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Navigation Block Flashcards

1
Q

When will the EFIS control panel be inoperative?

A

Any electrical failure which results in a loss of power to the front EADI or rear EHSI

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2
Q

Loss of the generator also means loss of

A

systems powered on the generator bus (if the bus tie is open) and loss of battery charging

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3
Q

Anytime the starter switch is NOT in the ____ position, the generator will not function.

A

NORM

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4
Q

The starter will drain battery in less than __ minutes if left on.

A

10 minutes

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5
Q

What are indications that the generator is inoperative?

A

DC voltmeter below 25 volts and ammeter discharging

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6
Q

If the generator fails and the bus tie switch is opened, how long will the main battery last for?

A

At least 30 minutes
(however, battery voltage and ammeter cannot be directly monitored due to loss of the associated display)

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7
Q

With generator failed and the bus tie closed, the generator and battery buses will remain powered until

A

16 volts

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8
Q

Whenever power is lost, the ABOS bottle valve will?

A

remain in the last selected position

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9
Q

If the main battery is depleted/fails, OBOGS will?

A

be inoperative

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10
Q

What happens to the cockpit when power to the battery bus is lost?

A

the cockpit will depressurize

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11
Q

When will the GEN BUS annunciator illuminate?

A
  1. if there is an actual loss of the generator bus
  2. if the CWS circuit breaker on the generator bus circuit breaker panel in the front cockpit is open
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12
Q

If the GEN BUS annunicator illuminates without actual loss of the the GEN BUS, you should?

A

Check the CWS circuit breaker on the generator bus. If it is open, do NOT reset it

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13
Q

If the CWS circuit breaker is open without accompanying indications of generator bus failure?

A

the generator bus is functioning normally (and do NOT reset the CWS breaker)

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14
Q

If the generator bus is failed, should you open the bus tie switch?

A

NO (you do not want to isolate the busses). With an operating generator and the bus tie switch in NORM, the generator will continue to charge the battery and power the battery buses.

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15
Q

What things are still operative if you have a generator bus failure?

A

Back-up UHF comm
GPS (FCP…fly RNAV)
EADI (composite)
FCP EFIS control head
Battery Bus (w/ bus tie closed)

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16
Q

The BAT BUS annunciator will illuminate if:

A
  1. an actual loss of the battery bus
  2. the CWS circuit breaker on the battery bus circuit breaker panel in the FCP is open
  3. the current limiter on the battery bus has failed
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17
Q

What is an indicator of the CWS circuit breaker being open?

A

illumination of the BAT BUS (or GEN BUS) annunciator. All other systems will operate normally

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18
Q

What are indications that the current limiter and/or actual battery bus failure?

A
  1. illumination of the BAT BUS annunciator
  2. multiple failures of items on the battery bus (TRIM OFF, OIL PX, HYDR FL LO, PMU STATUS)
  3. MOST NOTICEABLE
    EADI, GPS, AEDD, and power off flags in the standby ADI, standby turn and slip indicator, and pressurization
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19
Q

If the standby attitude gyro off flag appears after the battery bus has failed, the indicator will continue to operate for at least __ minutes?

A

9 minutes

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20
Q

What will happen once power to the battery bus is lost?

A

the cockpit will depressurize

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21
Q

If the battery bus fails, should you open the BUS TIE switch?

A

Yes. Place the BUS TIE switch to OPEN to isolate the generator bus from any potential battery or battery bus faults.

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22
Q

How long will the Aux Bat power the standbys and backup UHF radio for?

A

approximately 30 minutes

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23
Q

Why should you select ALTN with a battery bus failure (and the aux bat on)?

A

Selecting ALTN will bypass the audio amplifier and provide raw audio for UHF, sidetone and aural warning, with no volume control. Neither intercom nor VHF audio will be heard while switched to ALTN.

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24
Q

If you have a battery bus failure, will the gear and flaps work normally? What about the emergency system?

A

Neither the gear nor the flaps will operate normally with a battery bus failure. Plan to use the emergency gear extension handle. Emergency flaps should still work (via the hot battery bus) as long as the main battery has not failed. HOWEVER, LANDING GEAR AND FLAP POSITION INDICATORS WILL NOT BE POWERED.

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25
Q

If the battery bus has failed, can you confirm the via the position indicators? What about the AoA vane?

A

No…?

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26
Q

With normal flap extension and loss of power to the battery bus?

A

the flaps will retract

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27
Q

What items will still be operative if the battery bus fails?

A

EHSI (fly VOR approach)
RCP EFIS control panel
VHF radio
Primary airspeed/altitude
PEDD
RMU and Transponder

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28
Q

What does it mean if the BUS TIE annunciator illuminates in flight?

A

the battery bus and generator bus have been disconnected at the bus bar crosstie

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29
Q

What should you consider if the BUS TIE illuminates in flight?

A

If other caution/warning annunciations are present, refer to the appropriate procedures. If no other annunciations occur, the generator bus will continue to operate normally and items on the battery bus will continue to function as long as battery power exists. Battery power can be prolonged by turning off non-essential equipment

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30
Q

What will be operative if both the battery and generator fails?

A

Only items powered by the Aux Bat for 30 minutes
(standby gages and associated lighting, fire detection system (FIRE 1 only), and UHF radio)

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31
Q

If the main battery fails, how do you extend the flaps?

A

Trick question…you can’t

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32
Q

During all electronic display failures, the pilot should:

A

confirm indications in both cockpits, reference alternate data sources/standby instruments, and check circuit breakers

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33
Q

What is indicated by multiple display failures without a GEN BUS or BAT BUS annunciator illuminated?

A

Avionics Bus Failure

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34
Q

What is the indications for a total AHRS failure?

A
  1. ATTITUDE FAIL
  2. HDG on the EHSI
    (3. X over the rate-of-turn scale)
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35
Q

When accomplishing inflight AHRS alignment, the aircraft must be in straight and level unaccelerated flight for a minimum of

A

30 seconds

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36
Q

With a total AHRS failure, are the GPS and VOR needles accurate?

A

GPS and VOR needles will continue to provide accurate bearing information, but are slaved to the frozen EHSI compass card (it won’t rotate). Exercise caution when using GPS or VOR needles for navigation.

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37
Q

What 2 indications must you have for a total AHRS failure?

A

Attitude fail on the EADI and HDG on the EHSI

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38
Q

What is the indication of an inoperative RMU?

