Aerodynamics Flashcards

1
Q

Vector

A

a quantity that represents magnitude and direction. It is commonly used to represent displacement, velocity, acceleration, and force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Displacement

A

the distance and direction of a body’s movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Velocity

A

speed and direction of a body’s motion (the rate of change of position)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Acceleration

A

rate of a body’s change of velocity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Force
How is calculated?

A

push or pull exerted on a body
Force is mass X acceleration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A vector is represented by a(n)?

A

arrow. The length of the arrow represents the magnitude and the heading of the arrow represents the direction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Can vectors be added together?

A

Vectors may be added by placing the head of the first vector on the tail of the second and drawing a third vector from the tail of the first to the head of the second. This new vector is the resulting magnitude and direction of the original two vectors working together.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Mass (m)

A

quantity of molecular material that comprises an object.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Volume (v)

A

amount of space occupied by an object

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Density (ρ)

A

mass per unit of volume (Mass divided by Volume)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Work (W)
How is calculated?

A

when a force acts upon a body and moves it
a scalar quantity equal to the Force (F) times the distance of displacement (s), or W = F × s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Power (P)

A

rate of doing work or work done per unit of time (t)
or P = W / time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Horsepower

A

a unit of measurement used to express the amount of power being produced. Horsepower is calculated by dividing the results of either power formula above by 550 (this is a unit conversion using the units of pounds, feet, and seconds)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Weight (W)

A

force with which a mass is attracted toward the center of Earth by gravity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Moment (M)
How is it calculated?

A

what is created when a force is applied at some distance from an axis or fulcrum, producing rotation about that point.
The distance from the axis or fulcrum to the point of force is called the Moment Arm
Moment = Force x Distance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Energy
What are the two forms?

A

a scalar measure of a body’s capacity to do work. There are two forms of energy: potential energy (P.E.) and kinetic energy (K.E.). Total energy (T.E.) is the sum of potential energy and kinetic energy
Energy is required for work (W)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Potential Energy (P.E)

A

the ability of a body to do work because of its position or state of being. Potential energy is a function of mass, gravity, and height (MGH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Kinetic Energy (K.E.)

A

the ability of a body to do work because of its motion. It is a function of mass and velocity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Energy cannot be created nor destroyed but may be ____ from one form (potential or kinetic) to the other. This principle is called ____ of energy.
For example, if a T-6A is in level, unaccelerated flight at a constant altitude and airspeed, both kinetic and potential energy are ____ .If you were to push the nose over you would lose altitude (____ energy) but “transform” that altitude loss into increased airspeed (____ energy) (Figure 1-10).

A

transformed
conservation
constant
potential
kinetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is Newton’s First Law called? What does it say?

A

The first law is the “Law of Equilibrium.”
“A body at rest tends to remain at rest and a body in motion tends to remain in motion in a straight line at a constant velocity unless acted upon by some unbalanced force.”
Describes inertia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is Newton’s Second Law? What does it say?

A

Newton’s second law is the “Law of Acceleration”:
“An unbalanced force acting upon a body produces an acceleration in the direction of the force that is directly proportional to the force and inversely proportional to the mass of the body.”
When the thrust of an aircraft is greater than its drag, the excess thrust will cause the aircraft to accelerate until the increasing drag equals thrust.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is Newton’s Third Law? What does it say?

A

Newton stated a third law, the “Law of Interaction.”
“For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.”
This law is demonstrated when the rearward force from an aircraft propeller’s prop wash causes an aircraft to thrust forward with an equal amount of force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the three characteristics of air?

A

Pressure, Temperature, and Density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Ambient static pressure
How does it change with altitude?

A

a measurement of the weight of an air column over a specific area.
As altitude increases, there are fewer particles in a given column of air, thus ambient static pressure is less because the column of air above you weighs less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Air density
How does it change with altitude?

A

the total mass of air particles for a given volume.
As altitude increases, the distance between particles is greater (fewer particles of air for a given volume). This means that as altitude increases, air density decreases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Temperature
How does it change with altitude?

