14OG Sup Flashcards
1
Q
On syllabus sorties, students are responsible for providing a mission plan to include
A
weather, NOTAMs, TOLD data, ORM and a profile to complete syllabus directed maneuvers
2
Q
On runway 13R, aircrews will be considered clear of the runway after taxiing past
A
the hold short line on taxiway Echo
3
Q
If the unway condition as “standing water” due to patchy standing water (ponding), the SOF may allow T-6 aircraft to use the wet runway crosswind limitation of 10 knots provided that
A
the ponding condition is only occurring on the outside quarters of the runway
4
Q
RNAV substitution (is/is not) allowed for an out of service VOR
A
is NOT allowed
5
Q
Where are T-6 uncontrolled operations authorized?
A
Golden Triangle Regional Airport (KGTR) and Tuscaloosa National Airport (KTCL) to include landings and/or touch and goes. Night overhead and closed patterns are not authorized at these locations.
6
Q
When are uncontrolled touch and go operations at Gunshy approved?
A
when the fire department is in place
7
Q
Where can you fly instrument approaches into uncontrolled fields?
A
Instrument approaches will only be flown at airfields where Columbus AFB is listed as the OPR for the LOA
8
Q
What does “Dual” mean?
A
Dual is an instructor pilot (IP) with or without a student pilot (SP)
9
Q
Local flying is defined as
A
an aircraft that takes off from CAFB and
plans to land at CAFB or the auxiliary airfield
10
Q
Missions that originate or terminate at locations other than CAFB or local sorties which do not utilize a stereo flight plan, will use a
A
DD Form 1801
11
Q
Chock time is always
A
1+45 after scheduled takeoff time
12
Q
Columbus Tower limits traffic patterns to a maximum of __ per sortie
A
3 patterns
13
Q
What is the most amount of aircraft in a tower-controlled pattern?
A
5 aircraft
14
Q
Do not start the engine if?
A
the adjacent aircraft is being serviced with fuel or oxygen
15
Q
What are the local sortie tire limit criteria?
A
Do not accept an aircraft if red cord is visible on either main gear tire and/or the nose gear tire is worn to the bottom of the tread groove
16
Q
What are the out-and-back/cross-country tire limit criteria?
A
Do not accept an aircraft if any cords are visible on the main gear tire and/or the nose gear tire has insufficient tread grooves for the time off station
17
Q
After aircraft servicing/maintenance, accomplish?
A
Another preflight of all affected areas
18
Q
If planning to depart from a runway other than the inside one, aircrew will
A
advise clearance delivery of their intentions
19
Q
On VFR pattern-only sorties, which do not require an IFR clearance, the aircrew will state
A
“Pattern Only” to Ground Control on taxi request
20
Q
At Columbus AFB, during taxi operations all T-6 aircraft will set transponder to
A
Standby
21
Q
Who has taxiing priority at Columbus?
A
Aircraft taxiing out have priority
22
Q
Delay the brake check on taxi until
A
the wings are clear of the sun shelters
23
Q
Do not taxi an aircraft within __ feet of obstructions without wing walkers. What is a good reference for this?
A
25 feet; visually align the wingtip at the base of the obstruction to estimate 25 feet wingtip clearance in the T-6
24
Q
Do not taxi aircraft closer than __ feet to any obstruction. Do not taxi into a spot unless
A
10 feet; unless a marshaller is present
25
When taxiing after sunset, aircrews will taxi into parking spots only when a marshaller is using
two self-illuminating wands to direct the taxi
26
Where must aircraft taxi on centerline?
All aircraft will taxi on the yellow lines on Taxiways C, G, and on all parking ramps. Formations may stagger on Taxiway A. All others will taxi on centerline.
27
How much space do taxi lines located in the north and south center runway hammerheads (Taxiways F and A1) provide?
at least 10 feet for T-38, T-6, and T-1 aircraft
28
Aircraft will ___ when holding short. How far behind other aircraft?
offset (gouge: roughly a 1/2 ship length)
29
Aircraft entering the run-up area will not taxi
behind aircraft already established in the run-up area. Aircrew will only accomplish pin removal and the Overspeed Governor check in an established run-up spot
30
Change to ____ when turning onto Taxiway L (RWY 13R) and Taxiway J (RWY 31L) prior to takeoff.