A

if RMU blanks during flight and returns with off condition displayed

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39
Q

What should you squawk with a radio failure?

A

7600 (unless a more significant emergency exists)

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40
Q

If you experience radio failure in VMC, what should you do?

A

Fly recovery ground track at VFR hemispherical altitudes to the appropriate radar termination point (pink pages)

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41
Q

If you experience radio failure in IMC, what should you do? (generally)

A

Depends on where you are, but generally arc on the 13 DME towards the ILS of the last landing runway at 4,000’

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42
Q

Aircrew must notify the controlling agency and SOF of their intention to divert prior to?

A

reaching minimum fuel for diversion

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43
Q

When choosing a divert field, do not fly through marginal weather to the primary, secondary, or designated divert field when?

A

fuel conditions permit a safe recovery to another suitable field

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44
Q

To the max extent possible, when diverting to a field, fly a(n)?

A

overhead pattern

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45
Q

What does the diversion chart in the IFG assume?

A

Max Range (@ 10,000’)
Standard Day
NO WIND

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46
Q

What speed should you fly through thunderstorms?

A

A penetration airspeed of 180 KIAS is recommended. Do not exceed Turbulent Air Penetration Speed (Vg) of 195 KIAS. Trim the aircraft and do not CHASE the airspeed

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47
Q

The key to proper flight technique through turbulence is

A

Attitude. Both pitch and bank should be controlled by reference to the attitude indicator. Do not change trim after the proper attitude has been established

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48
Q

Normal operation of landing gear, flaps, speed brake, and nosewheel steering should be considered unavailable when the HYDR FL LO annunciator is illuminated and pressure is below

A

1800 psi

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49
Q

What does it mean if there is loss of hydraulic pressure WITHOUT illumination of EHYD PX LO or HYDR FL LO annunciator?

A

engine-driven hydraulic pump failure or partial failure

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50
Q

Low hydraulic pressure (below 1800 psi) will necessitate

A

using the emergency gear extension procedure

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51
Q

When may pilots deviate from 11-202v3?

A

In an inflight emergency requiring immediate action, the PIC may deviate from any rule to the extent required to meet that emergency (1.9)

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52
Q

In the event of a deviation from a flight rule or when given traffic priority by ATC in an emergency, the PIC will?

A

Verbally report the incident to a supervisor or commander and prepared a written detailed record within 24 hours or as soon as mission permits (1.9)

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53
Q

When an alternate airport is used, how much fuel is required?

A

Depends
Visibility only? Enough fuel for an approach and missed approach at the intended destination
Ceiling and vis used? Fuel for a missed approach is not necessary (4.20.2)

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54
Q

How much fuel is required to have on board?

A

Enough useable fuel to increase the total planned flight time by 10% (up to 45 minutes) or 20 minutes, whichever is greater (4.20.3)

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55
Q

How do you calculate fuel consumption rates?

A

Best endurance at 10,000 feet MSL (4.20.3.1)

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56
Q

Who is responsible for closing flight plans?

A

VFR flight plans are not automatically closed upon landing. Pilots must ensure a VFR flight plan is closed (4.19.5)
When landing at a non-towered civilian airfield or with a closed tower, the pilot must contact a FSS, ATC, or airfield management (4.5.4)

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57
Q

When can you file to a P-coded airfield?

A

(4.7.2)
Joint use airfield (even though by definition its not a P-coded field)

Alternate (if one is required and no other suitable)

MAJCOM approved

Interceptor aircraft recovery

C-coded aircraft

Emergency

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58
Q

What aircraft have right-of-way over all traffic?

A

Aircraft in distress (3.24.1)

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59
Q

When aircraft of the same category are converging, which has priority?

A

The aircraft to the right
If they’re approaching head on, both should alter their course to the right
On final, whichever is lower
(3.24.2)

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60
Q

What is the traffic priority list for different aircraft categories?

A

Balloons, Gliders, Aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft, airships, rotary, fixed-wing (3.24.2)

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61
Q

What is the maximum allowable airspeed below 10,000 feet MSL?

A

250 KIAS (12.4.2)

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62
Q

What is the maximum allowable airspeed below Class B or @/below 2,500’ AGL within 4 NM of a C/D?

A

200 KIAS (12.4.3)

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63
Q

Aircrew will receive ___ before taxiing and will ____ before crossing a runway

A

obtain clearance; hold short until obtaining specific clearance to cross (3.18)

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64
Q

The PIC will operate over non-congested areas at an altitude at or above ___ feet expect over open water or in sparsely populated areas. Under such exceptions, do not operate aircraft closer than ___ feet to any ____, ____, ____, or ____

A

500 feet
500 feet
person, vessel, vehicle, or structure

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65
Q

The PIC will operate over congested areas (e.g. cities, towns, settlements) or groups of people at an altitude which ensures at least ____ feet above the highest obstacle within a ____ foot radius

A

1,000 feet above
2,000 foot radius

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66
Q

The PIC will operate no lower than _____ feet AGL over national parks, monuments, seashores, lakeshores, recreation areas, and scenic riverways

A

2,000 feet AGL (unless MTR or special use airspace)

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67
Q

The PIC will not operate within designated disaster relief areas unless

A

the aircraft is assisting in disaster relief efforts and is authorized to do so

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68
Q

When flying VFR, fly hemispherical altitudes when higher than ____ feet above the surface. These altitudes are?

A

3,000 AGL
West: Even + 500
East: Odd + 500

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69
Q

What are VFR cloud clearances in the NAS?

A

Class B: 3SM and Clear of Clouds
Class C and D: 3SM 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, 2,000 horizontal
Class E and G (below 10,000): same as above
Class E and G (above 10,000): 5SM 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 1SM horizontal

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70
Q

Inadvertent flight into IMC while VFR: If unable to maintain VMC,

A

-immediately transition to instruments
-coordinate an IFR clearance
-cancel the VFR flight plan

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71
Q

Weather minimums. Do not depart IFR unless:

A

weather conditions at the destination, from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA is forecasted to be at or above lowest compatible approach minimums (does NOT include TEMPO)

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72
Q

For a straight-in or sidestep approach, the forecast weather must meet

A

required visibility minimums

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73
Q

For a circling approach, the forecast weather must meet

A

both the ceiling and prevailing visibility requirements

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74
Q

What drives an alternate according to the 202v3?

A

123TACR
+/- 1 Hour
Wx less than 2000’/3SM
Tempo included
Aircraft wind limits
Compatible approach
RVSM denial (AETC)

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75
Q

What is PIC discretion to file an alternate?