A

Temperature is the measure of the average kinetic energy of the air particles.
Air temperature decreases at a rate of 2 °C for every 1000 feet. This is called the average, or standard, lapse rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What does the General Gas Law describe?

A

relationship between four basic atmospheric properties
(P) Pressure
(ρ) Density
(T) Temperature
(R) Universal Gas Constant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Fluid

A

any substance, liquid or gaseous, that has the ability to flow. Our atmosphere is a “gaseous fluid,” which means “airflow” is subject to the laws of fluid motion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the three types of pressure?

A

Static pressure, dynamic pressure, and total pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Static Pressure (Ps)

A

the force that molecules of air exert on each other by their random movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Dynamic Pressure (PD)

A

a measure of impact pressure of a large group of air molecules moving together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Total Pressure (PT)

A

sum of static and dynamic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What 3 things must remain constant in a streamtube?

A

Mass, Total Energy, and Total Pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

If the cross-sectional area on one side of streamtube decreases, what must increase so that mass flow remains constant?

A

Velocity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the 3 types of altitudes?

A

True altitude, Pressure altitude, and Density altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

True altitude

A

actual height above mean sea level (MSL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Pressure altitude

A

a height measured above a standard datum plane.
The standard datum plane is the actual elevation at which the barometric pressure is equal to 29.92 inHg which means on a standard day: pressure altitude = true altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Density altitude

A

pressure altitude corrected for temperature deviations from the standard atmosphere. Density altitude is not used as an actual “height reference” but rather as an index for gauging aircraft performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

On a standard day, what altitudes are equal?

A

All of them
True = Pressure = Density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What happens to aircraft performance as Density Altitude is increased? Why does this happen?

A

Performance will decrease
because less engine power is produced when fewer air molecules are available to burn and because a propeller creates less thrust when it has fewer air molecules to push aft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

A high DA requires ___ true airspeeds for takeoff and landing resulting in ___ takeoff and landing distances

A

higher and longer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

True Airspeed (TAS)

A

the actual speed at which an aircraft moves through an airmass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Groundspeed (GS)
How does it compare to TAS?

A

the speed at which an aircraft moves relative to the ground.
It is true airspeed corrected for winds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Indicated Airspeed (IAS)

A

the speed that the pilot reads off the airspeed indicator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How does the airspeed indicator work?

A

The airspeed indicator shows dynamic pressure. It takes the total pressure of the air through the pitot tube and subtracts the static pressure from the static port to obtain dynamic pressure or IAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The airspeed indicator is calibrated at the factory for standard day at sea level, where IAS equals TAS. What happens to TAS if IAS is held constant while climbing to a higher altitude?

A

Since air density decreases with an increase in altitude, TAS increases if IAS is held constant while climbing to a higher altitude.

at a constant IAS, TAS increases approximately 3 knots for each 1,000 foot increase in altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Calibrated airspeed (CAS)

A

indicated airspeed corrected for either indicator error or for minor sensing errors caused by the location of the pitot-static system on an airplane (can be mostly ignored for subsonic airspeeds)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Equivalent airspeed (EAS)

A

calibrated airspeed corrected for errors caused by compressibility effects (can be mostly ignored for subsonic airspeeds)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Airfoil

A

a streamlined shape designed to produce lift as it moves through the air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Mean Camber Line

A

the major design feature of an airfoil. It is a line drawn from the leading edge to the trailing edge, halfway between the upper and lower surface of the airfoil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Chordline

A

an infinitely long straight line drawn through the leading and trailing edges of the airfoil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Chord

A

the segment of the chordline measured from the leading edge to the trailing edge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Root chord, Tip chord, and Average chord

A

The root chord is the chord at the wing root, and the tip chord is the chord measured at the wingtip. Average chord is the average of all chords from the wing root to the wingtip.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Camber

