Instruments (starting at IN109-IN205, 217)* Flashcards
1
Q
What is a low altitude instrument approach?
A
Low altitude instrument approaches transition aircraft from the low- altitude environment to a point where the runway can be visually acquired and a safe landing executed
2
Q
What do low altitude instrument approaches provide?
A
terrain clearance, separation from other IFR aircraft, and guide the aircraft to a published Final Approach Fix(FAF)
3
Q
What are the 3 categories of low altitude instrument approach procedures?
A
Precision approaches, Approaches with Vertical Guidance (APV), and Non-precision approaches
4
Q
What are the 5 segments to an instrument approach procedure?
A
Arrival, Initial, Intermediate, Final, Missed Approach
5
Q
What are the two ways an instrument procedure can be flown? Why would a pilot fly each one?
A
“full procedure” approach or with ATC assistance via radar vectors
-Full procedure approaches may be requested by the pilot but are most often used in areas without radar coverage. A full procedure approach also provides the pilot with a means of completing an instrument approach in the event of a communication failure
6
Q
What is a precision approach?
A
an instrument approach based on a navigation system that provides COURSE and GLIDEPATH deviation information meeting the precision standards of ICAO
7
Q
What is an approach with vertical guidance?
A
an instrument approach based on a navigation system that is not required to meet the precision approach standards of ICAO Annex 10, but provides course and glidepath deviation information
8
Q
What is a non-precision approach?
A
an instrument approach based on a navigation system which provides course deviation information but no glidepath deviation information
9
Q
What are the two types of course reversal procedures?
A
Procedure turn and Racetrack (Holding In Lieu of Procedure Turn)
10
Q
What is a terminal routing?
A
Terminal routes, which originate at the IAF, are depicted with course, minimum altitude, and distance to the initial fix.
Essentially, these routes accomplish the same thing as feeder routes but originate at an IAF, whereas feeder routes terminate at an IAF
11
Q
If you are using a terminal routing and are cleared for the approach, are you considered established on the approach?
A
Yes, you may descend to the published terminal routing altitude
12
Q
What is RNAV operations?
A
RANDOM NAVIGATION (RNAV) is “point to point” navigation where you do not need to go from ground station (like a VOR or TACAN) to ground station, but you go in a straight lines. The Global Positioning System (GPS) is a form of RNAV
13
Q
As a conservative technique, when can you consider yourself in the terminal area?
A
if you are within 30 NM of the destination, below Class A airspace, or are using a published procedure for navigation (IAP/STAR/SID, etc.).
14
Q
If RAIM outages are predicted for more than __ minutes along the route of flight, the flight must rely on other approved equipment
A
5 minutes
15
Q
What is the T-6A maneuvering speed?
A
120-150 KIAS
When executing any low altitude approach procedure, you are expected to slow to maneuvering speed for your aircraft prior to reaching the IAF
16
Q
If you are using a terminal routing and are cleared for the approach, you are considered established on the approach. (T/F)
A
a. True
17
Q
If using GPS in the terminal area, pilots should not comply with ATC instructions to proceed direct to a point. (T/F)
A
b. False
18
Q
TAA area lateral boundaries are identified by magnetic courses _____ the IF (IAF).
a. TO
b. FROM
c. abeam
d. parallel to
A
a. TO
19
Q
What airspeed do you maintain prior to configuring when flying a low altitude approach in the T-6A?
A
b. 120-150 KIAS
20
Q
Low altitude approaches enable the aircraft to transition from instrument flight conditions to a visual landing while providing
a. terrain clearance and separation from other IFR aircraft.
b. terrain clearance only.
c. separation from all aircraft.
d. separation from VFR aircraft.
A
a. terrain clearance and separation from other IFR aircraft.
21
Q
When a TAA is published, it replaces the __________ for the approach procedure.
a. MEA
b. MSA
c. MRA
d. MOCA
A
b. MSA (minimum safe altitude)
22
Q
The minimum altitude on this approach you may descend to prior to the FAF is?
A
b. 2900 feet
23
Q
What altitude can you descend to if you are using a feeder facility and are cleared for the approach?
a. You can descend to the altitude depicted on the feeder route.
b. You can descend to the IAF crossing altitude 10 NM from the IAF.
c. You can descend to the IAF altitude when halfway between the feeder fix and IAF.
d. You can descend only to the IAF altitude when crossing the IAF.
A
a. You can descend to the altitude depicted on the feeder route.
24
Q
What is the “Radar Pattern?” Why is it used?
