Dash-1 Section III (up until Compressor Stalls) Flashcards

1
Q

Land as soon as possible

A

An emergency shall be declared and a landing accomplished at the nearest suitable landing area considering the severity of the emergency, weather conditions, field facilities, ambi- ent lighting, and command guidance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Land as soon as practical

A

Emergency conditions are less urgent and, although the mis- sion is to be terminated, the degree of the emergency is such that an immediate landing may not be necessary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is considered a suitable landing area?

A

A suitable landing area is a hard surface runway, taxiway, or under/overrun. Landing on an unprepared surface or ditching is not recommended.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

In the AUTO start mode, what instances should the PMU terminate the start sequence?

A

If a no start is detected or if a hung or hot start is projected, the PMU should terminate the start sequence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What situations must an engine start be aborted manually? (6)

A

-ITT rate likely to exceed 1000 °C (hot start)
-ITT likely to remain between 871-1000 °C for >5 seconds
-Normal N1 increase is halted (hung start)
-No rise of ITT is evident within 10 seconds after fuel flow (no start)
-BAT BUS annunciator illuminates
-ST READY annunciator extinguishes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How do you manually abort a start?

A

PCL - OFF or
Starter Switch - Auto/Reset

(If start is initiated with PCL in the OFF position, abort by reselecting AUTO/RESET. If the PCL is past the IDLE gate, abort by placing the PCL to OFF.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

If a start using external power is either aborted by the PMU, or manually aborted for a hot, hung, or no start?

A

Do NOT attempt subsequent starts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Repeated PMU aborted start attempts are indicative of?

A

Engine malfunctions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

During ground starts what parameters may cause the PMU to abort a battery start?

A

weak battery
high OAT
high pre-start ITT
high density altitude
tailwind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What should you do if a battery start was aborted?

A

Connect external power (if available) and perform Motoring Run Procedure. Sub-sequent starts may be attempted if no engine malfunctions are evident and no limits have been exceeded.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Why would you perform a motoring run procedure?

A

After any aborted start (auto or manual) during which fuel was introduced. Motor the engine to clear residual fuel and/or lower the ITT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When moving the starter switch to NORM during a motoring start, what is important to know about the switch?

A

STARTER switch is not spring-loaded from MANUAL to NORM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the primary indications of a fire? What are some other indications of a fire?

A

The primary indications of an engine fire are illumination of the FIRE and MASTER WARN annunciators. Other indica- tions of an engine fire are visual smoke or fire, engine indi- cations (high ITT, fluctuating or high fuel flow), and notification from exterior sources such as ground crew, tower, or another aircrew.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What should you do if evidence of a fire exists during start or other ground operations?

A

perform the Emergency Engine Shutdown On The Ground procedure and Emergency Ground Egress procedure if applicable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When should you perform an emergency engine shutdown on the ground?

A

-Serious Ground Emergency
-Chip Light
-Prop Strike
-Fire
-Departing a Prepared Surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When can you begin performing the emergency ground egress checklist (if required)?

A

after the aircraft has come to a complete stop and the engine has been shut down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What items will pull free on their own whenever you perform an emergency ground egress?

A

Oxygen hose, emergency oxygen hose, communication leads, and anti-G suit hose will pull free while vacating cockpit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

If aborting a takeoff and a raised barrier is put up, what should aircrews do?

A

Steer around it, depart the prepared surface if necessary, and/or eject

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When performing the engine failure immediately after takeoff boldface, what does “PCL - AS REQUIRED” mean?

A

The pilot should select IDLE to use the increased drag of the not yet feathered propeller or select OFF to reduce the sink rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are initial indications of engine failure? What lights do you expect to see?

A

Loss of power and airspeed; rapid decay in N1, torque, and ITT; and propeller movement towards feather

The GEN, FUEL PX, and OIL PX annunciators will illuminate, followed by the OBOGS FAIL annunciator. The PMU FAIL and CKPT ALT annunciators may illuminate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What climb angle should be used for zoom to eject?

A

The zoom to eject is accomplished by pulling up to a 20° climb angle (if able) and ejecting before a sink rate develops. Zoom to eject allows the pilot to add 200 feet of altitude increase above the altitude gain noted in the zoom chart due to not pushing over

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

If attempting an airstart or positioning to land with an engine failure, what should you do above 150 KIAS? What about below 150 KIAS?