A

1500/3 GUNR
If the lowest compatible approach mins are greater than 1500/3
GPS only approaches
Unmonitored NAVAID
No wx reporting
Radar only approaches

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76
Q

How do you know an alternate qualifies?

A

www.RANU.com
Wx is 1000/2 or 500/1 above lowest compatible (whichever is greater)
Winds out of limits
Wx reporting unavailable
RVSM airspace required
Alternate N/A on plate
Note disqualifying
Unmonitored NAVAID
Compatible approach

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77
Q

What weather do you need to begin an approach?

A

Do not begin or commence an approach when reported weather is less than lowest compatible approach minimums. Do not begin an approach where thunderstorms where other hazardous weather is present unless the runway/flight path are clear

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78
Q

What should you do if after you have began an approach, the weather drops below minimums?

A

If you’ve already began an approach and weather drops below minimums, you can continue to the MAP and land if able

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79
Q

What weather do you need to takeoff?

A

-Do not takeoff if weather is not above lowest compatible approach minimums
-Takeoff visibility must be 600 RVR or better

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80
Q

When will the PIC have an appropriate fuel log?

A

For every mission (AF Form 70 or equivalent) with the exception of local stereo missions

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81
Q

When should you file IFR?

A

-weather dictates
-night
-airspace (class A)

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82
Q

Can you file an alternate that only has GPS approaches?

A

Yes, but the weather must permit for descent from en route altitude, approach, and landing under basic VFR (ultimately, it is PIC discretion->1500/3TACR)

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83
Q

What is the control and performance concept?

A

Establish pitch/power setting
Trim for hands off flight
Cross-check performance instruments
Adjust pitch/power as required

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84
Q

How do you perform a course intercept?

A

TIM the station
Inbound: CB+30
Outbound: TC+45

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85
Q

What is the difference between homing and proceeding direct?

A

Homing is flying the bearing pointer at the top of the case, whereas proceeding directing is flying a wind corrected heading to the point

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86
Q

What things must you do before starting an en route descent?

A

-Review instrument procedures and weather

-Check heading and attitude systems

-Coordinate lost communication procedures, if necessary

-If holding is not required, reduce to maneuvering airspeed before reaching the IAF

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87
Q

What is a STAR?

A

Standard Arrival Routings simplify clearance delivery procedures and facilitate the transition between en route and instrument approach procedures.

Pilots should notify ATC if they do not wish to use a STAR by placing “NO STAR” in the remarks section of the flight plan or by the less desirable method of verbally stating the same to ATC

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88
Q

When are you allowed to descent from the en route structure?

A

Pilots navigating on arrival procedures must maintain last assigned altitude until receiving authorization to descend; comply with all restrictions published during the descent

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89
Q

What is the TAA?

A

Terminal Arrival Area provides a transition from the en route structure to the terminal environment for aircraft equipped with RNAV systems

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90
Q

What is the 11-248 technique for when to begin a descent?
What is the procedure for a descent?

A

(Altitude to lose in thousands of feet x 2) + 10

Lower nose and set power to achieve desired airspeed and rate of descent. Plan descent to allow configuration before the FAF

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91
Q

To fly a departure, you must ensure the aircraft can

A

meet or exceed the standard IFR climb gradient of 3.3% (200 ft/nm) or the published climb gradient, whichever is higher, with all engines operating to the en route structure or an altitude at or above the minimum IFR altitude

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92
Q

If you are IFR, when can you turn after takeoff?

A

400 feet above the departure end of the runway elevation, unless required by a published procedure or ATC

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93
Q

What do published/ATC climb gradients not account for?

A

Low close in obstacles
Therefore, low-close in obstacle clearance is not assured when complying with IFR climb gradients. Ensure the aircraft can vertically or laterally clear applicable obstacles

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94
Q

Pilots will fly all departures as published. Pilots will depart IFR using the following methods:

A
  1. Standard Instrument Departure
  2. ATC vectors
  3. Diverse departure
  4. MAJCOM approved
  5. Obstacle departure procedure
  6. Omnidirectional departure
  7. Diverse vectoring area
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95
Q

What is a diverse departure? When can it be flown?

A

-A diverse departure is an acceptable IFR departure method for a runway if no obstacles, other than low-close in obstacles, penetrate the 40:1 OIS.

-ATC does not specifically clear pilots for a diverse departure nor can pilots file it on a flight plan.
Pilots will not fly a diverse departure if that runway has a standalone graphic ODP or a published ODP listed in the Trouble T section of the terminal procedures publication. ODP in this case is defined as: non-standard climb gradient, non-standard weather minimums, or a departure procedure. Note: low close-in obstacles alone do not constitute an ODP.

-Diverse departure obstacle assessment area is limited to 25 nautical miles from the airfield in non-mountainous terrain and 46 nautical miles in designated mountainous areas. Beyond this, the pilot is responsible for obstacle clearance if not flying on a published route.

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96
Q

What is an omni-directional departure?

A

Similar to FAA’s diverse departure with a very important difference: the omnidirectional departure may be published even with OIS penetrations.

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97
Q

What are low close in obstacles?

A

These obstacles are less than 200 feet above the departure end of runway elevation and within one NM of the runway end and do not require increased takeoff minimums [AIM]

Obstacles that are located within 1 NM of the DER and penetrate the 40:1 OCS are referred to as “low, close-in obstacles.” The standard required obstacle clearance (ROC) of 48 feet per NM to clear these obstacles would require a climb gradient greater than 200 feet per NM for a very short distance, only until the aircraft was 200 feet above the DER. To eliminate publishing an excessive climb gradient, the obstacle AGL/MSL height and location relative to the DER is noted in the “Take-off Minimums and (OBSTACLE) Departure Procedures”

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98
Q

What are the 4 type of ODPs?

A

Reduced T/O length
Non-standard climb gradient
A specific routing
Visual Climb Over Airport

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99
Q

What is non-standard takeoff minimums?

A

-Provided for pilots to “see and avoid” obstacles during departure when obstacles penetrate the 40:1OIS within 3SM from the DER. WX must be equal or better than the published ceiling and visibility to depart using non-standard IFR takeoff minimums and climb at 200 ft/NM or higher if published.

-A minimum climb gradient is published when obstacles penetrate the 40:1 OIS beyond 3SM from the DER.

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100
Q

What is a specific routing ODP?