A
Operating in the radar pattern simply implies that you are assigned vectors (headings), altitudes, and other essential information from a ground-based controller. The radar pattern is used to vector aircraft to the final approach segment of both non-radar approaches (ILS, VOR, LOC) and radar approaches (ASR or PAR)
25
What are the parts of the radar pattern? (6)
Departure, Crosswind, Radar Downwind, Base Leg, Dogleg, Final
26
Are there published minimum altitudes in the radar pattern?
No. There are no published minimum altitudes to follow. ATC and the pilot are responsible for safety. If ever in doubt, query the controller
27
What are MVAs? How much clearance do they give?
Minimum Vector Altitude (MVA)'s help the controller ensure aircraft maintain a safe altitude. The altitudes within each MVA sector are established at 1000 feet above the highest obstruction within the sector and 2000 feet above the highest obstacle
28
Is it the controller's responsibility to provide traffic advisories?
Traffic advisories are only an additional service the controller provides if their workload permits.
Do not get complacent about clearing when you are in the radar pattern
29
If the weather is greater than 500 feet above the MVA and visibility is greater than 3 miles, the controller may vector the aircraft to intercept final:
If not, the minimum is:
At least 1 mile from the FAF at a maximum intercept angle of 20° or
At least 3 miles from the FAF at a maximum intercept angle of 30°
If weather is worse than criteria specified above, the controller must vector you to intercept final no less than 3 miles from the FAF with no more than 30 degrees of intercept
30
What kind of approach do radar vectors put the aircraft on final for?
Radar vectors can be used to put the aircraft on final for any type of approach. Once you have the weather, you need to determine the weather minimums for the approach you plan to fly.
31
What is HAT (Height Above Touchdown)?
HAT (Height Above Touchdown) is the height of the Decision Altitude/Decision Height or Minimum Decision Altitude above the highest point on first 3,000 feet of the runway on a published straight-in procedure
32
What is HAA (Height Above Airport)?
HAA (Height Above Airport) is the height of the MDA above the published airfield elevation
33
What speeds/configurations should you fly in the radar pattern?
maintain 150 – 200 KIAS in a clean configuration while on radar downwind.
When turning base leg, slow to 120 – 150 KIAS. Depending on the situation, you may configure with gear and takeoff flaps on base, or if you see that there will be sufficient time and distance before the glide slope intercept or descent point, you can delay configuration until final.
Once you are configured and on final approach, slow to 110 KIAS
34
What is a good technique for making altitude changes in the radar pattern?
establish your descent rate equal to the number of feet to descend, not to exceed 1000 fpm. For example, if told to descend from 1800 to 1000 feet, a good descent rate would be 800 fpm
35
When vectored to a dogleg to final (20°- 30° from final heading), the controller may give a P.T.A.C. call. What does that stand for?
Position - aircraft position to final approach fix (FAF).
Turn - 20° to 30° turn to final.
Altitude - altitude to maintain until established on final approach course.
Clearance - approach you are cleared for.
35
What is a good technique for turn rates in the radar patten?
In the radar pattern, turn using bank angles to approximate a standard rate turn for the TAS being flown, not to exceed 30°. On final, use bank angles that approximate the number of degrees to be turned, not to exceed a half- standard rate turn.
A good technique for making turns in the radar pattern is to use a bank angle equal to the number of degrees to be turned, not to exceed 30°. For example, if told to turn 15° right, you should use 15° of bank.
36
What is an ASR approach?
An ASR (Airport Surveillance Radar) is a nonprecision approach in which the controller provides navigational guidance in azimuth only. ASR approach radar is less precise than precision approach radar in position determining capability. Surveillance radar also lacks altitude readout. Because of this, ASR approaches have HIGHER minimums than PARs
37
What two things are required to land from an ASR approach?
Runway environment in sight
Aircraft in position to make a safe landing
38
What is an ASR Circling Approach?
The ASR circling approach is flown precisely like a straight-in approach except when you reach the MAP or acquire visual contact with the runway environment, you circle around the airfield to land on a different runway. The circling portion of the approach is entirely a visual procedure. If at any time you lose sight of the runway environment, you must execute a missed approach.
39
What is a PAR approach?
A Precision Approach Radar (PAR) is a precision approach in which the controller provides navigational guidance in both course azimuth and vertical glidepath.
The PAR starts when the aircraft is within range of the precision radar and contact is established with the final controller. This usually occurs about 8 miles from touchdown.
40
How much bank should you use in a PAR approach? What happens if you drift off heading?
To prevent overshooting the assigned heading, use a bank equal to approximately the number of degrees to be turned not to exceed one-half standard rate
the controller assumes you are maintaining that heading and makes subsequent assignments based on that. It is important to correct immediately anytime you drift off the assigned heading
41
What are the two landing criteria to land from a PAR? Where is the Decision Altitude?
