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Navigation Block Flashcards

1
Q

When will the EFIS control panel be inoperative?

A

Any electrical failure which results in a loss of power to the front EADI or rear EHSI

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2
Q

Loss of the generator also means loss of

A

systems powered on the generator bus (if the bus tie is open) and loss of battery charging

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3
Q

Anytime the starter switch is NOT in the ____ position, the generator will not function.

A

NORM

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4
Q

The starter will drain battery in less than __ minutes if left on.

A

10 minutes

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5
Q

What are indications that the generator is inoperative?

A

DC voltmeter below 25 volts and ammeter discharging

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6
Q

If the generator fails and the bus tie switch is opened, how long will the main battery last for?

A

At least 30 minutes
(however, battery voltage and ammeter cannot be directly monitored due to loss of the associated display)

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7
Q

With generator failed and the bus tie closed, the generator and battery buses will remain powered until

A

16 volts

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8
Q

Whenever power is lost, the ABOS bottle valve will?

A

remain in the last selected position

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9
Q

If the main battery is depleted/fails, OBOGS will?

A

be inoperative

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10
Q

What happens to the cockpit when power to the battery bus is lost?

A

the cockpit will depressurize

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11
Q

When will the GEN BUS annunciator illuminate?

A
  1. if there is an actual loss of the generator bus
  2. if the CWS circuit breaker on the generator bus circuit breaker panel in the front cockpit is open
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12
Q

If the GEN BUS annunicator illuminates without actual loss of the the GEN BUS, you should?

A

Check the CWS circuit breaker on the generator bus. If it is open, do NOT reset it

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13
Q

If the CWS circuit breaker is open without accompanying indications of generator bus failure?

A

the generator bus is functioning normally (and do NOT reset the CWS breaker)

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14
Q

If the generator bus is failed, should you open the bus tie switch?

A

NO (you do not want to isolate the busses). With an operating generator and the bus tie switch in NORM, the generator will continue to charge the battery and power the battery buses.

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15
Q

What things are still operative if you have a generator bus failure?

A

Back-up UHF comm
GPS (FCP…fly RNAV)
EADI (composite)
FCP EFIS control head
Battery Bus (w/ bus tie closed)

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16
Q

The BAT BUS annunciator will illuminate if:

A
  1. an actual loss of the battery bus
  2. the CWS circuit breaker on the battery bus circuit breaker panel in the FCP is open
  3. the current limiter on the battery bus has failed
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17
Q

What is an indicator of the CWS circuit breaker being open?

A

illumination of the BAT BUS (or GEN BUS) annunciator. All other systems will operate normally

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18
Q

What are indications that the current limiter and/or actual battery bus failure?

A
  1. illumination of the BAT BUS annunciator
  2. multiple failures of items on the battery bus (TRIM OFF, OIL PX, HYDR FL LO, PMU STATUS)
  3. MOST NOTICEABLE
    EADI, GPS, AEDD, and power off flags in the standby ADI, standby turn and slip indicator, and pressurization
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19
Q

If the standby attitude gyro off flag appears after the battery bus has failed, the indicator will continue to operate for at least __ minutes?

A

9 minutes

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20
Q

What will happen once power to the battery bus is lost?

A

the cockpit will depressurize

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21
Q

If the battery bus fails, should you open the BUS TIE switch?

A

Yes. Place the BUS TIE switch to OPEN to isolate the generator bus from any potential battery or battery bus faults.

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22
Q

How long will the Aux Bat power the standbys and backup UHF radio for?

A

approximately 30 minutes

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23
Q

Why should you select ALTN with a battery bus failure (and the aux bat on)?

A

Selecting ALTN will bypass the audio amplifier and provide raw audio for UHF, sidetone and aural warning, with no volume control. Neither intercom nor VHF audio will be heard while switched to ALTN.

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24
Q

If you have a battery bus failure, will the gear and flaps work normally? What about the emergency system?

