hz.
c. Occurs throughout the frequency spectrum.

218
Q

AP110: Select the effects of severe vibration on crewmember performance. (Select all that apply)
a. Low frequency vibrations can significantly impair horizontal tracking, increasing tracking error by up to 40
percent.
b. Vibration reduces reaction time for those events/tasks executed at the conscious level.
c. Vibration can cause blurred vision and degrade visual acuity.
d. Vibration is a major contributor to fatigue.

A

c. Vibration can cause blurred vision and degrade visual acuity.
d. Vibration is a major contributor to fatigue.

219
Q

Noise is _____ sound. The characteristics of noise of concern to you are _____ and _____ of the noise, _____ of exposure to the noise.

A

unwanted; frequency, intensity, and duration

220
Q

Sound waves are created by the alternate compression and rarefication of air, above and below atmospheric pressure respectively. The number of times each second that these oscillations occur is referred to as the?

A

Frequency

221
Q

The human ear is normally receptive to frequencies between 20 and 20,000 Hz. This is referred to as the _____

A

audible range

222
Q

Does different frequencies (broad band) or single-frequency (narrow band) cause more damage to the crew member’s hearing?

A

In environments where there is narrow band, high intensity noise, more damage occurs to the crewmember’s hearing.

223
Q

The magnitude of an acoustic event and measure of pressure of sound waves in the ear canal is called? What is this measured in?

A

Intensity (measured in decibels)

224
Q

What is the intensity threshold at which humans are susceptible to hearing loss?

A

85 dB

225
Q

The rule for figuring exposure times is for every 3 dB increase, the time of exposure is?

A

reduced by one-half

226
Q

The maximum allowable time unprotected exposure to 85 dB is ____ hours. If the noise intensity is increased to 88 dB, the allowable time of exposure is ____ hours.

A

8 hours
4 hours

227
Q

For one to perceive and identify sound, the signal must be converted from the ____ energy of sound waves to ____ energy

A

mechanical, electrical

228
Q

Occurs when one of the parts of the ear that is designed to transmit mechanical energy fails. (ex. ruptured eardrum)

A

Conductive Hearing loss

229
Q

Occurs when the hair cells of the cochlea are damaged, destroyed, or degenerated due to overexposure to noise.

A

Sensorineural Hearing Loss

230
Q

What is the difference between a temporary threshold shift and a permanent threshold shift?

A

Both of these are types of Sensorineural Hearing Loss
1. Temporary threshold shift — A nonpermanent loss of hearing in a frequency or range of frequencies after exposure to loud noise.
2. Permanent threshold shift — Occurs when the cochlea’s ability to convert a certain frequency or frequencies to electrical signals is lost because of hair cell damage

231
Q

How do earplugs work? Is communication in the voice range disrupted or degraded when using earplugs?

A

They protect your hearing by lowering the intensity of noise reaching the cochlea and by filtering the high frequencies. Communication in the voice range is not disrupted or degraded when using earplugs

232
Q

The major categories of earplugs are formable and molded plastic. Which should crewmembers use?

A

Formable earplugs should be worn

Molded earplugs provide an airtight seal in the external ear canal and can prevent equalization of pressure during descent. Therefore, they should not be used underneath a flight helmet.

233
Q

What is the most practical hearing protection to crewmembers?

A

Combination of Protective Devices

234
Q

What kind of vibrations are of most concern?

A

Vibration of very low frequency and high intensity are of most concern

235
Q

What negative effects does vibration have on performance? (4)

A

Vertical tracking is impaired by up to 40%
Subconscious reaction time
Visual Impairment
Fatigue

236
Q

AP111: An F-15E crew is on takeoff roll. They accelerate to 165 KIAS in 10 seconds. They experience __________ acceleration and __________ G forces.

A

linear; Transverse

237
Q

AP111: An F-18 rolls into a dive toward a target, releases weapons, and begins a pullout. He is climbing, turning, and increasing speed from 360 KIAS to 450 KIAS. This time the pilot experiences __________ acceleration.