The runway environment must be in sight
The aircraft must be in position to land safely
On a PAR, decision altitude is determined in the cockpit by one of the following methods:
As read on the altimeter or when advised by the controller
Whichever occurs first!
42
What are no-gyro vectors? When are they used? What bank angle should be used? What radio calls must be made?
In the event your heading indicators should fail during flight, radar controllers are able to provide “no-gyro” vectors to either a no-gyro ASR or PAR approach. Use a standard rate of turn until told otherwise. You must acknowledge the start and stop turn commands until told “do not acknowledge further transmissions” This usually occurs during final approach
43
Minimum Vector Altitude (MVA) may be lower than the published MEA or MOCA. (T/F)
a. True
44
With the airfield weather station reporting 2 miles visibility, what is the minimum distance from the FAF and the maximum intercept angle the controller can use to set up aircraft for final approach course intercept?
b. 3 miles and 30º
45
You are cleared for the PAR circling approach to runway 15 at Robert Gray AFF. Under normal circumstances, this is a valid clearance.
b. False
46
Using the Rate of Climb/Descent Table, with a groundspeed of 120 knots and a glidepath of 2.5°, what would be your recommended descent rate?
b. 500 fpm
47
What three radio calls are you required to repeat back to the controller when operating in the radar pattern?
d. Assigned headings, altitude, and altimeter settings
48
When flying in the radar Pattern, maintain __________ KIAS in a clean configuration while on radar downwind.
c. 150 – 200
49
Using the technique discussed earlier, if you were flying in the radar pattern and instructed to turn right from heading 360 to heading 045, what angle of bank would you use?
b. 30º
50
ASR RWY 17 MDA at Fort Worth NAS is (Figure 110-56)
c. 1120
51
What is the criteria you must meet in order to land from an ASR approach?
a. Runway environment in sight
b. Aircraft in a position to make a safe landing
c. Controller directs “land”
d. Both a and b
d. Both a and b
52
Assume you are flying a PAR approach in your T-6A (CAT B) to Runway 35 at Fort Worth NAS. What would be the Decision Altitude/Decision Height for your approach?
d. 900
53
On PAR final approach, use bank equal to the number of degrees to be turned not to exceed standard rate. (T/F)
b. False
54
If on PAR final, you accidentally drift off assigned heading, what is the proper action to take?
a. Maintain the heading, the controller will base new heading instruction based on your observed course.
b. Inform controller of actual heading so they can adjust their corrections.
c. Immediately correct back to the last assigned heading.
d. Either a or c is correct.
c. Immediately correct back to the last assigned heading.
55
Decision Altitude on a PAR is determined by
a. the barometric altimeter reading.
b. when advised by the controller “at decision altitude”
c. Either a or b, whichever occurs first
d. timing from the begin descent point.
c. Either a or b, whichever occurs first
56
When you reach final approach on a no-gyro ASR or PAR, you must automatically transition to using half- standard rate turns.
a. True
b. False
b. False
57
MVAs are established at _____ feet above the highest obstacle within the sector, _____ in mountainous terrain.
a. 500; 1,000
b. 1,000; 2,000
c. 1,500; 2,500
d. 2,000; 4,000
b. 1,000; 2,000
58
Traffic advisories are a mandatory service provided by controllers to aircraft operating in the radar pattern. (T/F)
b. False
59
Where can you locate an airfield’s radar approach minimums?
a. In FLIP General Planning
b. In the back of the Instrument Approach book
c. In the front of the Instrument Approach book
d. In the IFR Supplement
c. In the front of the Instrument Approach book
60
Aircraft malfunction reports are
a. made only for engine malfunctions.
b. optional.
c. mandatory.
d. applicable only to multiengine aircraft.
c. mandatory
61
In the T-6A, it is mandatory to configure the aircraft on base leg of the radar pattern. (T/F)
b. False
62
An ASR is a _____ approach.
b. nonprecision
63
When flying an ASR approach, the MAP is defined by
a. timing from the FAF.
b. the barometric altimeter.
c. the VDP.
d. the controller.
d. the controller
64
To execute a missed approach while circling to land from an ASR, turn initially towards the
a. last assigned heading.
b. nearest available alternate airfield.
c. landing runway.
d. nearest IAF.
c. landing runway
65
A PAR approach starts when
a. the aircraft is in range of the precision radar.
b. contact has been established with the final controller.
c. Both a and b are correct.
d. None of the above are correct.
c. Both a and b are correct
66
T-6A final approach airspeed on a PAR approach is _____ KIAS.
c. 110
67
When flying no-gyro vectors and approach, you must acknowledge the “start/stop turn” controller directives until
a. told “do not acknowledge further transmissions.”
b. the aircraft is established on final approach.
c. the aircraft has landed.
d. handed over to the final controller.
a. told “do not acknowledge further transmissions.”