Sunfish (Ch.2) or Tower (Ch.3)
31
T-6 solo students will ___ to install the seat pin
come to a complete stop
32
Where is the mode C veil for Columbus? Aircraft should remain IFR to the max extent practical when outside of this DME
20 DME; Once inside of 20 DME, Class-C services (vectors/altitudes/separation) are provided for VFR aircraft.
33
Squawk ___ in the Sunfish VFR pattern. At Gunshy, squawk ___. Squawk ___ entering GTr at point "Vegas" or when operating with tower following an instrument approach. When returning VFR from GTR to Sunfish, squawk ____.
0000 Sunfish
1200 Gunshy
0200 Vegas
0300 Racetrack
34
Sunfish airspace extends from ___ to ____ along the __ DME arc to the south of runway 13R/31L, but excludes airspace __ NM past the departure end
Surface to 3,500' MSL along the 7 DME arc, but excludes airspace 3 NM past the departure end
35
The overhead pattern is flown at ____ ' and ____ KIAS
1200' and 200 KIAS
36
The Cold side of the runway is the ___ side of the runway
Ramp
37
The Hot side of the runway is the ____ side of the runway
RSU
38
What will be done on the hot side?
Initial takeoffs and initial takeoffs
39
What will be done on the cold side?
Full stops
40
If there is a touch and go in front of you, they should be ____ before you touch down
Airborne
41
If there is a full stop on the hot side in front of you, you should
go around if they do not transition to the cold side and are not at least 3,000 feet before you touch down
42
If the cold side is already occupied by a previous full stop and you want to full stop?
Land on the hot side with 3,000 feet separation. Then, transition to the cold side at a safe airspeed (it is not necessary to wait until 3,000 feet down to transition)
43
Aircraft will not ____ in formation
Land
44
What are the pattern priorities?
Emergency aircraft, Minimum fuel, NORDO, Formation, Aircraft established in the pattern, Single ship radar entires, Single ship VFR entires
45
Pilots should limit the requests for ____ approaches at Sunfish based upon pattern saturation and training requirements
straight-in
46
Pilots may request straight-ins from:
Marble, Crossroad, VFR entry, or outside downwind abeam VFR entry
47
An aircraft at Marble or Crossroad requesting a straight-in will not normally be approved with?
A pattern straight-in maneuvering to 5 miles
48
If there is no response from the RSU at "Five Miles"?
Query the RSU with actual distance from the runway. If no response by the 3-mile point, breakout and proceed to VFR entry at 700' MSL
49
Pilots shall request a straight-in over "Crossroad." If approved, the pilot may descend to 700' MSL after?
Mailbox. Be at 700' MSL by the 5-mile point
50
When should pilots descend to 700' MSL and proceed to 5 miles when getting approved a straight-in from outside downwind?
At the 90-to-initial point
51
Pilots shall not normally request a pattern straight-in if the status is?
Restricted Overhead
52
Single ship aircraft will make a ___ degree turn to Radar Initial from the 90- to-Radar Initial ground track before turning to Radar Initial.
45 degree turn
53
When should pilots report "Radar Initial?"
when wings level on initial after entering the overhead pattern from the radar termination point.
54
All aircraft will report "Initial" at __ NM
2 NM
55
Pilots established on initial will not break with: (4)
-A conflict on high/inside downwind
-A straight-in between 5 and 2 miles (unless they are told to breakout at 3 and have acknowledged)
-An aircraft between "report high key" and lowkey
-An aircraft orbiting at High Key
56
If required to carry straight through for a conflict?
At the end of the break zone call "Break point straight through"
57
Pilots (will/will not) request a late break
will NOT
58
Aircrew will not commence the final turn if break or closed clearance was given with?
An aircraft between 5 and 2 miles on a straight-in
59
When a pilot reports, or the RSU directs a "Low Approach, Acknowledge"
Continue the final turn/descent out of lowkey and initiate a go-around so that the aircraft does not touch down.
Acknowledge the RSU with "Callsign"
60
When the RSU directs a "Restricted Low Approach, Acknowledge"
Continue the final turn/descent out of low key but descend no lower than 500' AGL
Acknowledge the RSU with "Callsign"
61
On any go-around, low approach, or restricted low approach, do not climb above 500' AGL (700' MSL) until?