A

Angular

238
Q

AP111: A positive Gz force is defined as the force being applied from the __________ toward the __________.

A

Head toward the feet

239
Q

AP111: Define negative Gz force

A

Force acting from feet toward the head

240
Q

AP111: An aircrew is having problems figuring out the attitude of their aircraft. As the pilot makes a control input, the crew experiences congestion in their heads and lightweight feeling. What type of G force causes these symptoms?

A

Negative

241
Q

AP111: List the 5 factors determining the physical effects of G forces

A
  1. Magnitude
  2. Rate
  3. Duration
  4. Direction
  5. Previous Exposure
    (RMEDD)
242
Q

AP111: Why would it be unadvisable to give aircraft control back to a crewmember immediately after recovering consciousness after a G-LOC incident?

A

G-LOC victims may be disoriented for some time after regaining consciousness

243
Q

AP111: During a dual T-6A sortie, a student pulls 5 Gs in less than a second and experiences a G-LOC. When questioned by an Aerospace Physiology member about symptoms, the student said grayout or blackout did not occur prior to the G-LOC. Why would the student not experience any visual cues prior to G-LOC?

A

Rapid G-onset rate gives little or no visual warning prior to G-LOC

244
Q

AP111: The elements of the AGSM are
a. __________ tensing
b. __________ breathing

A

Skeletal muscle
cyclic

245
Q

AP111: The most common cause of G-LOC is an improperly performed AGSM. What do the most common errors involve?
a. breathing __________
b. __________ of the strain
c. Insufficient __________ body muscle __________.

A

a. breathing cycle
b. timing; strain
c. lower body; tensing

246
Q

AP111: (True/False) A properly performed AGSM can increase your +Gz tolerance by as much as 4 Gs.

A

True

247
Q

AP111: Differentiate between blackout and G-LOC.

A

G-LOC results in unconsciousness whereas blackout results in vision loss only

248
Q

AP111: (True/False) You can decrease your overall G tolerance by not eating properly and/or getting insufficient rest.

A

True

249
Q

AP111: Determine if the following effects of acceleration are caused by (A) +Gz or (B) -Gz.
a. Visual loss (grayout)
b. Headache
c. Mental confusion
d. Blood pooling in lower extremities
e. Extreme feeling of congestion in the head
f. Feeling of increased weight with resultant loss of mobility
g. Blackout and possible unconsciousness

A

a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Negative
d. Positive
e. Negative
f. Positive
g. Positive

250
Q

What are the 3 types of acceleration?

A

Linear: change in speed (increase or decrease) without a change in direction
Radial: change in direction without a change in speed
Angular: simultaneous change in both speed and direction

251
Q

When does each of the 3 types of acceleration usually happen?

A

Linear: takeoff, landing, throttle changes in level flight
Radial: pulls out of a dive, pushes over into a dive, or performs an inside or outside turn (and does not change its speed)
Angular: most aerial maneuvers

252
Q

What are Transverse G Forces?

A

The force applied to the front (+Gx) or back (-Gx) of the body. +Gx and -Gx forces are normally encountered during takeoffs, acceleration in level flight, and landing

253
Q

What are Negative G Forces?

A

Defined as the force being applied from the feet towards the head and is expressed as -Gz. Negative G force is not tolerated well by humans

254
Q

What are Positive G Forces?

A

A force applied from the head towards the feet. It is expressed as +Gz. It occurs during turns and dive recoveries and is the G force most often experienced by crewmembers.

255
Q

What are the physical symptoms of -Gz?

A

sense of weightlessness, congestion in the head and face, headache and visual blurring (possible redout)

256
Q

How do you counteract the effects of -Gz?

A

There is no practical method to counteract the effects of -Gz. Under normal conditions, the only way to combat the effects of -Gz is to reduce aircraft maneuvering and return to a 1 G environment.

257
Q

What is the average resting tolerance to +Gz forces?

A

5.5 G

258
Q

What are the five physical considerations determining the effects of G forces?