A

-the instrument procedure designer may publish specific routing to avoid obstacles under the “Departure Procedure” section of the ODP.

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101
Q

What is a Visual Climb Over Airport?

A

Departure option for an IFR aircraft, operating in VMC equal to or greater than the specified visibility and ceiling, to visually conduct climbing turns over the airfield to the published “climb to” altitude. Upon reaching that altitude, aircraft may proceed with the instrument portion of the departure.

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102
Q

What is a reduced takeoff runway length ODP?

A

If all obstacles penetrate the OIS by 35 feet or less, the instrument procedure specialist may artificially limit the takeoff runway length available to achieve a standard 200 ft/NM climb gradient. RTRL procedure requires aircraft to lift off the runway at or prior to a specified distance from the DER. If the reduced length is equal to or greater than the aircrafts calculated groundrun, the procedure may be flown using a standard 200 ft/NM climb gradient.

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103
Q

What is a Diverse Vectoring Area?

A

DVA may be created to allow radar vectors to be used in lieu of an ODP at some locations where an ODP has been established. Use of a DVA is valid only when aircraft are permitted to climb uninterrupted from the DER to the MVA (or higher). ATC will not assign an altitude below the MVA within a DVA.

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104
Q

What are ATC vectors for departure?

A

Specific ATC instructions include a heading and an altitude. These are not considered radar vectors. Do not apply wind drift corrections. (NAS and OCONUS military fields) - USAF pilots must verify the ATC departure instructions are consistent with a published procedure (SID or ODP) or with a published DVA. If they are not, pilots must fly the ODP prior to the departure instructions. Exception: Pilots may accept inconsistent departure instructions and assume visual terrain clearance responsibility (see-and-avoid) in VMC to a minimum IFR altitude.

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105
Q

What is a Standard Instrument Departure?

A

-A departure procedure established at certain airfields to simplify clearance delivery procedures and assist in meeting environmental capacity, and ATC requirements. SIDs provide protection from obstacles, but they are not ODPs and may not be flown unless approved by ATC

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106
Q

What is the standard IFR climb gradient?

A

3.3% (200 feet/NM)

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107
Q

Published or ATC climb gradients do not account for?

A

low-close in obstacles

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108
Q

What are DER crossing restrictions (TERP, ICAO, turning)?

A

NAS (Hardened Rwy ≥ 6000’) = 0’
NAS (Unhardened Rwy & Rwy < 6000’) = 0-35’
ICAO = 16’
Climb to 400 feet above DER elevation before making the initial turn

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109
Q

What is the “Trouble T” and what is included?

A

IFR Takeoff Minimums, Obstacle Departure Procedures, and Diverse Vectoring Area (Radar Vectors)

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110
Q

Altitudes in the Trouble T section are in?

A

MSL

111
Q

How are ODPs described?

A

Either textually described in the Trouble T section or published separately as a graphic procedure

112
Q

When can an aircraft be vectored off an ODP?

A

Aircraft may not be vectored off an ODP, or issued an altitude lower than the published altitude on an ODP, until at or above the Min Vectoring Alt/Min IFR Alt, at which time the ODP is canceled

113
Q

What is a declared distance?

A

Inverse “D” on an approach plate
-Represent the maximum distances available and suitable for meeting takeoff and landing distance performance requirement
(TORA/TODA/ASDA/LDA)

114
Q

What is TORA/TODA/ASDA/LDA? Which do we use?

A

TORA: Runway length declared available and suitable for the ground run of an airplane taking off. Typically the physical length of the runway.

TODA: TORA + clearway (USAF does NOT use unless MAJOCOM approved)

ASDA: accelerate stop distance (Runway plus stopway length declared available and suitable for the acceleration and deceleration of an airplane aborting a takeoff)

LDA: landing distance available (Runway length declared available and suitable for a landing airplane)

115
Q

Declared distances (are/are not) not designed with consideration for touch-and-go ops? What do you use to calculate touch-and-go TOLD?

A

Declared distances are NOT designed with consideration for touch-and-go ops (Touch and go’s are authorized at airfields limited by declared distances as long as calculated TOLD is ≤ the most restrictive declared distance
AETC: TOLD data must be calculated using LDA

116
Q

When will aircrews make temperature corrections for altitudes? What altitudes need to be corrected?

A

When departing from an aerodrome with a temperature of 32F/0C or less. All altitudes (including the 400 feet above the departure end of the runway need to be corrected to a minimum safe altitude).

117
Q

Should a temperature correction be applied to an ATC assigned altitude?

A

NO. Do NOT apply a temperature correction to an ATC-assigned altitude. Radar vectoring altitudes assigned by ATC may or may not be temperature compensated and should be queried or refused if obstacle clearance is in doubt

118
Q

When should temperature corrections be made in mountainous terrain?

A

When outside air temperature is colder than international standard atmosphere minus 10C, and aircraft unable to display true altitude, apply cold weather corrections to altitudes that are used to avoid terrain

119
Q

Pilots (must/must not) make an altimeter change to accomplish an altitude correction

A

must NOT

120
Q

Pilots must advise ATC of the corrected altitude when applying altitude corrections on any approach segment with the exception of

A

the final segment

121
Q

Where do you find how to calculate cold temperature corrections?

A

Table in the FIH (in-flight)

122
Q

How are FAA cold temperature restricted airports are identified?

A

Snowflake Icon on the IAP (Instrument Approach Plate) underneath Trouble T

123
Q

What does a holding pattern look like? What is the standard direction?

A

The standard holding pattern is a racetrack design consisting of two 180-degree right turns and two straight legs

124
Q

If NAVAIDs are co-located to define the holding pattern, which must the pilot use?

A

It is the pilot’s option as to which NAVAID to use (VOR/DME or GPS point)

125
Q

When may ATC omit all holding instructions except the charted holding direction and the statement “as published”?

A

When the pattern is charted on the assigned procedure or route being flown (or when pilots request full instruction)

126
Q

What are the three holding pattern entry sectors?

A

Parallel, Direct, and Offset (called “Teardrop” in NAS)

127
Q

Are holding entry procedures mandatory?

A

Yes, outside of the NAS. They are only recommended in the NAS

128
Q

Make all turns entering holding and while holding at:

A

in the NAS…3 degrees per second, 30 degrees bank angle, or 25 degrees bank angle using a flight director system

OR

3 degrees per second or 25 degrees bank angle (whichever requires less bank)

129
Q

What are maximum holding airspeeds designed to do?