68
When do you typically report gear down?
Typically, report gear down at the FAF
69
When must the aircraft be configured for landing by?
the FAF
70
For a VOR approach, what is typically used to indicate arrival at the FAF?
DME or station passage
71
What is a VDP? How do you calculate it? Why is it useful?
Visual Descent Point (VDP). A VDP identifies a point along the final approach course that allows a normal descent (usually 3°) from the MDA to the runway for any non-precision approach. This is a useful technique because the MDA and MAP can sometimes make it difficult to maneuver the aircraft to land.
VDP = Gus Wears A Hat... HAT/GS * 100
72
At the FAF, you should set a descent rate of about _____ to ensure you reach MDA prior to your calculated VDP
800 - 1000 fpm
(16% 1º NL 110 Knots)
73
What is the timing grid on the approach plate based on? What is it useful for?
Keep in mind that the timing grid on the approach plate is based on groundspeed. As a backup to DME, or for approaches where DME is not available, you should start the elapsed time counter on the clock at the FAF
74
CDFA is the preferred method that allows for flying the final approach segment of a non-precision approach as a
continuous descent
75
During a VOR approach, when do you transition from a descent to level flight?
As you approach the MDA
76
Once you reach the MAP, what two things do you need to continue the descent to land?
When you reach the MAP, you must either have the runway environment in sight (and be able to execute a safe landing) or execute a missed approach.
77
Where can you find GPS approaches and when must you have them loaded in by?
Available GPS approaches are found on the GPS Airport Page 8.
The approach must be loaded prior to the 2 NM area outside of the FAF, otherwise it does not go into approach mode.
78
As the aircraft comes within 30 NM of an airport with a loaded approach, the GPS automatically switches to the?
Approach Arm Mode
79
What happens when the GPS is in approach arm mode?
In approach arm mode, the CDI scale transitions from a ±5 NM enroute scale to a ±1 NM approach scale. The change from the enroute scale to the approach scale gradually occurs over a 30-second transition period.
80
When must you use OBS?
Whenever you are given radar vectors, performing a procedure turn, or holding, you must select the OBS mode. If the OBS mode is not used in these instances, the GPS automatically sequences to the next waypoint and becomes unusable.
81
What mode must you select on the GPS once on a heading within 90 degrees of the final approach course and prior to 2 NM from the FAF?
LEG mode to ensure a transition to the approach active mode
At 2 NM from FAF, the GPS automatically switches to the approach active mode if:
The LEG mode is active.
The aircraft is heading toward the FAF.
The FAF or a collocated IAF/FAF is the active point.
GPS confirms adequate monitoring is available to complete the approach.
RAIM is available at the FAF and missed approach point.
82
If approach active mode is not successfully loaded by the FAF, what must you do?
Missed Approach
83
What happens when the GPS switches to the approach active mode?
the CDI scale begins to change from the ±1 NM approach scale to a ±0.3 NM final approach scale. The rate of change occurs so that the scale will reach ±0.3 NM no later than the FAF.
84
How is the FAF denoted on a GPS display? What about a MAP?
FAF: lowercase f
MAP: lowercase m
85
After the MAP, does the GPS automatically sequence to the next waypoint?
NO. The GPS does not automatically sequence to the next waypoint (indicated by *NO WPT SEQ on GPS display). The reason automatic sequencing does not occur is because many missed approach procedures require certain actions be accomplished before proceeding to the missed approach holding fix (indicated on the GPS by an “-h” suffix).
86
What function must you use to fly a localizer approach that utilizes DME from another facility?
DME HOLD
87
What is a localizer back course approach? How do you set the course in the EHSI?
A localizer backcourse approach uses the same transmitter as a normal localizer approach, but you approach in the opposite direction. When flying this type of approach, you must set the published front course in the EHSI in order for the CDI to provide proper course guidance. The “published front course” is simply the reciprocal of the published localizer backcourse final approach
88
What is a good technique to have the aircraft configured by the FAF?
A good technique is to start configuring the aircraft approximately 2 – 3 miles prior to the FAF. Report gear down at the FAF.
89
When flying on the LOC, what should you limit heading changes to?