A

the curvature of the mean camber line of an airfoil. Camber is measured by finding the maximum distance between the mean camber line and the chord line.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Symmetric Airfoil

A

A symmetric airfoil has zero camber. The MCL and chord are the same. There is as much cross-section above the chord as below the chord, hence the term symmetric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Positively cambered Airfoil

A

A positively cambered airfoil has the MCL above the chord. There is more cross-section above the chord than below the chord. This cambered airfoil produces lift at zero angle of attack.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Negatively cambered Airfoil

A

A negatively cambered airfoil has the MCL below the chord. There is more cross-section below the chord than above the chord. You have probably seen negatively cambered airfoils on high-performance race cars.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Spanwise Flow

A

airflow that travels along the span of the wing, parallel to the leading edge
This airflow does not accelerate over the wing and therefore does not create liftC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Chordwise Flow

A

air that flows at right angles to the leading edge of the airfoil
Since it is the only flow that accelerates over a wing, it is the only airflow that produces lift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Pitch Attitude

A

the angle between the longitudinal axis of an airplane and the horizon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Flightpath

A

an aircraft’s apparent motion through an airmass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Relative wind

A

the apparent motion of the air with respect to the motion of the aircraft. The relative wind is in the direction opposite the flightpath.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Angle of Attack (AoA)

A

the angle between the chordline of the airfoil and the relative wind
Do NOT confuse this with pitch attitude.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Angle of Incidence

A

the angle between the airplane’s longitudinal axis and the chordline of its wing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Dihedral Angle

A

The angle of the upslope or downslope of the wings when viewed from head on.
Upslope is considered dihedral, and a downslope or negative dihedral is called anhedral.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Wingspan
What is the T-6A’s wingspan?

A

he distance from wingtip to wingtip
The T-6A wingspan is 33 feet 5 inches.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Wing area (S)
How is it calculated?

A

he apparent surface area of a wing within an outline of the wing on the plane of its chord. It is approximated by multiplying the wingspan (b) by the average chord (c)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Wing loading (WL)

A

the ratio of an aircraft’s weight to the surface area of the wings or WL = Weight / S.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Wing Taper

A

reduction in the chord for a given airfoil from the root to the tip, and is measured by dividing the tip chord by the root chord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the benefit of tapered wings?

A

Tapered wings provide reduced weight and increased structural stiffness compared to a rectangular wing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Sweep Angle?

A

the angle between the quarter chord line (a line that is 25% of the chord and not parallel to the leading edge) and a line parallel to the lateral axis of the aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

The T-6A wing is both?

A

tapered and swept

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Aspect Ratio (AR)

A

ratio of the wingspan (b) to the average chord (c)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is an example of an aircraft with a high aspect ratio and an example of a low aspect ratio?

A

An aircraft with a high aspect ratio (35:1), such as a glider, would have a long slender wing
A low aspect ratio (3:1) indicates a short stubby wing such as an F-22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What 3 things define an airplane’s Center of Gravity (CG)?

A

-where the 3 axes intersect
-where all weight is concentrated
-point which movements are measured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

3 axis of rotation

A

Longitudinal/Roll/Ailerons
Lateral/Pitch/Elevator
Vertical/Yaw/Rudder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Aerodynamic center (AC)

A

the point where all aerodynamic forces are acting (also known as center of lift)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

How is the aerodynamic center typically positioned compared to the center of gravity?

A

The aerodynamic center (AC) point is typically aft of the aircraft’s CG to provide improved longitudinal stability around the lateral or pitch axis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Weight and balance is concerned with the position of the CG in reference to the?

A

mean aerodynamic chord (MAC)
if the aircraft CG is too far aft, there will not be enough elevator authority to maintain level flight (the airplane will want to continue to pitch up into an eventual stall). If it is too far forward the opposite happens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Mass/Volume represents?

A

Density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is done when a force acts upon a body and moves it?

A

Work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Which of Newton’s Laws state that “a body at rest tends to remain at rest and a body in motion tends to remain in motion…unless acted upon by some unbalanced force”?