A

Above 150: zoom climb using a 2 G pull up to a 20° climb angle until approaching the desired glide airspeed (use approximately 20 KIAS lead point) and then initiating a 0 to +0.5 G push- over to capture desired glide airspeed

Below 150: constant altitude deceleration to desired glide airspeed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is considered “usable torque”?

A

Greater than 6%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Will the propellor fully feather if the PCL is above OFF?

A

No. Propeller will not feather unless the PCL is fully in OFF.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the lowest the N1 will indicate?

A

8% (below that is just reads 0%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

At 125 KIAS, how would you know that the engine flamed out?

A

At 125 KIAS, an engine which has flamed out will rotate below 8% N1 and indicate 0% N1. The engine oil pressure indicator may display oil pres- sures up to 4 psi with or without the engine seized.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When should you NOT attempt an airstart?

A

Fire, FOD, Frozen, Final

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Approximately how much time and how much altitude will an airstart cost if pitching for best glide speed (125 KIAS)?

A

1200 feet
40 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

For an airstart: the higher the altitude, and the slower the airspeed, the ____ the starting ITT peak temperature.

A

warmer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the airstart envelope?

A

Consideration should be given to ensure airstarts are attempted within the airstart envelope (125-200 KIAS for sea level to 15,000 feet, or 135-200 KIAS for 15,001-20,000 feet)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Why must the PCL go off in an airstart?

A

PCL must be in OFF to feather the propeller, and ensure proper starter, ignition, boost pump, and PMU operation during airstart.
Also, so fuel is not introduced prematurely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

If N1 does not rise within __ seconds, discontinue the airstart attempt and proceed to IF AIRSTART IS UNSUCCESSFUL due to ____.

A

5 seconds
suspected mechanical failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

For an airstart, movement of the PCL above IDLE before N1 stabilizes at approximately 67% will cause what?

A

an increase in fuel flow which may cause engine failure due to a severe ITT overtemperature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

For an airstart, what should you do if there is no rise in ITT within 10 seconds?

A

If there is no rise in ITT within 10 seconds after fuel flow indications, place the PCL to OFF and abort the start.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

If the generator switch will not reset after a start, what should you check?

A

Verify the STARTER switch is in NORM. The starter will drain battery power in 10 minutes if left in MANUAL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What happens if there is continuous operation of the boost pump?

A

Continuous operation with the BOOST PUMP switch in the ON position will cause damage to the engine-driven low pressure fuel pump. Upon landing, notify maintenance of the duration of flight with BOOST PUMP switch in the ON position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The most critical pilot action during the PMU OFF start is

A

PCL movement while monitoring fuel flow, ITT, and N1 acceleration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Is a motoring run always required following an abort start?

A

No. If no fuel was introduced to the engine, there is no fuel to clear or temperature to reduce

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

When are you NOT allowed to attempt a subsequent start?

A

-If external power was used on a start attempt and you have a hot, hung, or no start
-Limits were exceeded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the 6 stated reasons for aborting an engine start?

A

-Hot Start (ITT likely to exceed 1,000 ºC)
-Hung Start (Normal N1 increase is halted)
-No start (no rise in ITT within 10 seconds of fuel flow)
-BAT BUS light
-ST READY light extinguishes
-ITT likely to exceed 871-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Who is responsible for commanding an ejection and what words will you use to initiate it?

A

the Aircraft Commander will say “BAILOUT, BAILOUT, BAILOUT.” Use the term ejection at all other times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

During an emergency ground egress, exit the aircraft at a ___º angle. Meet at a safe distance (approx. ___ feet) from the aircraft on the egress side

A

45º and 300 feet

43
Q

You must get a rise in ITT within ____ seconds after fuel flow indication; otherwise, abort the start

A

10 seconds

44
Q

What circumstances would you accomplish the EMERGENCY ENGINE SHUTDOWN ON THE GROUND procedure?

A

Fire, Prop Strike, Chip Light, Departing Prepared Surface, or any other Serious ground emergency

45
Q

How would you accomplish the Turn, Climb, Clean, Check, Boost Pump, Ignition, and Plan (TCCCBIP) process following an engine/thrust anomaly?

