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Airplane Stuff > 14OG Sup > Flashcards

14OG Sup Flashcards

1
Q

On syllabus sorties, students are responsible for providing a mission plan to include

A

weather, NOTAMs, TOLD data, ORM and a profile to complete syllabus directed maneuvers

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2
Q

On runway 13R, aircrews will be considered clear of the runway after taxiing past

A

the hold short line on taxiway Echo

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3
Q

If the unway condition as “standing water” due to patchy standing water (ponding), the SOF may allow T-6 aircraft to use the wet runway crosswind limitation of 10 knots provided that

A

the ponding condition is only occurring on the outside quarters of the runway

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4
Q

RNAV substitution (is/is not) allowed for an out of service VOR

A

is NOT allowed

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5
Q

Where are T-6 uncontrolled operations authorized?

A

Golden Triangle Regional Airport (KGTR) and Tuscaloosa National Airport (KTCL) to include landings and/or touch and goes. Night overhead and closed patterns are not authorized at these locations.

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6
Q

When are uncontrolled touch and go operations at Gunshy approved?

A

when the fire department is in place

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7
Q

Where can you fly instrument approaches into uncontrolled fields?

A

Instrument approaches will only be flown at airfields where Columbus AFB is listed as the OPR for the LOA

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8
Q

What does “Dual” mean?

A

Dual is an instructor pilot (IP) with or without a student pilot (SP)

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9
Q

Local flying is defined as

A

an aircraft that takes off from CAFB and
plans to land at CAFB or the auxiliary airfield

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10
Q

Missions that originate or terminate at locations other than CAFB or local sorties which do not utilize a stereo flight plan, will use a

A

DD Form 1801

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11
Q

Chock time is always

A

1+45 after scheduled takeoff time

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12
Q

Columbus Tower limits traffic patterns to a maximum of __ per sortie

A

3 patterns

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13
Q

What is the most amount of aircraft in a tower-controlled pattern?

A

5 aircraft

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14
Q

Do not start the engine if?

A

the adjacent aircraft is being serviced with fuel or oxygen

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15
Q

What are the local sortie tire limit criteria?

A

Do not accept an aircraft if red cord is visible on either main gear tire and/or the nose gear tire is worn to the bottom of the tread groove

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16
Q

What are the out-and-back/cross-country tire limit criteria?

A

Do not accept an aircraft if any cords are visible on the main gear tire and/or the nose gear tire has insufficient tread grooves for the time off station

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17
Q

After aircraft servicing/maintenance, accomplish?

A

Another preflight of all affected areas

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18
Q

If planning to depart from a runway other than the inside one, aircrew will

A

advise clearance delivery of their intentions

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19
Q

On VFR pattern-only sorties, which do not require an IFR clearance, the aircrew will state

A

“Pattern Only” to Ground Control on taxi request

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20
Q

At Columbus AFB, during taxi operations all T-6 aircraft will set transponder to

A

Standby

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21
Q

Who has taxiing priority at Columbus?

A

Aircraft taxiing out have priority

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22
Q

Delay the brake check on taxi until

A

the wings are clear of the sun shelters

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23
Q

Do not taxi an aircraft within __ feet of obstructions without wing walkers. What is a good reference for this?

A

25 feet; visually align the wingtip at the base of the obstruction to estimate 25 feet wingtip clearance in the T-6

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24
Q

Do not taxi aircraft closer than __ feet to any obstruction. Do not taxi into a spot unless

A

10 feet; unless a marshaller is present

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25
Q

When taxiing after sunset, aircrews will taxi into parking spots only when a marshaller is using

A

two self-illuminating wands to direct the taxi

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26
Q

Where must aircraft taxi on centerline?

A

All aircraft will taxi on the yellow lines on Taxiways C, G, and on all parking ramps. Formations may stagger on Taxiway A. All others will taxi on centerline.

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27
Q

How much space do taxi lines located in the north and south center runway hammerheads (Taxiways F and A1) provide?

A

at least 10 feet for T-38, T-6, and T-1 aircraft

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28
Q

Aircraft will ___ when holding short. How far behind other aircraft?

A

offset (gouge: roughly a 1/2 ship length)

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29
Q

Aircraft entering the run-up area will not taxi

A

behind aircraft already established in the run-up area. Aircrew will only accomplish pin removal and the Overspeed Governor check in an established run-up spot

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30
Q

Change to ____ when turning onto Taxiway L (RWY 13R) and Taxiway J (RWY 31L) prior to takeoff.