A

Prevent the aircraft from exceeding the protected airspace and they have no relation to the holding speed specified in the the aircraft flight manual

130
Q

When does an aircraft have to be at or below the maximum holding speed?

A

Prior to initially crossing the holding fix

131
Q

A maximum airspeed of ___ knots is permitted in climb-in-holding, unless a maximum holding speed is published in which case that speed becomes applicable

A

310 KIAS

132
Q

What are the maximum holding airspeeds?

A

200 KIAS at or below 6,000 MSL

230 KIAS >6,000 MSL to 14,000 MSL

265 KIAS >14,000 MSL to 34,000+ MSL

133
Q

What is the USAF exception for holding airspeed?

A

310 KIAS

134
Q

Where can max holding airspeeds be depicted?

A

In FLIP under holding pattern

135
Q

What is the holding airspeed for the T-6?

A

150 KIAS is standard, but as low as 120 KIAS (or max endurance, whichever is higher) may be flown

136
Q

What is the standard timing for a holding pattern?

A

1 minute legs at or below 14,000’ MSL
1.5 minute legs above 14,000’ MSL

137
Q

What is holding pattern timing based on?

A

NAS Only: Timing is based on the inbound leg. The initial outbound leg should be flown for 1/1.5 min, then adjusted for subsequent outbound legs to achieve proper inbound leg time

ICAO: Timing is based on the outbound leg. Timing begins over/abeam the fix, whichever occurs last

138
Q

How do you apply drift corrections in a holding pattern?

A

When outbound, triple the inbound calculated drift correction (e.g. if correcting left 3 degrees on the inbound, correct 24 degrees right on the outbound)

139
Q

What is the point of “triple the drift”?

A

Triple drift is the only method that allows for a constant angle of bank through inbound and outbound legs

140
Q

Where are published holds found?

A

Low/High Altitude En Route, IAPs, Departure Procedure, and STAR Charts

141
Q

Before starting a descent?
What speed do you need to be at by the IAF?

A

Review instrument procedures and weather, check heading and attitude systems, and coordinate lost communication procedures, if necessary.

If holding is not required, reduce to maneuvering speed before reaching the IAF

142
Q

When may a pilot descend on an approach?

A

When CLEARED for the approach and established on a segment of a published procedure (until then, maintain last assigned altitude)

143
Q

Do NOT descend below MDA, DA, or DH unless

A

-sufficient visual reference with the landing runway
-in position to execute a safe landing

144
Q

What are the required components of an ILS?

A

-Glideslope
-LOC
-Outer Marker (can be replaced with DME/NAVAID, etc)

145
Q

Do not descend below LOC mins if the aircraft is more than

A

1/2 scale deflection low
or full scale deflection above glideslope

146
Q

What is considered established on a VOR?

A

Half scale deflection

147
Q

What is considered established on a LOC?

A

Full scale deflection

148
Q

What is “Enroute” mode for the GPS and how big is the deflection?

A

> 30 NM = CDI +/-5 NM range

149
Q

How does the GPS change from Enroute to Approach Arm?

A

Either automatically when the aircraft passes within 30 NM of an airport with a non-precision approach loaded in the active flight plan, or by pressing the GPS APR switch on the EADI

150
Q

What is “Approach arm” mode?

A

<30 NM = CDI +/-1 NM

151
Q

What is “Approach active” mode?

A

<2 miles to FAF = CDI +/- 0.3 NM

152
Q

What is an ESA (emergency safe altitude)?

A

Normally published only for U.S. military procedures; it is a single altitude that provides 1,000 feet of obstacle clearance (2,000 feet in mountainous terrain) within 100 nm of the facility or fix

153
Q

What is an MSA (minimum sector altitude)?

A

provides at least 1,000 feet of obstacle clearance within 25 nm of the facility or fix (can have a maximum of 4 sectors)

154
Q

Do MSAs guarantee NAVAID reception?

A

No. Minimum sector altitudes do NOT guarantee NAVAID reception

155
Q

What is field elevation?

A

the highest point on any useable landing surface

156
Q

What is touchdown zone elevation?

A

the highest point in the first 3,000 feet of the runway

157
Q

A final approach may be as much as ___ degrees off runway centerline and still be considered a straight-in.

A

30 degrees

158
Q

What is the useable range of a LOC?

A

18 nm

159
Q

What is the useable range of a glideslope?

A

10 nm

160
Q

Procedure turns are depicted in the plan view as a

A

“barb” arrow indicating the maneuvering side of the outbound course

161
Q

Procedure turns should be flown at airspeeds of ___ or less

A

200 KIAS or less (ICAO max airspeed for Cat B is 140 KIAS)

162
Q

Do NOT descend from the procedure turn fix altitude (published or assigned) until

A

crossing over or outbound abeam the procedure turn fix

163
Q

How long do you time for on a 45/180 procedure turn?

A

Cat A/B aircraft: 1 minute (timing is mandatory under ICAO)

164
Q

Entry procedures for a HILPT are similar to holding. Pilots will limit time on a 30-degree teardrop heading to

A

1 minute and 30 seconds, then turn to a heading parallel to the outbound track for the remainder of the time OR limited to 1 minute if the outbound time is only 1 minute

165
Q

On a parallel entry, pilots will NOT turn direct to the facility without first

A

intercepting the inbound track

166
Q

When does the outbound timing start on a HILPT?

A

Abeam the facility or on attaining an outbound heading, whichever occurs LAST

167
Q

When will pilots NOT execute a course reversal?

A

Straight-in
No PT
Established in holding
Radar vectors
Timed approach (from a holding fix)

168
Q

Do stepdown fixes inside of the FAF apply to precision approaches?

A

No, fly the glideslope

169
Q

A visual approach is an ___ procedure conducted under ____ in ____ conditions

A

IFR procedure under IFR rules in VMC conditions

170
Q

Who has responsibility for aircraft and wake separation on a visual approach?

A

ATC has responsibility for aircraft and wake separation UNLESS following a preceding aircraft, then you have responsibility (3 min behind SUPER, 2 min behind HEAVY) measured from the time the preceding aircraft is over the landing threshold

171
Q

What weather is required for a visual approach?

A

1,000’ and 3SM

172
Q

Once cleared for a visual approach, you should?

A

proceed visually and clear of clouds to the airfield in the most direct and safe manner to establish the aircraft on a normal straight-in (Pilot must have either the airfield or the preceding aircraft in sight)

173
Q

Are missed approach instructions provided for a visual approach?