A

Rate of Application
Magnitude
Exposure previously
Direction
Duration
(RMEDD)

259
Q

What is the Push-Pull Effect (PPE) and what does it have to do with G tolerance?

A

The Push-Pull Effect (PPE) is a phenomenon of reduced +Gz tolerance when preceded by exposure to Gz that is less than +1 Gz. It is thought that the less than +1Gz exposure causes a cardiovascular relaxation which can affect subsequent +Gz tolerance. -Gz exposure for a duration of less than 2 seconds can significantly affect +Gz tolerance, possibly reducing tolerance by up to 1.5 Gs

260
Q

What 4 ways does exposure to G forces affect the body?

A

Restricting mobility
Affecting the cardiovascular system
Stimulating the vestibular system
Reducing visual acuity

261
Q

What is the most common cause of G-LOC?

A

an improperly performed AGSM

262
Q

AP112: What is the undesirable side effect of decongestants?

A

Shakiness, increased heart rate, blurred vision, increased dehydration, dizziness, nausea, headaches

263
Q

AP112: What is the undesirable side effect of antihistamines?

A

Drowsiness, diminished alertness, increased reaction times

264
Q

AP112: What is the undesirable side effect of vasoconstrictors?

A

Dizziness, blurred vision, tremors, headaches

265
Q

AP112: What is the undesirable side effect of pain killers?

A

Stomach irritation, dizziness, skin rashes, heartburn, blurred vision

266
Q

AP112: What is the undesirable side effect of diet pills?

A

Nervousness, tremors, increased blood pressure and heart rate, dehydration due to increased sweating, sleep disturbances

267
Q

AP112: Air Force policy does not allow crewmembers to fly within __________ hours after consuming alcoholic beverages. Furthermore, you must not act as a crewmember of an aircraft while under the influence of alcohol or its __________.

A

12 hours
aftereffects

268
Q

AP112: What is the best way to avoid the effects alcohol has on your performance as a crewmember?
a. Do not fly within 24 hours after consuming alcoholic beverages.
b. Drink only beer; it has lower alcohol content.
c. Practice abstinence.
d. Eat plenty of food before you drink alcohol and drink plenty of coffee the next day.

A

c. Practice abstinence

269
Q

AP112: What is the immediate danger of carbon monoxide from cigarette smoke?
a. It inhibits the body’s ability to remove nitrogen during denitrogenation.
b. It inhibits the blood’s oxygen carrying capacity.
c. It increases your chance of mouth and gum cancer.
d. It acts as a depressant on the central nervous system.

A

b. It inhibits the blood’s oxygen carrying capacity

270
Q

AP112: Bagels, pretzels, granola bars, fresh fruits, vegetables, etc. are recommended snacks containing complex carbohydrates. What is the advantage of these foods over a coke and a candy bar?

A

More even distribution of glucose (Avoids hypoglycemia)

271
Q

AP112: List five signs and symptoms of dehydration

A

Thirst
Sleepiness
Nausea
Mental impairment
Fatigue

272
Q

AP112: (True/False) Chronic fatigue is caused by the normal daily activities of a crewmember and is remedied with a good night’s sleep and rest.

A

False

273
Q

AP112: Caffeinated beverages can increase your dehydration rate. As a result, your __________ and __________ fatigue increases and your __________ decreases as you become dehydrated.

A

mental; physical; performance

274
Q

AP112: Identify four methods of combating stress in the flying environment.

A

Place demands into perspective
Maintain a healthy diversity in your life
Eliminate self-imposed stress
Exercise

275
Q

_____ stresses result from actions taken by the crewmember. They can include the use of OTC drugs, caffeine, alcohol, or tobacco. Self-imposed stresses also include nutrition, physical condition, and life-style.

A

Self-imposed

276
Q

Primary Effect of each type of drug is the?

A

desired (intended) effect of the drug
Ex. The primary effect of a decongestant is to dry up the nasal passages and sinuses.

277
Q

Side Effects are those effects

A

known to accompany a drug but are additional to its desired effect
Ex. the person who takes a decongestant to clear up their sinuses may also experience the side effects of increased heart rate and blurred vision.