A

Law of Equilibrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

The measurement of the average kinetic energy of air particles is called

A

Temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

**(True/False) Dynamic pressure is the measurement of force that molecules exert on each other in a still fluid.**

A

True (need clarification for this one)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

In a streamtube, where is the greatest total pressure?

A

The total pressure is the same everywhere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

As the area of the streamtube decreases?

A

Velocity increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

A higher than standard day density altitude will do what to the takeoff roll?

A

increase takeoff roll (and decrease climb performance)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

(T/F) Groundspeed is indicated airspeed corrected for winds.

A

False. Groundspeed is TRUE AIRSPEED corrected for winds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

True Airspeed (TAS) must ____ as you climb in altitude with a constant indicated airspeed (IAS)

A

increase by ~3 knots per 1000 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

The apparent motion of the air with respect to the motion of the aircraft is defined as the

A

Relative wind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Angle of Attack is the angle between the

A

relative wind and chordline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is the benefit of a tapered wing?

A

Structural stiffness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What kind of aircraft have a very high aspect ratio?

A

Gliders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Having a CG that is too far aft causes the aircraft to exhibit

A

a tendency to pitch up into a stall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is the point from which movements in roll, yaw, and pitch axes are measured

A

Center of gravity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

The axis about which the airplane’s nose moves up and down is the

A

lateral or pitch axis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is created when a force is applied some distance from an axis, producing rotation

A

Moment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Mass per unit volume defines?

A

Density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

The ability of a body to do work due to its position or state of being

A

Potential energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

“For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.”

A

The Law of Interaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

True airspeed will be ____ indicated airspeed at 10,000 feet altitude.

A

greater than

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is a measure of the wing along the chordline, from the leading edge to the trailing edge?

A

the chord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Air density is ____ at 10,000 feet compared to 5,000 feet

A

lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Altimeter setting for a standard day? What altitudes are equal?

A

29.92; pressure altitude = true altitude (and DA if temp is standard)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is the point at which all weight is concentrated?

A

Center of Gravity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What axis is where the aircraft nose moves left or right about the Cg?

A

Yaw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What are the four primary forces acting on an aircraft in flight?

A

Weight, Lift, Thrust, and Drag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Equilibrium

A

Absence of acceleration (an aircraft in SLUF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Does an aircraft have to be in straight and level flight to be in equilibrium?

A

No. An aircraft can be climbing but not accelerating or decelerating. In a climb or descent, equilibrium occurs when lift equals the “perpendicular” component of weight and thrust is equal to the sum of drag plus the “parallel” component of weight.

This means that for equilibrium flight in a climb or descent, the thrust component must be greater in a climb or less in a descent than it is for unaccelerated level flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

During the takeoff ground run, ___ exceeds ___ (and friction) and ___ exceeds ___

A

thrust exceeds drag (and friction) and weight exceeds lift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

At liftoff, ___ exceeds ___. ____ still exceeds ____ as the aircraft accelerates.

A

lift exceeds weight; thrust still exceeds drag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Aerodynamic force

A

a force that is the result of pressure and friction distribution over an airfoil (Lift and Drag)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

The aerodynamic force acting perpendicular to the relative wind

A

Lift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

The aerodynamic force acting parallel and in the same direction as the relative wind

A

Drag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

The pressures acting on an airfoil are the result of

A

dynamic pressure (the air is being accelerated around the airfoil which decreases static pressure both above and below it)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

On a positively cambered airfoil, the static pressure above the airfoil is

A

less than the static pressure below the airfoil. This differential pressure causes lift in the upward direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What is the Lift equation?

A

Lift = Cl 1/2 p V^2 S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What three lift equation factors can a pilot control?

A

Velocity, Angle of Attack, and Shape (or camber)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What is the relationship between CL and AOA?

A

CL increases with increasing AOA until reaching CLMAX
The AOA that corresponds to CLMAX point is called the critical angle of attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What happens if you increase aircraft AOA beyond the critical angle of attack?