Cleared closed, low key, report one minute, turning crosswind, or cleared for departure
62
When will pilots offset the runway? (3)
-Directed by the RSU
-Aircraft in the departure position of the runway
-A potential conflict on departure leg exists
63
If a conflict is developing with a departure leg aircraft and the offsetting aircraft has not been instructed to “OFFSET, MAINTAIN RUNWAY HEADING,” the offsetting aircraft will
ensure it is clear of conflicts and turn crosswind at the departure end of the runway
64
Normal offset ground track for go-arounds will be flown over
Taxiway A at 700' MSL
65
If executing a go-around from a straight-in, and a conflict exists with an aircraft in the final turn?
Aircraft shall offset north of the runway (between the inside and center runways) over the RSU
66
The pilot will over-fly personnel or equipment on the runway at no less than
500' AGL (another aircraft performing a full stop does not count)
67
On takeoff leg or go-around, do not turn crosswind earlier than ____ and no later than ____. If given "STANDBY" by the RSU, turn crosswind NLT _____.
departure end of the runway
1/2 mile past the departure end
1 mile past the departure end of the runway
68
If told to “MAINTAIN RUNWAY HEADING,”
aircraft will not turn until given specific clearance to do so. If undue delay is encountered, pilots should query the RSU
69
Aircraft who are break point straight-through or offset will turn crosswind?
At the departure end of the runway, unless otherwise directed by the RSU
70
When may pilots request closed?
After passing the runway midpoint (and 140 KIAS?)
71
When should you not request closed? (5)
1. Conflict on inside downwind
2. Aircraft between 5 and 2 miles on a straight in
(**Exception: allowed for practice breakouts or requesting closed to HK)
3. Aircraft orbiting High Key
4. Aircraft between "Report HK" and Low Key
5. Aircraft between Initial and the break
72
If you are in a position to request closed/Low Key/High Key and a potential conflict exists, continue straight ahead and initiate a turn to crosswind no later than
1-mile past the departure end of the runway
73
When requesting closed and told to “STANDBY,” the pilot has the option of
turning crosswind no earlier than departure end of the runway or waiting for clearance.
74
Pilots shall exercise extreme caution and clear aggressively for other aircraft that may be on
closed/high downwind or that may have been extended upwind prior to their turn to crosswind
75
The ELP will be initiated from ____ or ____. The T-6 may make any type landing from this maneuver.
High Key or Low Key
76
Pilots given “HIGH KEY ORBIT” will make a 360° turn and report High Key again. If required to orbit, maintain ____ KIAS and approximately ___° of bank. Upon reaching the High Key position again, the same procedure applies.
120-140 KIAS
30º of bank
77
Upon reaching High Key, commence the ELP and report “C/S HIGH KEY.” If RSU clearance is not received by ____’ MSL aircrew will breakout.
2200' MSL (Cross Key)
78
If approved for "Closed, High Key," when will you transit "C/S, One Minute"?
When reaching a point abeam the intended touchdown zone, the pilot will transmit “C/S, ONE MINUTE.”
79
If low key is approved from departure leg, the aircraft will report "___" when established
“C/S HIGH DOWNWIND” when established on High Closed Downwind. At Low Key, the aircraft will transmit “C/S LOW KEY, GEAR DOWN.”
80
Pattern Breakout. Initiate a climbing turn to ____' MSL towards the VFR entry point. When the aircraft is over the vicinity of the VFR entry point, the pilot shall turn away from the runway, heading ___ degrees toward ____.
climbing turn to 2,200' MSL
heading 220 degrees toward the first major 4-way intersection west of the bridge on Hwy 50
81
Pattern Breakout. When the aircraft is at the 4-way intersection (approximately
__ DME), which way should the pilot turn?
4.5 DME
the pilot shall make a left (RWY 13) / right (RWY 31) turn towards the VFR entry point and descend/climb to pattern altitude
82
Straight-in Breakout. Prior to the 3-mile point the pilot shall turn toward the VFR entry point and maintain ___' MSL
700' MSL
83
Perch/Low Key Breakout. Climb straight ahead through ___’ MSL then turn toward VFR entry. Continue the climb to breakout altitude.