A

Neither the gear nor the flaps will operate normally with a battery bus failure. Plan to use the emergency gear extension handle. Emergency flaps should still work (via the hot battery bus) as long as the main battery has not failed. HOWEVER, LANDING GEAR AND FLAP POSITION INDICATORS WILL NOT BE POWERED.

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25
Q

If the battery bus has failed, can you confirm the via the position indicators? What about the AoA vane?

A

No…?

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26
Q

With normal flap extension and loss of power to the battery bus?

A

the flaps will retract

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27
Q

What items will still be operative if the battery bus fails?

A

EHSI (fly VOR approach)
RCP EFIS control panel
VHF radio
Primary airspeed/altitude
PEDD
RMU and Transponder

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28
Q

What does it mean if the BUS TIE annunciator illuminates in flight?

A

the battery bus and generator bus have been disconnected at the bus bar crosstie

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29
Q

What should you consider if the BUS TIE illuminates in flight?

A

If other caution/warning annunciations are present, refer to the appropriate procedures. If no other annunciations occur, the generator bus will continue to operate normally and items on the battery bus will continue to function as long as battery power exists. Battery power can be prolonged by turning off non-essential equipment

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30
Q

What will be operative if both the battery and generator fails?

A

Only items powered by the Aux Bat for 30 minutes
(standby gages and associated lighting, fire detection system (FIRE 1 only), and UHF radio)

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31
Q

If the main battery fails, how do you extend the flaps?

A

Trick question…you can’t

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32
Q

During all electronic display failures, the pilot should:

A

confirm indications in both cockpits, reference alternate data sources/standby instruments, and check circuit breakers

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33
Q

What is indicated by multiple display failures without a GEN BUS or BAT BUS annunciator illuminated?

A

Avionics Bus Failure

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34
Q

What is the indications for a total AHRS failure?

A
  1. ATTITUDE FAIL
  2. HDG on the EHSI
    (3. X over the rate-of-turn scale)
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35
Q

When accomplishing inflight AHRS alignment, the aircraft must be in straight and level unaccelerated flight for a minimum of

A

30 seconds

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36
Q

With a total AHRS failure, are the GPS and VOR needles accurate?

A

GPS and VOR needles will continue to provide accurate bearing information, but are slaved to the frozen EHSI compass card (it won’t rotate). Exercise caution when using GPS or VOR needles for navigation.

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37
Q

What 2 indications must you have for a total AHRS failure?

A

Attitude fail on the EADI and HDG on the EHSI

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38
Q

What is the indication of an inoperative RMU?

A

if RMU blanks during flight and returns with off condition displayed

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39
Q

What should you squawk with a radio failure?

A

7600 (unless a more significant emergency exists)

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40
Q

If you experience radio failure in VMC, what should you do?

A

Fly recovery ground track at VFR hemispherical altitudes to the appropriate radar termination point (pink pages)

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41
Q

If you experience radio failure in IMC, what should you do? (generally)

A

Depends on where you are, but generally arc on the 13 DME towards the ILS of the last landing runway at 4,000’

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42
Q

Aircrew must notify the controlling agency and SOF of their intention to divert prior to?

A

reaching minimum fuel for diversion

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43
Q

When choosing a divert field, do not fly through marginal weather to the primary, secondary, or designated divert field when?

A

fuel conditions permit a safe recovery to another suitable field

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44
Q

To the max extent possible, when diverting to a field, fly a(n)?

A

overhead pattern

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45
Q

What does the diversion chart in the IFG assume?

A

Max Range (@ 10,000’)
Standard Day
NO WIND

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46
Q

What speed should you fly through thunderstorms?