A

No missed approach instructions, if a go around is required tower gives instructions

174
Q

What is a contact approach? What weather do you need for it?

A

Pilots operating on an IFR clearance, when clear of clouds with at least 1 mile in flight visibility and can reasonably expect to continue to the destination airfield in those conditions, may request a contact approach

175
Q

What are the rules for requesting a contact approach?

A
  1. The pilot must request it (can NOT be initiated by ATC)
  2. The airfield must have a published instrument approach
  3. The visibility must be at least 1 mile
176
Q

Who has the responsibility of obstacle avoidance on a contact approach?

A

Pilot has responsibility for obstruction avoidance

177
Q

What must a pilot do if they wish to fly an overhead pattern following a contact approach?

A

Pilot must cancel IFR if they want to fly an overhead pattern

178
Q

What does a “V” in the title of an approach mean?

A

ATC may conduct instrument approaches simultaneously to converging runways at approved airfields. These approaches have “V” in the title, for example: “ILS V RWY 17 (CONVERGING)”

179
Q

If both timing and another means of identifying the MAP are published (e.g. DME), then timing is normally only used as

A

a backup

180
Q

What does the “runway environment” consist of?

A

-the runway or runway markings
-runway end identifier lights
-runway lights
-visual glide-slope indicator
-threshold, threshold markings, or threshold lights
-touchdown zone, touchdown zone markings, or touchdown zone lights
-approach lighting system

181
Q

Pilots will not descend below ___ feet above the TDZE using the ____ as a reference unless the red terminating bars or the red side bars are visible and identifiable

A

100 feet
approach lights

182
Q

What are AETC rules for LAHSO?

A

AETC aircrews will only passively participate in LAHSO and may not accept active LAHSO clearances from ATC

183
Q

What is the standard circling radius for Cat B aircraft?

A

1.5 nm from the runway end

184
Q

What is the expanded circling minimum for Cat B aircraft?

A

1.7 if MDA > 1000’
1.8 if MDA 1000-5000’
1.9 if MDA > 5000’

185
Q

When should a descent from the circling MDA be made?

A

Do not descend below circling MDA until the pilot is able to place the aircraft on a normal glidepath to the landing runway

186
Q

Side-step maneuvers are always flown to a ___, regardless of approach authorized. Pilots are expected to execute the side-step ____

A

MDA; as soon as the runway environment is in sight

187
Q

Where should you execute missed approach instructions?

A

Fly to the MAP at or above the MDA, DH, or DA before executing missed approach instruction

188
Q

What climb gradient must an aircraft meet on a missed approach?

A

200 ft/nm

189
Q

If unable to maintain required visual references while circling or unable to make a safe landing:

A

execute a climbing turn within the protected circling area towards the landing runway, returning to circling altitude or higher. Continue to turn until established on the missed approach course or climbout instructions.

190
Q

What is a PAR?

A

Precision approach radar (PAR) approaches utilize radar glidepath to a DA to determine the MAP

191
Q

What is an ASR?

A

Airport Surveillance Radar approaches utilize an MDA to a MAP

192
Q

How often does a controller talk while being vectored to final?

A

15 sec on ASR (lost comm only)
5 sec on PAR (lost comm only)

193
Q

When should you initiate lost comm procedures?

A

Initiate lost comm procedures if no transmissions are received for approximately 1 minute while being vectored to final for any approach

194
Q

What is the definition of station passage for a VOR?

A

When the TO-FROM indicator makes the first positive change indicating FROM

195
Q

How accurate does a VOR need to be on the ground? What about in the air?

A

Ground: +/- 4 degrees
Air: +/- 6 degrees

196
Q

How do you calculate a VDP?

A

GUS wears a HAT
(Height Above Touchdown) / (GS *100)

197
Q

How do you calculate a VDP based on timing?

A

Drop the last digit from HAT, subtract that from FAF to MAP time (ex 450 HAT = 45 seconds. 2:45 seconds FAF to MAP based on approach speed= 2:00 timed VDP)

198
Q

What are the different types of procedure turns?

A

80/260, 45/180, Base turn (teardrop), Racetrack (NAS-only HILPT)

199
Q

Do not descend from the procedure turn fix altitude until

A

crossing over or outbound above the procedure fix

200
Q

Do not descend from the procedure turn completion altitude

A

until established on the inbound segment of the approach

201
Q

How is a high altitude approach depicted?

A

Depicted with black and white stripes at top and bottom of plate and “HI-XXX” (HI-ILS)
Dotted line = penetration track

202
Q

What is a category B aircraft’s final approach speed?

A

91 - 120 KIAS

203
Q

What does “substitute” mean for GPS?

A

using RNAV system in lieu of out-of-service conventional NAVAIDs or non-installed/non-operable avionics

204
Q

What does “alternate” mean for GPS?

A

using RNAV system in lieu of operational conventional NAVAIDSs without monitoring those NAVAIDs

205
Q

What are suitable uses for GPS? (4)

A

-Determine aircraft position relative to a distance from a conventional NAVAID

-Navigate to or from a conventional NAVAID

-Hold over a conventional NAVAID or DME navigational fix

-Fly an arc based on DME

206
Q

What is prohibited uses of GPS?

A

-Substituting for a NAVAID providing lateral course guidance during the final approach segment of a VOR/TACAN/NDB approach (MAJCOMs may provide exception)

-Lateral navigation on localizer based courses without referencing the raw localizer data

-Navigation with DME/DME/IRU systems unless specifically authorized by NOTAM or FAA guidance

-Use of a procedure identified as “NA” without exception by a NOTAM

207
Q

Are you allowed to use RNAV to navigate a final approach segment of a VOR?

A

Use of a suitable RNAV system as a means to navigate on a final approach segment of an instrument approach based on VOR, TACAN, or NDB signal, is allowable. The underlying NAVAID must be operational and the NAVAID monitored for final segment course alignment.

208
Q

What does the 60 to 1 rule mean?

A

1 degree = 1nm at 60 nm
1 degree pitch = 100 feet at 1 nm

209
Q

What type of icing is the T-6A authorized to fly through?

A

Sustained operation in icing conditions is prohibited. The aircraft has been approved only for transit though a 5000-foot band of light rime ice

210
Q

If ice accumulation occurs, what are maneuvers restricted to?

A

30 degrees bank angle and 0-2 G’s normal acceleration, up to stall warning
(aerobatics are prohibited until ice is melted or sublimated)

211
Q

For the landing phase with ice accumulation?