5º or less (2-3º as you approach the runway)
90
For many nonprecision approaches, you will need to establish a descent rate of about __________ to reach MDA prior to VDP.
c. 800 to 1000 fpm
91
If the runway is not in sight when you reach the VDP, you must execute a missed approach. (True/False)
b. False
92
Selecting __________ mode on the EHSI during a GPS approach will display the IAF(s), FAF, and MAP along with the courselines connecting them.
b. MAP
93
In the approach active mode, the active leg of a GPS approach is indicated on the EHSI by a __________ between waypoints.
d. green line
94
A localizer transmitter will provide course guidance and glideslope information for an approach. (True/False)
b. False
95
A/An __________ identifies a point along the final approach course that allows a normal descent (usually 3°) from the MDA to the runway.
c. visual descent point (VDP)
96
In a VOR approach in which the VOR station serves as the FAF, the final approach course will be
b. outbound on the designated radial.
97
On the GPS display, a waypoint identifier followed by a lower case “m” designates the
b. missed approach point
98
An ILS is flown down to a point where you must either establish visual reference with the runway and continue to landing, or execute a missed approach. This point is called the
d. decision altitude (DA).
99
On a localizer backcourse approach, you must set __________ in the EHSI.
a. the published front course in the course selector window
100
In most VOR approaches, you will use either __________ to indicate arrival at the FAF.
d. DME or station passage
101
To calculate VDP, you should divide the height of the MDA above the touchdown zone (HAT) by the desired approach angle times
a. 100
102
DME HOLD will not display on the EHSI when __________ is selected as the primary nav sensor.
b. GPS
103
During ILS final approach, control inputs should be minimized to prevent over controlling. You should limit pitch adjustments to 2° or less and heading corrections to __________ or less.
a. 5º
104
What are the 6 T's? What are they used for?
Accomplishing required items at the FAF
Time for the approach/backup
Turn to intercept final approach course
Torque (PCL) to set descent
Twist in final approach course on EHSI
Track final approach course inbound
Talk (report FAF if told to do so by ATC and call gear down)
105
What makes something a precision approach? What are the two most common types of precision approaches?
Glideslope information
-ILS and PAR
106
What is the useable range of the localizer?
18 NM from the antenna
107
What does a full scale deflection of the CDI equate to for an ILS?
The width of the localizer signal is 3 to 6°, depending upon runway length. This means that a full-scale deflection of the CDI is only 1.5 to 3° compared to 10° for a VOR (nonprecision) approach.
108
What does OM, MM, and IM mean on the EADI?
Associated with the ILS, the outer marker is located at the FAF, or glideslope intercept point "OM." The middle marker is located at the decision altitude point on the approach "MM." The inner marker is located between the middle marker and the end of runway "IM."
109
What is the easy formulas to calculate glide slope angles?
3° glideslope formula: (Groundspeed × 10) / 2
2.5° glideslope formula: [(Groundspeed × 10) / 2] -100
For a groundspeed of 120 knots and a 3° glideslope, you would multiply 120 by 10 (1,200) and divide the results by 2 (600).
For the same groundspeed and a 2.5° glideslope, you would subtract 100 from the 3° glideslope result (450).
110
It is important to note that an ILS final begins at _____ (lightning bolt symbol) while the localizer approach starts at the ____ (normally indicated by a Maltese cross).
It is important to note that an ILS final begins at glideslope intercept (lightning bolt symbol) while the localizer approach starts at the FAF (normally indicated by a Maltese cross).
For many ILS approaches, the glideslope intercept point and FAF are not co-located.
111
What is the pitch and power settings for a precision approach vs a non-precision approach?
Precision: 21% LoL
Non-Precision: 16% 1ºNL
112
How big of adjustments should you make while on ILS glidepath?
Pitch adjustments of 2° or less are normally all you should need to make corrections to the glidepath, while heading corrections of 5° or less should be sufficient to maintain course. (1º and 2º at DA)
113
Precision approaches are distinguished from nonprecision approaches by the addition of __________ information.
d. glideslope
114
The glideslope helps maintain the proper approach angle, which is normally between
b. 2.5 and 3º
115
Decision altitude
(DA) for the ILS approach shown is __________ feet.
For the ILS approach to runway 13R shown at right, frequency __________ MHz should be set in the NAV position on the RMU.
b. 214
a. 111.3
116
Refer to Figure 113-27. To fly the depicted approach, you should press the DME HOLD button with frequency/channel __________ set in the RMU.
c. 114.1
117
Refer to Figure 113-28. On an ILS approach with a 3° glideslope, TAS of 110 knots, and a 20-knot headwind, a descent rate of about __________ fpm should be established on the VSI.
b. 450
118
Which marker beacon is normally located at the FAF or glideslope intercept point?
c. Outer marker (OM)
119
What is an ASR? How does it differ from a PAR?