A

Sunfish (Ch.2) or Tower (Ch.3)

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31
Q

T-6 solo students will ___ to install the seat pin

A

come to a complete stop

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32
Q

Where is the mode C veil for Columbus? Aircraft should remain IFR to the max extent practical when outside of this DME

A

20 DME; Once inside of 20 DME, Class-C services (vectors/altitudes/separation) are provided for VFR aircraft.

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33
Q

Squawk ___ in the Sunfish VFR pattern. At Gunshy, squawk ___. Squawk ___ entering GTr at point “Vegas” or when operating with tower following an instrument approach. When returning VFR from GTR to Sunfish, squawk ____.

A

0000 Sunfish
1200 Gunshy
0200 Vegas
0300 Racetrack

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34
Q

Sunfish airspace extends from ___ to ____ along the __ DME arc to the south of runway 13R/31L, but excludes airspace __ NM past the departure end

A

Surface to 3,500’ MSL along the 7 DME arc, but excludes airspace 3 NM past the departure end

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35
Q

The overhead pattern is flown at ____ ‘ and ____ KIAS

A

1200’ and 200 KIAS

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36
Q

The Cold side of the runway is the ___ side of the runway

A

Ramp

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37
Q

The Hot side of the runway is the ____ side of the runway

A

RSU

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38
Q

What will be done on the hot side?

A

Initial takeoffs and initial takeoffs

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39
Q

What will be done on the cold side?

A

Full stops

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40
Q

If there is a touch and go in front of you, they should be ____ before you touch down

A

Airborne

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41
Q

If there is a full stop on the hot side in front of you, you should

A

go around if they do not transition to the cold side and are not at least 3,000 feet before you touch down

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42
Q

If the cold side is already occupied by a previous full stop and you want to full stop?

A

Land on the hot side with 3,000 feet separation. Then, transition to the cold side at a safe airspeed (it is not necessary to wait until 3,000 feet down to transition)

43
Q

Aircraft will not ____ in formation

A

Land

44
Q

What are the pattern priorities?

A

Emergency aircraft, Minimum fuel, NORDO, Formation, Aircraft established in the pattern, Single ship radar entires, Single ship VFR entires

45
Q

Pilots should limit the requests for ____ approaches at Sunfish based upon pattern saturation and training requirements

A

straight-in

46
Q

Pilots may request straight-ins from:

A

Marble, Crossroad, VFR entry, or outside downwind abeam VFR entry

47
Q

An aircraft at Marble or Crossroad requesting a straight-in will not normally be approved with?

A

A pattern straight-in maneuvering to 5 miles

48
Q

If there is no response from the RSU at “Five Miles”?

A

Query the RSU with actual distance from the runway. If no response by the 3-mile point, breakout and proceed to VFR entry at 700’ MSL

49
Q

Pilots shall request a straight-in over “Crossroad.” If approved, the pilot may descend to 700’ MSL after?

A

Mailbox. Be at 700’ MSL by the 5-mile point

50
Q

When should pilots descend to 700’ MSL and proceed to 5 miles when getting approved a straight-in from outside downwind?

A

At the 90-to-initial point

51
Q

Pilots shall not normally request a pattern straight-in if the status is?

A

Restricted Overhead

52
Q

Single ship aircraft will make a ___ degree turn to Radar Initial from the 90- to-Radar Initial ground track before turning to Radar Initial.

A

45 degree turn

53
Q

When should pilots report “Radar Initial?”

A

when wings level on initial after entering the overhead pattern from the radar termination point.

54
Q

All aircraft will report “Initial” at __ NM

A

2 NM

55
Q

Pilots established on initial will not break with: (4)

A

-A conflict on high/inside downwind
-A straight-in between 5 and 2 miles (unless they are told to breakout at 3 and have acknowledged)
-An aircraft between “report high key” and lowkey
-An aircraft orbiting at High Key

56
Q

If required to carry straight through for a conflict?

A

At the end of the break zone call “Break point straight through”

57
Q

Pilots (will/will not) request a late break

A

will NOT

58
Q

Aircrew will not commence the final turn if break or closed clearance was given with?

A

An aircraft between 5 and 2 miles on a straight-in

59
Q

When a pilot reports, or the RSU directs a “Low Approach, Acknowledge”

A

Continue the final turn/descent out of lowkey and initiate a go-around so that the aircraft does not touch down.
Acknowledge the RSU with “Callsign”

60
Q

When the RSU directs a “Restricted Low Approach, Acknowledge”

A

Continue the final turn/descent out of low key but descend no lower than 500’ AGL
Acknowledge the RSU with “Callsign”

61
Q

On any go-around, low approach, or restricted low approach, do not climb above 500’ AGL (700’ MSL) until?