A

A penetration airspeed of 180 KIAS is recommended. Do not exceed Turbulent Air Penetration Speed (Vg) of 195 KIAS. Trim the aircraft and do not CHASE the airspeed

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47
Q

The key to proper flight technique through turbulence is

A

Attitude. Both pitch and bank should be controlled by reference to the attitude indicator. Do not change trim after the proper attitude has been established

48
Q

Normal operation of landing gear, flaps, speed brake, and nosewheel steering should be considered unavailable when the HYDR FL LO annunciator is illuminated and pressure is below

A

1800 psi

49
Q

What does it mean if there is loss of hydraulic pressure WITHOUT illumination of EHYD PX LO or HYDR FL LO annunciator?

A

engine-driven hydraulic pump failure or partial failure

50
Q

Low hydraulic pressure (below 1800 psi) will necessitate

A

using the emergency gear extension procedure

51
Q

When may pilots deviate from 11-202v3?

A

In an inflight emergency requiring immediate action, the PIC may deviate from any rule to the extent required to meet that emergency (1.9)

52
Q

In the event of a deviation from a flight rule or when given traffic priority by ATC in an emergency, the PIC will?

A

Verbally report the incident to a supervisor or commander and prepared a written detailed record within 24 hours or as soon as mission permits (1.9)

53
Q

When an alternate airport is used, how much fuel is required?

A

Depends
Visibility only? Enough fuel for an approach and missed approach at the intended destination
Ceiling and vis used? Fuel for a missed approach is not necessary (4.20.2)

54
Q

How much fuel is required to have on board?

A

Enough useable fuel to increase the total planned flight time by 10% (up to 45 minutes) or 20 minutes, whichever is greater (4.20.3)

55
Q

How do you calculate fuel consumption rates?

A

Best endurance at 10,000 feet MSL (4.20.3.1)

56
Q

Who is responsible for closing flight plans?

A

VFR flight plans are not automatically closed upon landing. Pilots must ensure a VFR flight plan is closed (4.19.5)
When landing at a non-towered civilian airfield or with a closed tower, the pilot must contact a FSS, ATC, or airfield management (4.5.4)

57
Q

When can you file to a P-coded airfield?

A

(4.7.2)
Joint use airfield (even though by definition its not a P-coded field)

Alternate (if one is required and no other suitable)

MAJCOM approved

Interceptor aircraft recovery

C-coded aircraft

Emergency

58
Q

What aircraft have right-of-way over all traffic?

A

Aircraft in distress (3.24.1)

59
Q

When aircraft of the same category are converging, which has priority?

A

The aircraft to the right
If they’re approaching head on, both should alter their course to the right
On final, whichever is lower
(3.24.2)

60
Q

What is the traffic priority list for different aircraft categories?

A

Balloons, Gliders, Aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft, airships, rotary, fixed-wing (3.24.2)

61
Q

What is the maximum allowable airspeed below 10,000 feet MSL?

A

250 KIAS (12.4.2)

62
Q

What is the maximum allowable airspeed below Class B or @/below 2,500’ AGL within 4 NM of a C/D?

A

200 KIAS (12.4.3)

63
Q

Aircrew will receive ___ before taxiing and will ____ before crossing a runway

A

obtain clearance; hold short until obtaining specific clearance to cross (3.18)

64
Q

The PIC will operate over non-congested areas at an altitude at or above ___ feet expect over open water or in sparsely populated areas. Under such exceptions, do not operate aircraft closer than ___ feet to any ____, ____, ____, or ____

A

500 feet
500 feet
person, vessel, vehicle, or structure

65
Q

The PIC will operate over congested areas (e.g. cities, towns, settlements) or groups of people at an altitude which ensures at least ____ feet above the highest obstacle within a ____ foot radius

A

1,000 feet above
2,000 foot radius

66
Q

The PIC will operate no lower than _____ feet AGL over national parks, monuments, seashores, lakeshores, recreation areas, and scenic riverways

A

2,000 feet AGL (unless MTR or special use airspace)

67
Q

The PIC will not operate within designated disaster relief areas unless

A

the aircraft is assisting in disaster relief efforts and is authorized to do so

68
Q

When flying VFR, fly hemispherical altitudes when higher than ____ feet above the surface. These altitudes are?