278
Q

Synergistic Effects occur when

A

the primary or side effect of a drug is modified in function or intensity when taken in combination with another drug.
Ex. combining a decongestant with caffeine increases the stimulant effect above the normally expected level

279
Q

Idiosyncratic Effects

A

those effects on an individual that are unusual and unexpected

280
Q

What is the primary effect of decongestants and what are the side effects?

A

stimulant
shrink inflamed mucous membranes

Side effects:
shakiness, increased heart rate, blurred vision, increased dehydration, dizziness, nausea, and headaches

281
Q

What is the primary effect of antihistamines and what are the side effects?

A

depressant
used to reduce nasal congestion (by blocking histamine)

Side effects:
Drowsiness, diminished alertness and increased reaction times

282
Q

What is the primary effect of vasocontrictors and what are the side effects?

A

topical drugs sprayed in the nose
constricts blood vessels in the nose and sinuses

Side effects:
Dizziness, blurred vision, tremors, and headaches
Also, the nasal tissues can become addicted to the drug

283
Q

What is the primary effect of Pain Killers (Analgesics) and what are the side effects?

A

Aspirin and acetaminophen can relieve mild pain or headache

Side effects:
Stomach irritation
Ibuprofen -> dizziness, skin rash, heart burn, GI disturbances

284
Q

What is the primary effect of diet pills and what are the side effects?

A

Side effects:
nervousness, tremors, increased blood pressure and heart rate, dehydration due to increased sweating, and sleep disturbances

285
Q

“Aircrew members will not fly if any alcohol is consumed within ___ hours prior to takeoff (or assuming aircraft control for UAS) or if impaired by alcohol or any other intoxicating substance, to include the effects or _____.”

A

12 hours
after-effects

286
Q

The best method to avoid the dilemma of suffering a hangover and the residual effects of alcohol is

A

abstinence

287
Q

What is hypoglycemia? What is commonly caused by?

A

when the glycogen stores in the liver are depleted and there is not enough glucose in the blood stream. Hypoglycemia means “low blood sugar”

Skipping meals or eating simple sugars

288
Q

What byproduct of tobacco smoke can raise the body’s physiological altitude anywhere from 2,000 to 7,000 feet?

A

Carbon Monoxide

289
Q

Why is dehydration even more devastating in a cockpit?

A

In an aircraft, the cockpit air is frequently 5 to 10 percent relative humidity, causing water loss as you breathe.

290
Q

What are the 3 fatigue categories?

A

Acute, Cumulative, and Chronic

291
Q

What is acute fatigue?

A

short-term fatigue caused by the normal daily activities of the crewmember or an extended duty day or an “all-nighter.” It’s remedied with a good night’s sleep.

292
Q

What is cumulative fatigue?

A

Cumulative fatigue builds up across several waking and duty periods when there is inadequate sleep or recovery between the duty periods. Recovery from cumulative fatigue cannot be accomplished in one good-quality, nocturnal sleep period.

293
Q

What is chronic fatigue?

A

long-term fatigue

294
Q

The main effect of fatigue is?

A

a progressive withdrawal of attention

295
Q

What is sleep latency?

A

The amount of time is takes you to fall asleep
A normal time is 10-15 minutes

296
Q

What are the 2 types of circadian rhythm problems?

A

Sleep cycle disruptions and circadian desynchronization

297
Q

What is sleep cycle disruptions?

A

occur when you must fly during hours you would normally be sleeping

298
Q

What is circadian rhythm desynchronization?

A

Occurs when you cross time zones (transmeridian travel). This problem is commonly known as “jet lag.” Physiologically, the body requires 24 hours to completely recover from every one hour shift in time zone.

299
Q

The body ha an easier time adjusting to ____ travel

A

westbound

300
Q

Caffeine does what?

A

masks feeling of fatigue
(it does NOT give you “energy”)

301
Q

Caffeine has _____ effects when used in combination with other drugs

A

synergistic

302
Q

What is stress overload?