A

Cleared closed, low key, report one minute, turning crosswind, or cleared for departure

62
Q

When will pilots offset the runway? (3)

A

-Directed by the RSU
-Aircraft in the departure position of the runway
-A potential conflict on departure leg exists

63
Q

If a conflict is developing with a departure leg aircraft and the offsetting aircraft has not been instructed to “OFFSET, MAINTAIN RUNWAY HEADING,” the offsetting aircraft will

A

ensure it is clear of conflicts and turn crosswind at the departure end of the runway

64
Q

Normal offset ground track for go-arounds will be flown over

A

Taxiway A at 700’ MSL

65
Q

If executing a go-around from a straight-in, and a conflict exists with an aircraft in the final turn?

A

Aircraft shall offset north of the runway (between the inside and center runways) over the RSU

66
Q

The pilot will over-fly personnel or equipment on the runway at no less than

A

500’ AGL (another aircraft performing a full stop does not count)

67
Q

On takeoff leg or go-around, do not turn crosswind earlier than ____ and no later than ____. If given “STANDBY” by the RSU, turn crosswind NLT _____.

A

departure end of the runway
1/2 mile past the departure end

1 mile past the departure end of the runway

68
Q

If told to “MAINTAIN RUNWAY HEADING,”

A

aircraft will not turn until given specific clearance to do so. If undue delay is encountered, pilots should query the RSU

69
Q

Aircraft who are break point straight-through or offset will turn crosswind?

A

At the departure end of the runway, unless otherwise directed by the RSU

70
Q

When may pilots request closed?

A

After passing the runway midpoint (and 140 KIAS?)

71
Q

When should you not request closed? (5)

A
  1. Conflict on inside downwind
  2. Aircraft between 5 and 2 miles on a straight in
    (**Exception: allowed for practice breakouts or requesting closed to HK)
  3. Aircraft orbiting High Key
  4. Aircraft between “Report HK” and Low Key
  5. Aircraft between Initial and the break
72
Q

If you are in a position to request closed/Low Key/High Key and a potential conflict exists, continue straight ahead and initiate a turn to crosswind no later than

A

1-mile past the departure end of the runway

73
Q

When requesting closed and told to “STANDBY,” the pilot has the option of

A

turning crosswind no earlier than departure end of the runway or waiting for clearance.

74
Q

Pilots shall exercise extreme caution and clear aggressively for other aircraft that may be on

A

closed/high downwind or that may have been extended upwind prior to their turn to crosswind

75
Q

The ELP will be initiated from ____ or ____. The T-6 may make any type landing from this maneuver.

A

High Key or Low Key

76
Q

Pilots given “HIGH KEY ORBIT” will make a 360° turn and report High Key again. If required to orbit, maintain ____ KIAS and approximately ___° of bank. Upon reaching the High Key position again, the same procedure applies.

A

120-140 KIAS
30º of bank

77
Q

Upon reaching High Key, commence the ELP and report “C/S HIGH KEY.” If RSU clearance is not received by ____’ MSL aircrew will breakout.

A

2200’ MSL (Cross Key)

78
Q

If approved for “Closed, High Key,” when will you transit “C/S, One Minute”?

A

When reaching a point abeam the intended touchdown zone, the pilot will transmit “C/S, ONE MINUTE.”

79
Q

If low key is approved from departure leg, the aircraft will report “___” when established

A

“C/S HIGH DOWNWIND” when established on High Closed Downwind. At Low Key, the aircraft will transmit “C/S LOW KEY, GEAR DOWN.”

80
Q

Pattern Breakout. Initiate a climbing turn to ____’ MSL towards the VFR entry point. When the aircraft is over the vicinity of the VFR entry point, the pilot shall turn away from the runway, heading ___ degrees toward ____.

A

climbing turn to 2,200’ MSL
heading 220 degrees toward the first major 4-way intersection west of the bridge on Hwy 50

81
Q

Pattern Breakout. When the aircraft is at the 4-way intersection (approximately
__ DME), which way should the pilot turn?

A

4.5 DME
the pilot shall make a left (RWY 13) / right (RWY 31) turn towards the VFR entry point and descend/climb to pattern altitude

82
Q

Straight-in Breakout. Prior to the 3-mile point the pilot shall turn toward the VFR entry point and maintain ___’ MSL

A

700’ MSL

83
Q

Perch/Low Key Breakout. Climb straight ahead through ___’ MSL then turn toward VFR entry. Continue the climb to breakout altitude.