An ASR (Airport Surveillance Radar) is a nonprecision approach in which the controller provides navigational guidance in azimuth only. ASR approach radar is less precise so ASR approaches have higher minimums than PARs.
120
What is an ASR circling approach? How do you fly it in the T-6A?
The ASR circling approach is flown precisely like a straight-in approach except when you reach the MAP or acquire visual contact with the runway environment, you circle around the airfield to land on a different runway.
In the T-6A, fly the circling maneuver at 120 KIAS with TO flaps and landing gear
121
In the event your heading indicators should fail during flight, what kind of approach can you request?
Radar controllers are able to provide “no-gyro” vectors to no-gyro ASR approach.
122
What is the criteria you must meet in order to land from an ASR approach?
d. Runway environment in sight AND aircraft in a position to make a safe landing
123
When you reach final approach on a no-gyro ASR PAR, you must automatically transition to using half-standard rate turns. (True/False)
b. False
124
An ASR is a __________ approach.
b. nonprecision
125
When flying an ASR approach, the MAP is defined by
d. the controller.
126
To execute a missed approach while circling to land from an ASR, turn initially towards the
c. landing runway.
127
When flying no-gyro vectors and approach, you must acknowledge the “start/stop turn” controller directives until
a. told “do not acknowledge further transmissions.”
128
The type of equipment required to fly the __________ is listed in the title of the approach. However, other equipment may be required to fly other segments of the approach or missed approach.
b. final approach segment
129
If an approach name ends in a singular letter, such as VOR/DME-A, that letter designates that the approach
a. is a circling approach.
130
A Minimum Safe/Sector Altitude (MSA) provides __________ feet clearance over all obstacles.
c. 1000
131
When there is more than one Minimum Safe Altitude, the MSA is referred to as a Minimum Sector Altitude (True/False)
a. True
132
This symbol ( ✠ ) signifies the
d. Final Approach Fix
133
Distances shown on the Profile View are given in
a. NM
134
What aircraft approach category is the T-6?
b. B
135
What does the “S” in S-17C mean in Figure 204-1?
b. Straight-in
136
Decision Altitude (DA) is a/an __________ altitude.
c. MSL
137
Using the excerpt minimums section in Figure 204-2, what is the Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) that you would use in the T-6 for a circling approach?
b. 1760
138
Height Above Touchdown (HAT) is measured in
a. AGL
139
Using Figure 204-3, what is the height above touchdown (HAT) for the T-6 if doing the S-17C approach?
c. 403
140
1. What is the distance from the FAF to the MAP?
2. What signifies the highest elevation in the first 3000' feet of the runway?
***3. Using the provided aerodrome, what is the height of the highest obstacle?
4. Using the aerodrome sketch, what is the time from FAF to MAP at 180 GS?
1. 3.6 NM (a)
2. Touchdown Zone Elevation (a)
***3. 835' (a)
4. 1:12 (b)
141
What is a procedural track?
Procedural tracks are depicted on the published instrument procedure by a heavy black line with an arrowhead showing radials, headings, arcs, or any combination of the three to define a specific flightpath for the aircraft to follow
142
What does "NoPT" mean?
“NoPT” designation stands for no procedure turn and identifies the track(s) that are flown when the procedure turn is not required or not authorized to be flown.
143
What are the 3 types of procedural turns?
Straight-In, Arcing, Teardrop
144
Prior to the IAF, ensure you complete the ____ check. Rules for entry into a procedural track approach are relatively simple. When you pass the IAF, you should _____ to intercept the published track.
W-HOLDS
turn immediately in the shortest direction to intercept the published track
145
For descents depicted on the published instrument procedure other than at the IAF, you must first be ____ before starting your descent to the next lower altitude.
established on the appropriate segment of the procedural track
146
For a teardrop approach, how much bank is normally used for the penetration turn?
A 30-degree angle of bank is normally used during the penetration turn; however, the bank may be shallowed if undershooting course
147
As a technique, plan to start configuring the aircraft approximately __________ miles prior to the FAF.
d. 2-3
148
The term “NoPT” means that you will
c. NOT fly a procedure turn approach
149
When arriving to a destined airfield, what options do you have to get onto an approach?
Enroute Descent or fly a published high altitude approach procedure
(assuming you aren't put into holding)
150
Is it possible for a controller to make minor changes without issuing a completely new clearance?
Yes. Minor changes to a flight plan, such as altitude changes or changes in routing, are normally issued by a controller without a completely new clearance.
151
For a major flight plan change, the controller issues?