A

Turn: immediately to the nearest suitable airfield
Climb: to trade airspeed for altitude (20º NH, 2-G pull if greater than 150 KIAS; 0-0.5 G pushover if below 150)
Clean: gear, flaps, landing gear
Check: Look, Listen, Feel for signs of impending engine failure
Boost Pump & Ignition: for fuel related malfunctions
Plan: to intercept high key

46
Q

Before beginning an emergency ground egress, what 2 conditions must first be met?

A
  1. Aircraft is stopped
  2. Engine has been shutdown
47
Q

Which of the following items are available in BOTH cockpits?
a. Boost Pump
b. Emergency Landing Gear Handle
c. ISS mode selector
d. PMU switch

A

a. Boost Pump

48
Q

If physiological symptoms are recognized, pulling the green ring is _____ if cockpit altitude is above 10,000’; it is _____ below 10,000’

A

Required, optional

49
Q

(T/F) You can attempt an opposite runway landing at KCBM?

A

False

50
Q

If engine failure is suspected above ____ knots, initiate a zoom climb using a ____ G pull up to a ____ degree climb angle until approaching the desired glide airspeed (approx. 20 KIAS lead point) and then initiate a ___ to ___ G pushover to capture the desired glide airspeed

A

150; 2; 0 to 0.5

51
Q

What information do you give to the controlling agency when you declare an emergency?

A

Callsign, Aircraft type, and tail number
Position
Nature of emergency
Fuel on board (in hours and minutes)
Number of individuals on board
Landing Intentions

52
Q

When would you NOT attempt a restart?

A

Fire, FOD, Frozen, Feet

53
Q

The airspeed envelope for an airstart is ___ to ___ up to 15,000’ MSL and ____ to _____ above 15,000’ MSL

A

125-200
135-200

54
Q

What are the indications of an Uncommanded Propeller Feather?

A

Rapid reduction in Np with high torque
Increase in propeller noise
A noticeable loss of thrust
Possible engine/airframe vibrations
PMU may go offline

55
Q

What are initial indications of engine failure/flameout?

A

-Loss of power and airspeed
-Rapid decay in N1, torque, and ITT
-Propeller moves toward feather

56
Q

What annunciators will eventually illuminate?

A

GEN, FUEL PX, and OIL PX
then, OBOGS FAIL

57
Q

Initial reaction to any malfunction at low altitude should be?

A

trade excess airspeed for altitude
Higher altitude translates directly to additional terrain clearance for ejection, additional glide range to reach a suitable landing, or additional time to achieve an airstart

58
Q

How much altitude is gained when zooming to eject?

A

200 knots: 600-900 feet
250 knots: 1170-1550 feet
(numbers vary for aircraft weight and pressure altitudes)

59
Q

The zoom to eject procedure will gain an additional ___ feet of altitude?

A

200 feet

60
Q

When should the “Uncommanded Power Changes/Loss of Power/Uncommanded Propeller Feather” procedure be used?

A

Whenever uncommanded power changes occur or the engine fails to produce the expected power

61
Q

What is the most apparent indication of an engine rollback?

A

Uncommanded reduction in power/thrust

Also, if the PMU is still online: lower than expected fuel flow, uncommanded decrease in N1, and high raw ITT (RITT)
If the PMU goes offline: anticipate a step change in engine power as the fuel metering unit reverts to the nominal condition for manual control

62
Q

What may be causing the uncomanded propeller feather? What part of the action items helps alleviate this? (How long does it take?)

A

A loss of thrust caused by uncommanded propeller feathering may be the result of an errant electrical signal to the feather dump solenoid causing reduction in oil pressure to the propeller pitch control mechanism. In the case of an errant electrical signal, opening the PROP SYS circuit breaker will remove power from the feather dump solenoid and allow oil pressure to return, which brings the propeller out of a fully feathered state in 15-20 seconds.

63
Q

What are indications of a propeller feathering?

A

-Rapid reduction in propeller RPM (Np)
-Loss of thrust
-Propeller noise
-Possibly engine/airframe vibrations

64
Q

What is a porp-sleeve touchdown and what are its indications?

A

the propeller moves toward feather due to a temporary loss of oil pressure to the propeller pitch control mechanism

-fluctuating Np
-Torque increasing
-Thrust decreasing
-Engine vibrations
-possible CHIP light

65
Q

Why do we turn the PMU - OFF during a Prop Sleeve Touchdown?