A

1700’ then to 2200’ (breakout altitude)

84
Q

VFR Pattern Re-entry. Aircraft shall be wings level at ___’ MSL on entry heading (~090° RWY 31L/~360° RWY 13R) ____ prior to the VFR entry point

A

1,200’ MSL
one mile prior

85
Q

Pattern delays are authorized. When holding number one, state “____”

A

“NUMBER ONE, PATTERN DELAY”

86
Q

When ready to depart the pattern, inform the RSU by adding “LAST PATTERN” to what calls? Why is this important?

A

Gear down, Closed requests, Initial, High-Key, and Five-miles
The RSU will sequence you and ensure 90 second radar separation from other aircraft leaving the pattern.

87
Q

Weather minimums for Gunshy to be open are ___ / __

A

2500 / 3

88
Q

What is the different status for Gunshy? (Closed, Unrestricted, Dual, NTA Touch and Go, and Standby)

A

CLOSED: no crew or fire department in place
UNRESTRICTED: solo students allowed
DUAL: no solo students
NTA TOUCH AND GO: fire department in place, but no RSU crew
STANDBY: Crew in place, closed

89
Q

What is the maximum aircraft in the Gunshy pattern?

A

6 with the RSU open and 4 uncontrolled

90
Q

Are HAPLs for training authorized into Gunshy?

A

Yes, when controlled (upon cancelling IFR, ensure prior coordination with controlling agencies to include Gunshy is made to deconflict with any traffic).

91
Q

Avoid R4404 (Searay Range). R4404 is an air-to-surface gunnery range defined by a 10-mile diameter circle with the center located at CBM 199/038, northwest of the field. Do not

A

break out or request High Key from 90 to radar initial when on Runway 31 to ensure aircraft remains clear

92
Q

All traffic to Gunshy will enter via point?

A

DAVSN

93
Q

The overhead pattern at Gunshy is flown at ___’ and ___ KIAS

A

1300’ and 200 KIAS

94
Q

What has priority in the Gunshy traffic pattern?

A

Straight-In approaches and ELPs have priority over overhead patterns in the Gunshy traffic pattern

95
Q

Where is the offset ground track at Gunshy?

A

Offset ground track during a go-around is over the fire station for normal overhead patterns, straight- ins, and ELPs, and over the RSU for opposite direction overhead patterns.

96
Q

Is the Gunshy pattern in protected airspace?

A

No, the area is not monitored by radar. Aircrew should exercise extensive clearing

97
Q

All takeoffs/landing/touch-and-go operations at Gunshy will be on?

A

Centerline (no hot/cold operations)

98
Q

What channels should you monitor (UHF/VHF) while operating at Gunshy?

A

UHF: preset 6 (RSU) to make calls
VHF: monitor CTAF 122.7

99
Q

When Gunshy is open, should T-6s established in the pattern provide advisories?

A

T-6s established in the Gunshy pattern will only provide advisories to transient civil aircraft if safety of flight dictates
(the RSU will provide advisories to transient civil aircraft)

100
Q

What is the primary break direction at Gunshy?

A

Northeast of the runway

101
Q

Pattern Entry. Execute the Gunshy profile from CAFB. Upon initial contact with Meridian Approach (Ch 5 VHF), ____. Approach responds with Navy McCain altimeter for use at Gunshy. Expect a descent with Meridian Approach. If unable to maintain VFR, request a lower altitude. The minimum vector altitude is ____’.

A

state altitude
2100’ MSL

102
Q

What is DAVSN?

A

DAVSN is the radar termination point and is defined as a lake five miles to the east of the Gunshy field known as the Lake of America.

103
Q

What should you do approaching DAVSN? What if you can’t cancel due to frequency congestion? What if you can’t cancel due to weather?

A

Prior to the termination point, with VFR compliance, cancel IFR and make a post-Gunshy departure request (Areas or Sunfish). Squawk 1200 and change to Gunshy (Ch 6). Overfly point DAVSN at 1,300’ MSL and report “DAVSN.”

If unable to cancel IFR due to frequency congestion, squawk 1200 approaching DAVSN and contact Gunshy.

If unable to cancel IFR due to weather, request an alternate clearance from Meridian Approach (Ch 5 VHF).

104
Q

From DAVSN, what point do you go to for RWY 31? What about RWY 13?

A

Gunshy will state landing runway and winds. From DAVSN proceed direct to Silo (RWY 31) or Pond (RWY 13).

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