A new clearance
152
A request for an inflight clearance should be made
as far in advance as possible
153
What does WHOLDS stand for?
Weather
Holding
Obtain clearance
Let down plate
Descent check
Speed
154
ATC will only issue an inflight clearance if requested by the pilot. (T/F)
b. False
155
When receiving a new inflight clearance, you should read back any __________ the controller gives you.
a. weather information
b. altimeter settings
c. altitude and/or heading assignments
d. Both b and c
d. Both b and c
156
Where can you find a formatted guide for changing a flight plan while inflight?
b. IFR supplement
157
Before starting descent you should do what?
a. Review instrument procedures
b. Review weather
c. Check heading and attitude systems
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
158
What does the “O” stand for in the memory aid WHOLDS?
a. obtain clearance
159
What is a STAR?
Standard Arrival
STARs simplify clearance delivery procedures and facilitate the transition between enroute and instrument approach procedures.
160
What does the instruction "descend at pilot discretion" mean?
ATC has offered the pilot the option to start climb or descent when the pilot wishes, is authorized to conduct the climb or descent at any rate, and to temporarily level off at any intermediate altitude as desired. However, once the aircraft has vacated an altitude, it may not return to that altitude.
161
What is the speed restriction below 10,000 MSL?
250 KIAS or less (unless MAJCOM approved higher speed)
162
Once cleared for the approach, maintain the last assigned altitude and heading until?
established on a segment of the published approach. When you are established on the approach, comply with the published procedures.
163
If you want to descend from FL250 to 10,000 feet over 25 miles, what is your descent gradient?
What is your VSI if your ground speed is 240 KIAS?
15,000 feet in 100's of feet equals 150. 150 divided by 25 miles equals 6 degrees/nm
Ground speed = 240 KIAS / 60 = 4 * 6 * 100 = 2400 ft/min
164
As you maintain IAS throughout the descent, your TAS _____ and the VSI descent rate you calculated ______.
decreases
decreases
(T) check progress every 5000 feet
165
What is a penetration?
A penetration is a published instrument approach or procedure that enables an aircraft to transition from the enroute structure to a published instrument approach
166
What are the 3 basic instrument penetration approach procedures?
-Non-DME and DME teardrop
-Radials
-Radials and arcs
167
Certain non-DME teardrop approaches do not specify a penetration turn altitude. How do you know when to start your inbound turn?
you start the inbound turn after descending one- half the total altitude between the IAF and FAF. To calculate this altitude, simply add the IAF and FAF altitudes and divide by two.
168
What does established on course mean for different approaches?
-Within half-full-scale deflection
-Within +/-5 degrees of the required bearing for NDB
-Within full-scale deflection for LOC
-Within 1× the required accuracy for RNAV or RNP segments flown
169
When performing an enroute descent, you should specify the type of approach you desire. (T/F)
a. True
170
Performing a pilot’s discretion descent allows the pilot to
a. start the descent when the pilot chooses.
b. use any rate of descent.
c. level off at an intermediate altitude.
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
171
You are in a 4° descent angle and your airspeed is at 0.4 Mach. What is your VSI rate of descent?
d. 1600 fpm
172
Can you fly a TACAN approach in a T-6A?
b. No
173
What is the penetration airspeed normally flown in the T-6A?
d. 200 KIAS
174
If no penetration turn altitude is depicted on the approach plate, when will you begin your turn inbound on a non-
DME teardrop penetration?
c. At an altitude halfway between IAF and FAF altitude
175
You are cleared for a non-DME teardrop VOR penetration but are 3000 feet below the published IAF altitude. How long will you time outbound before descending?
c. 45 seconds
176
When flying a radial approach, as you pass the IAF,
a. turn immediately in the longest direction toward the approach course.
b. immediately configure the aircraft with gear, landing flaps, and slow to 110 KIAS.
c. immediately reduce power to IDLE and establish a minimum descent gradient of 8 – 10°nose-low.
d. turn immediately in the shorter direction toward the approach course.
d. turn immediately in the shorter direction toward the approach course.
177
When flying high-altitude radial/arc penetrations, you should calculate and use normal lead points to complete
required course/arc intercepts. (T/F)
a. True
178
You are required to reduce airspeed to 250 KIAS or less when below 10,000 MSL. (T/F)
A. True
179
Using the 60-to-1 rule, what would the descent gradient be if you need to lose15,000 feet in 20 NM?
b. 7.5º
180
Determine your groundspeed (GS) in nautical miles per minute.