A

3,000 AGL
West: Even + 500
East: Odd + 500

69
Q

What are VFR cloud clearances in the NAS?

A

Class B: 3SM and Clear of Clouds
Class C and D: 3SM 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, 2,000 horizontal
Class E and G (below 10,000): same as above
Class E and G (above 10,000): 5SM 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 1SM horizontal

70
Q

Inadvertent flight into IMC while VFR: If unable to maintain VMC,

A

-immediately transition to instruments
-coordinate an IFR clearance
-cancel the VFR flight plan

71
Q

Weather minimums. Do not depart IFR unless:

A

weather conditions at the destination, from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA is forecasted to be at or above lowest compatible approach minimums (does NOT include TEMPO)

72
Q

For a straight-in or sidestep approach, the forecast weather must meet

A

required visibility minimums

73
Q

For a circling approach, the forecast weather must meet

A

both the ceiling and prevailing visibility requirements

74
Q

What drives an alternate according to the 202v3?

A

123TACR
+/- 1 Hour
Wx less than 2000’/3SM
Tempo included
Aircraft wind limits
Compatible approach
RVSM denial (AETC)

75
Q

What is PIC discretion to file an alternate?

A

1500/3 GUNR
If the lowest compatible approach mins are greater than 1500/3
GPS only approaches
Unmonitored NAVAID
No wx reporting
Radar only approaches

76
Q

How do you know an alternate qualifies?

A

www.RANU.com
Wx is 1000/2 or 500/1 above lowest compatible (whichever is greater)
Winds out of limits
Wx reporting unavailable
RVSM airspace required
Alternate N/A on plate
Note disqualifying
Unmonitored NAVAID
Compatible approach

77
Q

What weather do you need to begin an approach?

A

Do not begin or commence an approach when reported weather is less than lowest compatible approach minimums. Do not begin an approach where thunderstorms where other hazardous weather is present unless the runway/flight path are clear

78
Q

What should you do if after you have began an approach, the weather drops below minimums?

A

If you’ve already began an approach and weather drops below minimums, you can continue to the MAP and land if able

79
Q

What weather do you need to takeoff?

A

-Do not takeoff if weather is not above lowest compatible approach minimums
-Takeoff visibility must be 600 RVR or better

80
Q

When will the PIC have an appropriate fuel log?

A

For every mission (AF Form 70 or equivalent) with the exception of local stereo missions

81
Q

When should you file IFR?

A

-weather dictates
-night
-airspace (class A)

82
Q

Can you file an alternate that only has GPS approaches?

A

Yes, but the weather must permit for descent from en route altitude, approach, and landing under basic VFR (ultimately, it is PIC discretion->1500/3TACR)

83
Q

What is the control and performance concept?

A

Establish pitch/power setting
Trim for hands off flight
Cross-check performance instruments
Adjust pitch/power as required

84
Q

How do you perform a course intercept?

A

TIM the station
Inbound: CB+30
Outbound: TC+45

85
Q

What is the difference between homing and proceeding direct?

A

Homing is flying the bearing pointer at the top of the case, whereas proceeding directing is flying a wind corrected heading to the point

86
Q

What things must you do before starting an en route descent?

A

-Review instrument procedures and weather

-Check heading and attitude systems

-Coordinate lost communication procedures, if necessary

-If holding is not required, reduce to maneuvering airspeed before reaching the IAF

87
Q

What is a STAR?

A

Standard Arrival Routings simplify clearance delivery procedures and facilitate the transition between en route and instrument approach procedures.

Pilots should notify ATC if they do not wish to use a STAR by placing “NO STAR” in the remarks section of the flight plan or by the less desirable method of verbally stating the same to ATC

88
Q

When are you allowed to descent from the en route structure?

A

Pilots navigating on arrival procedures must maintain last assigned altitude until receiving authorization to descend; comply with all restrictions published during the descent

89
Q

What is the TAA?