A

The PMU normally controls the propeller through the propeller interface unit (PIU) With PMU OFF, oil pressure and volume output to the propeller pitch control are increased. This additional capacity in the manual mode may be able to overcome a localized reduction in oil pressure caused by the propsleeve touch-down and restore propeller control.

66
Q

What is PCL - MID RANGE and why is it part of the boldface?

A

Mid-range is a physical PCL angle the approximates the position b/w IDLE and MAX
-PCL position above idle provides the best chance for the engine to recover
-Mid-range PCL position minimizes the chances of engine overtorque and/or overtemp when the PMU is turned OFF (next step)

67
Q

What are the cautions associated with turning the PMU - OFF during the boldface?

A

-Potential for ITT limits to be exceeded w/o the PMU (>= 820 ºC)
-Ground idle will NOT be available so plan for increased landing distances due to rollout and taxi

68
Q

How do you know if Np is STABLE BELOW 40%?

A

With constant airspeed and torque, RPM can be considered stable if below 40% with no upward change for a 3-second period

69
Q

If the Np indicator is displaying dashes, what should you do?

A

Switch the PMU back to NORM and then back to OFF to reset the PMU and restore the Np indication

70
Q

How long will it take the propeller to come out of feather after pulling the PROP SYS CIRCUIT BREAKER

A

15-20 seconds

71
Q

After preforming the “Uncommanded” Boldface, what is the next step? What Warning and Note is given for this step?

A

PCL - As required

Warning: if rate of descent exceeds 1500 ft/min while stabilized at 125 KIAS, clean, and 4-6% torque -> increase torque as necessary (up to 131%) to achieve ~1350 to 1500 ft/min
*If engine power is insufficient to slow the descent rate below 1500 ft/min, set PCL to OFF

Note: Pilot should consider moving the PCL through all power ranges to determine power available

72
Q

After completing the “Uncommanded” Boldface due to uncommnded propeller feather, and ITT and torque are within limits despite insufficient power, you should consider?

A

Leaving the engine running
It is possible for the propeller to eventually unfeather and restore useful power
Also, an operating engine will provide power to accessories functions such as OBOGS, DEFOG, pressurization, and hydraulic equipment

73
Q

What is the warning associated with leaving the PROP SYS circuit breaker pulled?

A

With the PROP SYS circuit breaker pulled and the PMU switch OFF, the feather dump solenoid will not be powered. The propeller will feather at a slower rate as oil pressure decreases and the feathering spring takes effect. Glide performance will be considerably reduced and it may not be possible to intercept or fly the emergency landing pattern.

74
Q

How many indications are needed to confirm a fire in flight? What are those indications?

A

FIRE and MASTER WARNING
plus, smoke; flames; engine vibration; unusual sounds; high ITT; and fluctuating oil pressure, oil temperature, or hydraulic pressure

75
Q

What should you do if the fire is not confirmed?

A

Execute a precautionary emergency landing

76
Q

What should you do if the fire does not extinguish after accomplishing the Boldface?

A

Eject (BOTH)

77
Q

What could be a reason for a fire light that cannot be confirmed?

A

High engine compartment temperatures resulting from a bleed air leak may cause illumination of the fire warning light. Reducing the PCL setting towards IDLE will decrease the amount of bleed air and possibly extinguish the fire warning light; however, advancing the PCL might be required to intercept the ELP. Regardless of reducing or advancing the PCL, continue to investigate for indications confirming an engine fire.

78
Q

If the fire cannot be confirmed, and conditions permit, what could you do to test the fire warning system?

A

If only one fire loop annunciator is illuminated (top or bot- tom half only), a false fire indication may exist if the other loop tests good.

79
Q

What is the first and critical action step for Smoke and Fume Elimination/Electrical Fire?

A

OBOGS - CHECK (BOTH)
a. OBOGS supply lever - ON
b. OBOGS concentration lever - MAX
c. OBOGS pressure lever - EMERGENCY

80
Q

What happens when you switch the PRESSURIZATION switch to RAM/DUMP?

A

-Defog is turned off
-However, bleed air inflow is not shut off

81
Q

How long will the standby attitude indicator provide accurate indications after a loss of all electrical power?

A

At least 9 minutes

82
Q

At night/IMC, what should be considered turning on for standby instrument lighting? (Or for UHF radio)

A

AUX BAT

83
Q

What happens to OBOGS once the main battery is depleted or with battery failure?