GS = 180
c. 3.0 NM/min
181
Determine your groundspeed in nautical miles per minute given:
Mach = 0.5
d. 5.0 nm/min
182
What point depicted on the instrument approach procedure (IAP) chart indicates the beginning of the initial approach segment?
a. initial approach fix
183
What does the “L” stand for in the memory aid W-HOLDS?
c. Let-down plate review
184
What is the MOST COMMON lighting used at military airfields?
High-Intensity Runway Lighting, or HIRL
185
What are the 3 different types of runway lighting?
High, Medium, and Low Intensity Runway Lighting (The HIRL and MIRL systems have variable intensity controls, whereas the LIRL’s normally have one intensity setting)
-High most common at military airfields
186
Runway lighting systems or REIL that can be controlled by the pilot are identified in the airport sketch by?
a black oval with a white “L” in the center
187
How do you know the approach lighting system includes sequenced flashing lights?
A black “dot” at the top of the approach lighting identifier
(An ALS symbol in negative symbology (white on black) means that the system may be activated or controlled by the pilot)
188
How does lighting effect weather minimums?
weather minimums for instrument approaches assume applicable approach lighting systems are operating. When an ALS is inoperative, the required visibility increases for all instrument approaches to the affected runway
189
How is the MAP defined for non-precision approaches?
DME, NAVAID, timing, or GPS waypoint
190
How is the MAP defined for precision approaches?
when decision altitude (DA) is reached
191
What is the required visibility for the approach based on?
seeing a minimum landing environment from the MAP, not VDP.
(in some cases that is just being able to see the approach lights)
192
How fast do you transition from an instrument cross check to a composite crosscheck and vice versa?
A rate proportional to the rate at which outside references become reliable
193
Do not descend below 100 feet above the TDZE using the approach lights as a reference unless
the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also distinctly visible and identifiable
194
What is the major difference transitioning to land from a non-precision approach to a precision approach?
while flying a precision approach you are already on a glidepath
195
What is the primary problem in landing from an instrument approach?
the lack of visual cues due to restricted visibility
leads to spatial disorientation
196
How can bright approach lights create a visual illusion?
What about runway width?
-Bright approach lights can give the impression of being high
-runway wider than “normal” can give the impression of being closer and below glidepath
-opposite for narrow runways
197
How can you reduce susceptibility to spatial disorientation and visual illusions inflight?
-Minimize head movements
-Avoid large attitude changes
-Maintain instrument cross check
-Trust instruments!
198
At some airports, HIRL lights turn yellow __________ feet from the departure end
b. 2,000
199
All approach lighting systems have __________ lights.
d. white
200
Where can you find graphic descriptions of the configurations of various approach lighting systems?
a. Flight Information Handbook
201
Runway 34 does not have sequenced flashing lights as part of its approach lighting system (T/F)
b. False
202
What type of runway lighting is available at the airport shown in the graphic
b
203
Which of the following is not a method used to define the missed approach point for a nonprecision, nonradar
approach?
a. Timing
b. DME
c. NAVAID
d. Decision altitude (DA)
d. Decision altitude
204
When transitioning from instrument to visual references, look for the landing environment
a. directly in front of the aircraft.
b. as directed by the tower controller.
c. in the direction determined by relationship of the final course vector and visual references identified in the airport sketch.
d. in the direction of the course arrow on the EHSI.
c. in the direction determined by relationship of the final course vector and visual references identified in the airport sketch.
205
Full flaps are required when beginning the visual descent to the runway after an instrument approach (T/F)
b. False
206
Bright approach lights suddenly appearing on final approach can give an impression of being below glidepath. (T/F)
b. False
207
Flying an approach to a narrow runway may give the impression of being below glidepath on final.
b. False
208
Which lighting system can be used as a HIRL, MIRL, and LIRL system?
c.
209
The numbers on runway remaining markers represent amount of runway remaining in
a. thousands of feet
210
The missed approach point is depicted on the approach plate at
a. the end of the course arrow in the airport sketch.
b. the end of the solid black final courseline in the planform view.
c. the end of the solid black final courseline in the profile view.
d. Bothbandc
d.
211
When transitioning from instruments on an instrument final approach, begin looking for visual references
d.
212
If you transition from the MDA to a visual descent to the runway at the MAP, your aimpoint should be
b.
213
Flying an approach to a runway wider than normally experienced can give the illusion of being below the glidepath (T/F)
a. True
214
What airspeed should you maintain when using TO flaps during the visual final following an instrument approach?
b. 105 KIAS
215
When loading an approach, what is the first step to perform in order to load the approach properly and so that the waypoints will sequence?
a. Come out of OBS
216
When flying a GPS approach, what must you do if receiving radar vectors to final?
c. Enable OBS
217