1700' then to 2200' (breakout altitude)
84
VFR Pattern Re-entry. Aircraft shall be wings level at ___' MSL on entry heading (~090° RWY 31L/~360° RWY 13R) ____ prior to the VFR entry point
1,200' MSL
one mile prior
85
Pattern delays are authorized. When holding number one, state "____"
"NUMBER ONE, PATTERN DELAY"
86
When ready to depart the pattern, inform the RSU by adding “LAST PATTERN” to what calls? Why is this important?
Gear down, Closed requests, Initial, High-Key, and Five-miles
The RSU will sequence you and ensure 90 second radar separation from other aircraft leaving the pattern.
87
Weather minimums for Gunshy to be open are ___ / __
2500 / 3
88
What is the different status for Gunshy? (Closed, Unrestricted, Dual, NTA Touch and Go, and Standby)
CLOSED: no crew or fire department in place
UNRESTRICTED: solo students allowed
DUAL: no solo students
NTA TOUCH AND GO: fire department in place, but no RSU crew
STANDBY: Crew in place, closed
89
What is the maximum aircraft in the Gunshy pattern?
6 with the RSU open and 4 uncontrolled
90
Are HAPLs for training authorized into Gunshy?
Yes, when controlled (upon cancelling IFR, ensure prior coordination with controlling agencies to include Gunshy is made to deconflict with any traffic).
91
Avoid R4404 (Searay Range). R4404 is an air-to-surface gunnery range defined by a 10-mile diameter circle with the center located at CBM 199/038, northwest of the field. Do not
break out or request High Key from 90 to radar initial when on Runway 31 to ensure aircraft remains clear
92
All traffic to Gunshy will enter via point?
DAVSN
93
The overhead pattern at Gunshy is flown at ___' and ___ KIAS
1300' and 200 KIAS
94
What has priority in the Gunshy traffic pattern?
Straight-In approaches and ELPs have priority over overhead patterns in the Gunshy traffic pattern
95
Where is the offset ground track at Gunshy?
Offset ground track during a go-around is over the fire station for normal overhead patterns, straight- ins, and ELPs, and over the RSU for opposite direction overhead patterns.
96
Is the Gunshy pattern in protected airspace?
No, the area is not monitored by radar. Aircrew should exercise extensive clearing
97
All takeoffs/landing/touch-and-go operations at Gunshy will be on?
Centerline (no hot/cold operations)
98
What channels should you monitor (UHF/VHF) while operating at Gunshy?
UHF: preset 6 (RSU) to make calls
VHF: monitor CTAF 122.7
99
When Gunshy is open, should T-6s established in the pattern provide advisories?
T-6s established in the Gunshy pattern will only provide advisories to transient civil aircraft if safety of flight dictates
(the RSU will provide advisories to transient civil aircraft)
100
What is the primary break direction at Gunshy?
Northeast of the runway
101
Pattern Entry. Execute the Gunshy profile from CAFB. Upon initial contact with Meridian Approach (Ch 5 VHF), ____. Approach responds with Navy McCain altimeter for use at Gunshy. Expect a descent with Meridian Approach. If unable to maintain VFR, request a lower altitude. The minimum vector altitude is ____'.
state altitude
2100' MSL
102
What is DAVSN?
DAVSN is the radar termination point and is defined as a lake five miles to the east of the Gunshy field known as the Lake of America.
103
What should you do approaching DAVSN? What if you can't cancel due to frequency congestion? What if you can't cancel due to weather?
Prior to the termination point, with VFR compliance, cancel IFR and make a post-Gunshy departure request (Areas or Sunfish). Squawk 1200 and change to Gunshy (Ch 6). Overfly point DAVSN at 1,300’ MSL and report “DAVSN.”
If unable to cancel IFR due to frequency congestion, squawk 1200 approaching DAVSN and contact Gunshy.
If unable to cancel IFR due to weather, request an alternate clearance from Meridian Approach (Ch 5 VHF).
104
From DAVSN, what point do you go to for RWY 31? What about RWY 13?
Gunshy will state landing runway and winds. From DAVSN proceed direct to Silo (RWY 31) or Pond (RWY 13).