A

Terminal Arrival Area provides a transition from the en route structure to the terminal environment for aircraft equipped with RNAV systems

90
Q

What is the 11-248 technique for when to begin a descent?
What is the procedure for a descent?

A

(Altitude to lose in thousands of feet x 2) + 10

Lower nose and set power to achieve desired airspeed and rate of descent. Plan descent to allow configuration before the FAF

91
Q

To fly a departure, you must ensure the aircraft can

A

meet or exceed the standard IFR climb gradient of 3.3% (200 ft/nm) or the published climb gradient, whichever is higher, with all engines operating to the en route structure or an altitude at or above the minimum IFR altitude

92
Q

If you are IFR, when can you turn after takeoff?

A

400 feet above the departure end of the runway elevation, unless required by a published procedure or ATC

93
Q

What do published/ATC climb gradients not account for?

A

Low close in obstacles
Therefore, low-close in obstacle clearance is not assured when complying with IFR climb gradients. Ensure the aircraft can vertically or laterally clear applicable obstacles

94
Q

Pilots will fly all departures as published. Pilots will depart IFR using the following methods:

A
  1. Standard Instrument Departure
  2. ATC vectors
  3. Diverse departure
  4. MAJCOM approved
  5. Obstacle departure procedure
  6. Omnidirectional departure
  7. Diverse vectoring area
95
Q

What is a diverse departure? When can it be flown?

A

-A diverse departure is an acceptable IFR departure method for a runway if no obstacles, other than low-close in obstacles, penetrate the 40:1 OIS.

-ATC does not specifically clear pilots for a diverse departure nor can pilots file it on a flight plan.
Pilots will not fly a diverse departure if that runway has a standalone graphic ODP or a published ODP listed in the Trouble T section of the terminal procedures publication. ODP in this case is defined as: non-standard climb gradient, non-standard weather minimums, or a departure procedure. Note: low close-in obstacles alone do not constitute an ODP.

-Diverse departure obstacle assessment area is limited to 25 nautical miles from the airfield in non-mountainous terrain and 46 nautical miles in designated mountainous areas. Beyond this, the pilot is responsible for obstacle clearance if not flying on a published route.

96
Q

What is an omni-directional departure?

A

Similar to FAA’s diverse departure with a very important difference: the omnidirectional departure may be published even with OIS penetrations.

97
Q

What are low close in obstacles?

A

These obstacles are less than 200 feet above the departure end of runway elevation and within one NM of the runway end and do not require increased takeoff minimums [AIM]

Obstacles that are located within 1 NM of the DER and penetrate the 40:1 OCS are referred to as “low, close-in obstacles.” The standard required obstacle clearance (ROC) of 48 feet per NM to clear these obstacles would require a climb gradient greater than 200 feet per NM for a very short distance, only until the aircraft was 200 feet above the DER. To eliminate publishing an excessive climb gradient, the obstacle AGL/MSL height and location relative to the DER is noted in the “Take-off Minimums and (OBSTACLE) Departure Procedures”

98
Q

What are the 4 type of ODPs?

A

Reduced T/O length
Non-standard climb gradient
A specific routing
Visual Climb Over Airport

99
Q

What is non-standard takeoff minimums?

A

-Provided for pilots to “see and avoid” obstacles during departure when obstacles penetrate the 40:1OIS within 3SM from the DER. WX must be equal or better than the published ceiling and visibility to depart using non-standard IFR takeoff minimums and climb at 200 ft/NM or higher if published.

-A minimum climb gradient is published when obstacles penetrate the 40:1 OIS beyond 3SM from the DER.

100
Q

What is a specific routing ODP?

A

-the instrument procedure designer may publish specific routing to avoid obstacles under the “Departure Procedure” section of the ODP.

101
Q

What is a Visual Climb Over Airport?