A

Increase approach speed by 10 KIAS and ensure sufficient cockpit visibility exists

212
Q

Detection of icing from the rear cockpit is

A

not probable due to the inability to see the windshield

213
Q

What are some icing protections on the aircraft?

A

-Heated pitot masts
-Heated AoA sensor
-Static ports are on the aft fuselage to eliminate exposure to icing
-engine intake has particle separator
-fuel system is protected with external fairings

214
Q

What is the only method allowed for deicing the canopy and how much?

A

Heating is the only method allowed for deicing the canopy and the maximum temperature is 150 ºF

215
Q

What is the first choice in preventing icing? What can be used as a last resort?

A

Using a heated hangar or cover is the first choice in preventing icing.
Deicing can be accomplished by blowing, wiping, or spraying.

Propylene glycol diluted by water is the only deicing agent authorized for spraying and should be used as a last resort.

216
Q

You must annotate in the aircraft maintenance forms if the aircraft is exposed to

A

aircraft deicing agent or runway deicing/anti-icing agent

217
Q

The potential for an icing encounter exists anytime there is?

A

Visible moisture and Outside Air Temperatures of 5 ºC or below

218
Q

Where does icing tend to occur first?

A

Ice will form first on the windshield, followed by the wing leading edges

219
Q

What are your actions to exit icing conditions?

A

Climb, descend, or change direction as required

  1. Verify probes is ON
  2. Temp control MANUAL
  3. Defog ON
  4. Evap Blower HIGH

Adjust temp controller as necessary to avoid DUCT TEMP annunciator
(once clear of icing conditions, the ice should melt within several minutes)

220
Q

What should you do before attempting a landing after icing?

A

Perform a controllability check when ice accumulation is suspected. It may be desirable to land without flaps

221
Q

A higher amp draw may be observed during engine starts in extremely cold temperatures. Using a GPU is recommended below 18 ºC. Also, ____ may be high after starting cold engines.

A

Oil Pressure. The annunciator may illuminate during the start sequence. If the pressure is rising during the start sequence, continued operation is permissible. The oil pressure should be an acceptable range within 2 minutes

222
Q

How to fly a penetration descent in the T-6?

A

Retard PCL as required to meet a target descent rate (2000-4000 fpm)
Attain 200-250 KIAS and use speed brake as required

223
Q

How do you fly low altitude approaches in the T-6?

A

-Fly instrument approaches at 120-150 KIAS
-Prior to FAF, ensure landing gear is down and flaps are TO, and slow to a min of 110 KIAS
-With the field in sight and departing the MDA, DA, or DH, slow to a minimum of 105 KIAS or landing flaps to 100 KIAS

224
Q

What speeds should be flown in the radar pattern?

A

-Maintain 150-200 KIAS in clean configuration on radar downwind
-Slow to 120-150 KIAS on base leg
-Prior to GS intercept, ensure that landing gear is down and set flaps as required
-Fly final approach at 100-120 KIAS

225
Q

What minimum speed should you maintain on a circling approach?

A

Minimum recommended speed prior to final approach is 110 KIAS with gear down and flaps to TO

226
Q

What is the missed approach procedure? (according to dash-1)

A

-PCL to MAX
-Set 10-15 NH and execute ATC missed approach procedure
-Reduce power as required to preclude excessive NH attitude in actual instrument conditions
-Refer to After TO checklist

227
Q

When can you not begin an approach?

A

Do not begin a descent or commence an approach when the reported weather at the destination is below the lowest compatible approach mins

228
Q

What should you do if the weather drops below minimums after beginning descent, receiving radar vectors for an approach, or established on any segment of an approach prior to the missed approach point?

A

the approach may be continued to the appropriate MAP and a landing may be accomplished if all criteria for landing are met

229
Q

What does a slash (/) indicate on an IAP?

A

A slash (/) indicates that more than one type of equipment may be required to execute the final approach. Additional equipment may be required to execute the other portions of the procedure. All navigation equipment that is required for the execution of the procedure and not mentioned in the procedure identification should be identified in the notes on the chart

230
Q

What is the difference between a DA and MDA?

A

DA = A specified barometric altitude (MSL) at which the pilot decides to continue the approach or initiate an immediate missed approach if the pilot does not see the required visual references. Applies to precision approaches.

MDA = The lowest altitude in MSL to which descent is authorized where no electronic glideslope is provided. Applies to non-precision approaches.

231
Q

What is HAT vs HAA?

A

Height Above Touchdown. The height of the DH/MDA above the highest runway elevation in the first 3000 feet of the runway. HAT is published on instrument approach charts in conjunction with all straight-in minimums.

HAA = Height Above Airfield. Height of the DA/MDA above the airfield elevation (field elevation is the highest point on any useable landing surface)

232
Q

What is VDA?

A

Vertical Descent Angle is calculated to provide a constant descent rate in the final segment, optimum VDA is 3.00 degrees

233
Q

What is TCH?

A

Threshold Crossing Height. The point where the VDA crosses above the threshold. The typical TCH is 30-50 feet unless required by larger type aircraft.

234
Q

Where can you find weather minimums for an approach?

A

WX mins are in parenthesis next to the MDA/DH. Ex: (200-½) = ceiling in feet & prevailing visibility in SM

235
Q

Can we cross tune in the T-6?

A

No, but we do have DME HOLD

236
Q

A clearance for an approach also includes clearance to fly?

A

the published missed approach on the instrument procedure, unless otherwise directed by ATC

237
Q

Any turns on the missed approach will NOT begin until?

A

the aircraft REACHES the Missed Approach Point

238
Q

What is the ICAO Bank Angle for a missed approach?

A

ICAO missed approach bank angle is 15 degrees average achieved or 3 degrees per second, whichever requires less bank.

239
Q

Where can FLIP/NOTAM abbreviations be found?

A

Section F of the FIH

240
Q

What should you squawk if you are NORDO?

A

7600

241
Q

If you are NORDO in VMC?

A

Continue flight under VMC and land as soon as practicable and notify ATC
Primary objective: to preclude extended IFR operations in the air traffic control system in VMC

242
Q

What route should you fly if you go NORDO in IMC?

A

(AVEF)
Assigned
Vectored
Expected
Filed

A: By the route Assigned in the last ATC clearance received

V: In being radar Vectored, by the direct route from the point of radio failure to the fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance
In the absence of an assigned route, by that ATC has advised may be

E: Expected in a further clearance; or

F: In the absence of an assigned route or a route that ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance, by the route Filed in the flight plan

243
Q

What altitude should you fly if you go NORDO in IMC?