A

In overload the demands are such as to exceed
the individual’s ability to meet them.
This includes: Role conflict, quantitative overload, and qualitative overload

303
Q

Can underload also cause stress?

A

Yes

304
Q

AP113: Determine if the following characteristics refer to (A) high pressure gas, (B) low pressure gaseous oxygen storage systems, or (C) on board oxygen generating systems (OBOGS)

  1. Full pressure is 1,800 - 2,000 psi
  2. Full pressure is 400 - 450 psi
  3. Unlimited oxygen duration
  4. Green cylinders
  5. Yellow cylinders
  6. Oxygen source is bleed air
  7. Empty pressure is 100 psi
  8. Empty pressure is 200 psi
A
  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. A
  5. B
  6. C
  7. B
  8. A
305
Q

AP113: Match the components to the picture
a. Maximum concentration light
b. Supply lever
c. Concentration lever
d. Flow indicator
e. Pressure lever

A

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 1
e. 5

306
Q

AP113: Match the components
a. Hardshell Assembly
b. Delivery Tube (mask hose)
c. 3-pin Connector
d. Faceform
e. Microphone Assembly
f. Communication Cord Assembly
g. Oxygen Mask Retention Bayonets
h. Inhalation Valve
i. Exhalation Valve

A

a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 9
e. 8
f. 6
g. 2
h. 4
i. 7

307
Q

AP113: Place the appropriate letter of the RICE check next to its corresponding correct statement.
a. _____ Check the emergency oxygen assembly for pressure.
b. _____ Check for neoprene O-ring (rubber washer).
c. _____ Concentration lever to “MAX” and check flow indicator.
d. _____ Check supply lever — “ON.”
e. _____ Check proper connection of the mask hose to the CRU-60/P.
f. _____ Check regulator hose for wear, tear, and deterioration.
g. _____ If the flow indicator is white while holding your breath with the emergency lever in the “EMERGENCY” position, either the mask or the aircraft oxygen system is leaking.

A

a. E
b. C
c. I
d. R
e. C
f. C
g. R

308
Q

AP113: List five “Do’s” and “Don’ts” for proper care of the oxygen mask and helmet.
“Do’s”
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
“Don’ts”
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

A

Do’s
- Have the life support section
- Inspect and test the mask for operation before leaving the life support section
- Clean the mask at the end of each flying day. Use cleaning solution and gauze pad to wipe interior of the mask
faceform to remove perspiration, facial oils, and foreign matter (required by AETCI11-301).
- Check the helmet prior to each flight for overall condition. Check security of chin and nape straps, visor lens
for cracks and scratches, cleanliness and operation of lens, attachment of communication of connectors, and
operation of communication connectors.
- Check the mask and helmet daily for wear and tear. Have items replaced as necessary.
- Check the bayonet connectors and ensure that the locking pins operate freely.
- Whenever possible, transport the helmet assembly in a helmet bag. When unable to carry the assembly in a
helmet bag, carry the helmet and mask by the chinstrap like a bucket.
- Have the life support section inspect your helmet any time it is dropped or cracked.

Don’ts
- Don’t paint the helmet. Mark only as directed by applicable technical orders.
- Don’t carry the helmet by the intercom cord or mask.
- Don’t allow the helmet to strike objects that would damage the protective surface.
- Don’t disassemble the mask. This requires special tools and should be done only by qualified life support
personnel.
- Don’t modify or alter the mask.
- Don’t store the helmet/mask in direct sunlight or hot environments for lengthy periods of time, or in the aircraft
when off station.
- Don’t allow sharp objects to come in contact with the mask because any puncture could damage the mask - Don’t use pencils, pens, or sharp objects to loosen troublesome or sticking valves.
- Don’t loan equipment. It was fitted and intended for personal use only.