A

Departure option for an IFR aircraft, operating in VMC equal to or greater than the specified visibility and ceiling, to visually conduct climbing turns over the airfield to the published “climb to” altitude. Upon reaching that altitude, aircraft may proceed with the instrument portion of the departure.

102
Q

What is a reduced takeoff runway length ODP?

A

If all obstacles penetrate the OIS by 35 feet or less, the instrument procedure specialist may artificially limit the takeoff runway length available to achieve a standard 200 ft/NM climb gradient. RTRL procedure requires aircraft to lift off the runway at or prior to a specified distance from the DER. If the reduced length is equal to or greater than the aircrafts calculated groundrun, the procedure may be flown using a standard 200 ft/NM climb gradient.

103
Q

What is a Diverse Vectoring Area?

A

DVA may be created to allow radar vectors to be used in lieu of an ODP at some locations where an ODP has been established. Use of a DVA is valid only when aircraft are permitted to climb uninterrupted from the DER to the MVA (or higher). ATC will not assign an altitude below the MVA within a DVA.

104
Q

What are ATC vectors for departure?

A

Specific ATC instructions include a heading and an altitude. These are not considered radar vectors. Do not apply wind drift corrections. (NAS and OCONUS military fields) - USAF pilots must verify the ATC departure instructions are consistent with a published procedure (SID or ODP) or with a published DVA. If they are not, pilots must fly the ODP prior to the departure instructions. Exception: Pilots may accept inconsistent departure instructions and assume visual terrain clearance responsibility (see-and-avoid) in VMC to a minimum IFR altitude.

105
Q

What is a Standard Instrument Departure?

A

-A departure procedure established at certain airfields to simplify clearance delivery procedures and assist in meeting environmental capacity, and ATC requirements. SIDs provide protection from obstacles, but they are not ODPs and may not be flown unless approved by ATC

106
Q

What is the standard IFR climb gradient?

A

3.3% (200 feet/NM)

107
Q

Published or ATC climb gradients do not account for?

A

low-close in obstacles

108
Q

What are DER crossing restrictions (TERP, ICAO, turning)?

A

NAS (Hardened Rwy ≥ 6000’) = 0’
NAS (Unhardened Rwy & Rwy < 6000’) = 0-35’
ICAO = 16’
Climb to 400 feet above DER elevation before making the initial turn

109
Q

What is the “Trouble T” and what is included?

A

IFR Takeoff Minimums, Obstacle Departure Procedures, and Diverse Vectoring Area (Radar Vectors)

110
Q

Altitudes in the Trouble T section are in?

A

MSL

111
Q

How are ODPs described?

A

Either textually described in the Trouble T section or published separately as a graphic procedure

112
Q

When can an aircraft be vectored off an ODP?

A

Aircraft may not be vectored off an ODP, or issued an altitude lower than the published altitude on an ODP, until at or above the Min Vectoring Alt/Min IFR Alt, at which time the ODP is canceled

113
Q

What is a declared distance?

A

Inverse “D” on an approach plate
-Represent the maximum distances available and suitable for meeting takeoff and landing distance performance requirement
(TORA/TODA/ASDA/LDA)

114
Q

What is TORA/TODA/ASDA/LDA? Which do we use?

A

TORA: Runway length declared available and suitable for the ground run of an airplane taking off. Typically the physical length of the runway.

TODA: TORA + clearway (USAF does NOT use unless MAJOCOM approved)

ASDA: accelerate stop distance (Runway plus stopway length declared available and suitable for the acceleration and deceleration of an airplane aborting a takeoff)

LDA: landing distance available (Runway length declared available and suitable for a landing airplane)

115
Q

Declared distances (are/are not) not designed with consideration for touch-and-go ops? What do you use to calculate touch-and-go TOLD?

A

Declared distances are NOT designed with consideration for touch-and-go ops (Touch and go’s are authorized at airfields limited by declared distances as long as calculated TOLD is ≤ the most restrictive declared distance
AETC: TOLD data must be calculated using LDA)

Airplane Stuff (18 decks)

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