A

OBOGS will be inoperative

84
Q

With the battery and generator off, how must you extend the landing gear?

A

Emergency landing gear system

85
Q

Why would an OBOGS system failure occur?

A

An OBOGS system failure will occur if the engine is not running or if the battery fails (OBOGS FAIL annunciator illuminated), and also due to an OBOGS heat exchanger failure (OBOGS TEMP annunciator illuminated). OBOGS system failure may occur without annunciator illumination and may be indicated by physiological symptoms

86
Q

How much oxygen does the emergency oxygen bottle provide? When is it mandatory to use it?

A

Approx. 10 minutes
Mandatory to use if cockpit altitude is above 10,000 feet MSL

87
Q

When breathing oxygen under increased pressure, breathe at a rate and depth?
What becomes difficult with the emergency oxygen system?

A

slightly less than normal to preclude hyperventilation
verbal communication may become difficult

88
Q

How do you activate the emergency oxygen system and how much force may be required?

A

Sharply pull the green ring up and aft to activate the emergency oxygen system. Several up and aft pull attempts may be required to fully activate oxygen flow. As much as 40 pounds of force may be required

89
Q

How do you know the generator is inoperative?

A

DC Voltmeter is below 25 knots and negative amps
(plus, GEN light)

90
Q

How long will the main battery run with the bus tie switch open?

A

at least 30 minutes (Battery voltage and ammeter cannot be directly monitored due to loss of the associated display)

91
Q

What happens to the cockpit when power to the battery bus is lost?

A

the cockpit will depressurize

92
Q

Compressor stalls may be initially identified by?

A

abnormal engine noise, increasing ITT, and decreasing N1 and torque, possibly followed by fluctuations in these indications

93
Q

What is the major difference between a stall and an uncommanded power change/loss of power/uncommanded propeller feather to diagnose?

A

Audible indications, which may include loud bangs, backfires, or engine sputtering. Flames and/or smoke may also be visible from the exhaust stacks

94
Q

Memory Checklist for Compressor Stalls?

A
  1. PCL - slowly retard below stall threshold
  2. DEFOG switch - ON
  3. PCL - slowly advance (as required)
  4. Sufficient power? PEL
  5. Insufficient power? PCL-off Firewall Shutoff Handle - pull Eject/Forced Landing
95
Q

Why do we turn the DEFOG switch - ON for a compressor stall?

A

Setting the DEFOG switch to ON automatically selects high bleed air inflow and will alleviate back pressure on the engine compressor.

96
Q

Power-on and inverted departures or spins will result in high loads on the engine and torque shaft. If an inverted or power-on departure is encountered, pilots should? The pilot should suspect?

A

land as soon as conditions permit
possible engine damage and may experience unusual engine operation

97
Q

Illumination of the fire warning light accompanied by one or more of the following indications is confirmation of an engine fire?

A

smoke; flames; engine vibration; unusual sounds; high ITT; and fluctuating oil pressure, oil temperature, or hydraulic pressure

98
Q

After performing the fire in flight boldface, what should your next actions be?

A

If fire goes out -> Forced Landing
If fire does not go out -> Eject

If fire could not be confirmed -> PEL

99
Q

What could cause the fire light to illuminate that is not actually a fire?

A

High engine compartment temperatures resulting from a bleed air leak may cause illumination of the fire warning light. Reducing the PCL setting towards IDLE will decrease the amount of bleed air and possibly extinguish the fire warning light. Regardless of reducing or advancing the PCL, continue to investigate for indications confirming an engine fire

100
Q

If a fire cannot be confirmed, what could be at fault?

A

If the fire cannot be confirmed, the fire warning system may be at fault and should be tested as conditions permit. If only one fire loop annunciator is illuminated (top or bottom half only), a false fire indication may exist if the other loop tests good.

101
Q

If you perform a PEL with an unconfirmed fire, once you land what should you do next?

A

Emergency Engine Shutdown on the Ground
(you have 1 indication of a fire which is all you need on the ground)

102
Q

What is the memory checklist for Smoke and Fume Elimination/Electrical FIre?

A
  1. Gangload
  2. Descent below 10,000 feet MSL
  3. Pressurization switch - RAM/DUMP
  4. Bleed Air Flow
103
Q

If aircraft control is jeopardized due to smoke or fumes, what options does the pilot have?

A

CFS handle or Ejection