A

(AME)
Assigned in the last ATC clearance
Minimum altitude
Expected altitude

244
Q

What is the Minimum En Route Altitude?

A

Lowest published altitude between radio fixes which assures acceptable nav signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements between those fixes. The MEA prescribed for a Federal airway or segment thereof, area navigation low or high route, or other direct route applies to the entire width of the airway, segment, or route between the radio fixes defining the airway, segment, or route

245
Q

What is the Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude?

A

The lowest published altitude in effect between radio fixes on VOR airways, off airway routes, or route segments which meets obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route segment and which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage only within 25 statute miles for a VOR

246
Q

What is the Minimum Reception Altitude? What does it look like on a chart?

A

-Lowest altitude at which an intersection can be
determined
-Flag w/ “R”

247
Q

What is a minimum crossing altitude? What does it look like on a chart?

A

-applies to the operation of an aircraft proceeding to a higher minimum en route altitude when crossing specified fixes
-flag w/ “X”

248
Q

What is a Jet Route?

A

Based on VORs, from FL180 to FL450

249
Q

What is a Victor Route?

A

Based on VORs, from 1200 AGL up to not including 18,000’ MSL

250
Q

What is a Q route?

A

RNAV route from FL180 to FL450

251
Q

What is a T route?

A

RNAV route from 1200 AGL up to but not including 18,000’ MSL

252
Q

What is a restricted area?

A

Need permission to fly into. Restricted areas denote the existence of unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles. Penetration of restricted areas without authorization from the using or controlling agency may be extremely hazardous to the aircraft and its occupants.

253
Q

What is a prohibited area?

A

Do NOT fly into. Prohibited areas contain airspace of defined dimensions identified by an area on the surface of the earth within which the flight of aircraft is prohibited. Such areas are established for security or other reasons associated with the national welfare.

254
Q

What is a warning area?

A

Similar to a restricted area, except at least 3SM from the coast. Contains activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft.

255
Q

What is a MOA?

A

MOAs consist of airspace of defined vertical and lateral limits established for the purpose of separating certain military training activities from IFR traffic. Whenever a MOA is being used, nonparticipating IFR traffic may be cleared through a MOA if IFR separation can be provided by ATC. Otherwise, ATC will reroute or restrict nonparticipating IFR traffic.

256
Q

What is an Alert Area?

A

Alert areas are depicted on aeronautical charts to inform nonparticipating pilots of areas that may contain a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity. Pilots should be particularly alert when flying in these areas.

257
Q

What is a Controlled Firing Area?

A

CFAs contain activities which, if not conducted in a controlled environment, could be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. The distinguishing feature of the CFA, as compared to other special use airspace, is that its activities are suspended immediately when spotter aircraft, radar, or ground lookout positions indicate an aircraft might be approaching the area.

258
Q

What are National Security Areas?

A

NSAs consist of airspace of defined vertical and lateral dimensions established at locations where there is a requirement for increased security and safety of ground facilities. Pilots are requested to voluntarily avoid flying through the depicted NSA. When it is necessary to provide a greater level of security and safety, flight in NSAs may be temporarily prohibited by regulation

259
Q

What should you reference for filling out a DD1801?

A

General Planning, Chapter 4

260
Q

How do you file a DD1801?

A

Can file through foreflight or through base ops (physical copy)

261
Q

What type of lettering must be used on a DD1801?

A

Capital letters

262
Q

What are cloud clearances in class B airspace?

A

3SM and Clear of Clouds

263
Q

What are VFR cloud clearances in Class C, D, E, and G below 10,000 feet MSL?

A

3SM / 1,000 above, 500 below, 2,000 horizontal

264
Q

What are VFR cloud clearances in Class E or G above 10,000 feet MSL?

A

5SM / 1,000 above, 1,000 below, 1 SM horizontal

265
Q

What are 11-202v3 rules about thunderstorms?

A
  • PIC will not intentionally fly into a thunderstorm
  • Do not fly in IMC near thunderstorms without operable weather radar
  • Do not fly an approach where thunderstorms or other hazardous weather is producing hail, strong winds, gust fronts, etc. unless the runway and flight path are clear
266
Q

What are AETC rules about thunderstorms?

A

-do not fly directly above (within 2,000 feet) of a thunderstorm/CB clouds
-avoid thunderstorms by at least 20 NM at or above FL230
-avoid by at least 10 NM below FL230

267
Q

What is the turbulent air/thunderstorm penetration speed?

A

195 KIAS (180 recommended)

268
Q

The Dash-1 has diversion charts for?

A

-Configurations
-Fuel states
-Initial Altitude
Ref IFG pink pages for local area diversion procedures.

269
Q

How often is the FLIP updated? What about the TCN?

A

The FLIP (Flight Information Publication) is updated every 8 weeks. The TCN (Terminal Change Notice) is updated every 4 weeks

270
Q

Circling MDA provides how much obstacle clearance?

A

300 foot obstacle clearance

271
Q

Circling techniques in the T-6?

A

45 ° for 30 sec or 30 ° for 45 sec for circling to the opposite runway 15 sec when over flying perpendicular to runways
Check the displacement: 1 to 1.2 NM (do not exceed obstacle clearance area for category - 1.5 NM Cat B)Runway just beyond wingtip works well
Abeam ½ NM final aim point (timing for 10-15 secs depending on wind)

272
Q

What are some night restrictions for approaches?

A

-Night landings at other than home field require operational glide path guidance. Visual descent path indicator or precision guidance systems constitute acceptable glide path guidance. At towered fields that meet this criteria aircrews are allowed to accept vectors for visual approaches.

-Aircrews will not practice the visual circling maneuver portion of an instrument approach.

-Aircrews can perform practice approaches without glidepath guidance but will not descend below the published MDA.

273
Q

Can we fly RNAV SIDs or STARs?

A

Aircrew will not fly SIDs, STARs, and DPs with “RNAV” in the title

274
Q

How to sequence to the MAP on an RNAV approach?

A

-The GPS will not automatically sequence past the missed approach point. To call up the missed approach procedure, press the Direct To button once passed the missed approach point.
-Activate the MA after crossing the MA waypoint
-Once the MA is activated, CDI sensitivity change to terminal (+/- 1NM) sensitivity

Airplane Stuff (20 decks)

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