309
Q
  1. Place an “X” in the box of each statement below that describes the purpose, duration, and/or operation of a high- pressure gaseous emergency oxygen system.
    a. _____ It has a duration of approximately 3 to 5 minutes.
    b. _____ Normally provides a 10-minute supply of oxygen.
    c. _____ It has a duration of approximately 12 to 15 minutes.
    d. _____ The oxygen flow can be shut off.
    e. _____ The oxygen flow cannot be stopped once it has been activated.
    f. _____ It delivers 100% oxygen on demand.
    g. _____ It delivers 100% oxygen continuously.
    h. _____ It is activated automatically on ejection.
    i. _____ It may be activated in the event of oxygen system failure.
    j. _____ It may only be activated prior to ejection.
A

b, e, g, h, i

310
Q

In the event of OBOGS system failure, the _____ will provide a limited supply of oxygen (approximately one breath)

A

plenum

311
Q

_______ breathing is necessary to increase the lung pressure above the atmospheric pressure.

A

Positive pressure

312
Q

The OBOGS, utilized by the T-6, provides each pilot with an _____ supply of regulated oxygen if the engine is operating normally.

A

unlimited

313
Q

Low pressure oxygen is stored in ____ cylinders

A

yellow

314
Q

High pressure systems are color coded ____

A

green

315
Q

Approximately ___ to ___ minutes oxygen is available for emergency use

A

8 to 10 minutes

316
Q

What helmet do Air Force aircrews use?

A

HGU-55/P

317
Q

The CRU-60/P is an ___-way oxygen mask-to-regulator. Providing connection sites for?

A

Three
Regulator hose, mask connector, and the emergency oxygen cylinder hose

318
Q

Human factors is?

A

the relationship between people and their activities

319
Q

Majority of flying operations take place in what atmospheric level?

A

Troposphere

320
Q

What color is the respirator blinker when inhaling? What about when exhaling/holding breath?

A

White on inhale
Black on exhale/breath hold
(Black for seal)

321
Q

What does the anti-suffocation valve do?

A

Makes breathing difficult but keeps you from suffocating

322
Q

How can you differentiate between DCS and hypoxia?

A

DCS is painful and typically affects one side of the body more

323
Q

Where does DCS risk begin at?

A

FL180

324
Q

Isobaric differential systems usually have a ___ psi difference?

A

5 psi

325
Q

Isobaric systems typically have a ___ psi difference?

A

8-9 psi

326
Q

What document requires oxygen to be worn above 10,000 feet?

A

AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3

327
Q

What determines the time a decompression event takes?

A

The pressure RATIO

328
Q

What natural chemical helps you see at night?

A

Rhodopsin

329
Q

What is the Purkinje shift?

A

A color shift with mesopic vision

330
Q

“Ambient” vision is the same as?

A

Peripheral vision

331
Q

What is the altitude for controlled election? What about uncontrolled?

A

2,000 AGL
6,000 AGL

332
Q

What airspeed is recommended for ejection?

A

125-180 KIAS

333
Q

What nude weight is required for ejection seat?

A

103-245 pounds

334
Q

When does the ejection seat chute open automatically?

A

Below 8,000 ft MSL

335
Q

What limits the ejection seat from opening between 8,000 and 16,000 feet?

A

G-limit of 3.4

336
Q

Above 16,000 feet MSL, what is required to open the ejection seat chute?

A

the MOR handle

337
Q

How does the different ISS selections change the ejection process?

A

CMD FWD: FCP pulls - both seats
RCP pulls - only the rear seat
SOLO: whoever pulls goes
BOTH: both seats go with a 0.37s delay

338
Q

What is the memory aid for egress?

A

IPPCUP

339
Q

What is orientation?

A

the correct perception of environment

340
Q

Is motion sickness a disorder?

A

No. It’s a normal feeling to abnormal stimulus

341
Q

What kind of tracking does vibration impair?

A

Vertical tracking

342
Q

High pressure oxygen

A

Green bottle, 8–10 minutes, 1800-2000 psi, 200 psi empty

343
Q

Low pressure oxygen

A

Yellow bottle, 400-500 psi…?

344
Q

Regulator concentration of oxygen for normal and max?

A

Normal: 93%
Max: 95%

345
Q

How long should the AGSM breathing cycles be?

A

3 seconds

Airplane Stuff (16 decks)

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