A

a decrease in coefficient of lift due to boundary layer separation. This loss of lift is called a stall.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

In straight-and-level flight, as angle of attack is increased, the pilot has to

A

decrease velocity to maintain level flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Does a symmetric airfoil produce lift at 0 AoA? Why or why not?

A

No. Airflow over the top of a symmetric airfoil at zero degrees AOA travels the same distance as airflow over the bottom surface. This results in identical changes in static pressure both above and below the airfoil. Since no differential in pressure exists, no lift is produced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Does a cambered airfoil produce lift at 0 AoA? Why or why not?

A

Yes. At zero degrees AOA, airflow over the upper surface of a positively cambered airfoil must travel a greater distance as compared to the bottom surface. This increased dynamic pressure results in a lower static pressure on the upper surface compared to the lower surface. The static pressure differential pulls the wing upward, creating a lift force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Aerodynamic twist
What does it do for an airfoil?

A

a decrease in camber from the wing root to the wingtip
Since a positively cambered airfoil stalls at a lower angle of attack, the wing root will stall before the wingtip.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Geometric twist
What does it do for an airfoil?

A

a decrease in the angle of incidence from wing root to wingtip. The root is mounted at some angle to the longitudinal axis, and the leading edge of the remainder of the wing is gradually twisted downward so that the angle of incidence at the wingtip is less.

Wing root is always at a greater AoA than the wingtip, thus stalling first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Does the T-6A have aerodynamic twist or geometric twist?

A

The T-6A has both aerodynamic twist and geometric twist.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Can drag ever be zero?

A

Because there is always some resistance to motion, drag can never be zero.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What are the two types of drag that combine to create total drag?

A

Parasite drag and Induced drag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Parasite drag

A

drag that is not associated with the production of lift
composed: Form, Friction, and Interference
increases as velocity increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Form drag
What is it dependent on?

A

the separation of airflow from a surface and the wake that is created by that separation
The amount of form drag produced by an object is dependent upon the object’s shape and size of its frontal area exposed to the relative wind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Friction drag
How can it be reduced?

A

caused by turbulent airflow in the boundary layer
Friction drag can be reduced by smoothing the exposed surfaces of the airplane through painting, cleaning, waxing, etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

How does keeping airflow in the boundary layer turbulent impact form and friction drag?

A

Keeping the airflow in the boundary layer turbulent makes it adhere to the surface better, reducing form drag with only a slight penalty in friction drag.
If the boundary layer were all laminar (smooth) airflow, it would easily separate from the surface creating a large wake behind the airfoil and increasing form drag.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Interference drag
How can it be reduced?

A

generated by mixing airstreams between aircraft components, such as the wing and fuselage
can be reduced by proper fairing and filleting to smooth out the point where the airstreams meet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Induced drag
What is its relationship with velocity?

A

Induced drag is that component of drag that is associated with the production of lift.
As velocity increases, induced drag decreases. This is generally due to a lower angle of attack and the aircraft becoming more streamlined.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Why does induced drag happen?

A

Although the upwash and downwash created by chordwise flow are equal and counteract each other, some of the higher pressure air below the finite wing flows spanwise to the wingtip to try to equalize the pressure around the wing.
After the air flows up and around the wingtip, it mixes with the chordwise flow and creates additional downwash at the trailing edge.
Downwash is 2x greater than upwash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What factors increase induced drag?

A

Increased weight, decreased velocity, decreased wingspan, or decreased air density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What is a way to reduce induced drag?

A

Install devices to impede spanwise flow around the wingtip, such as winglets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Total drag curve is the combination of the parasite drag and induced drag curves. Is the total drag curve dependent on factors such as weight, altitude, or configuration?

A

Yes. These curves are plotted for a given weight, altitude, and configuration. Should any of these change, the curves would shift.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What is used to determine the efficiency of a wing?

A

The ratio of lift vs. drag (L/D)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

At what point is L/D greatest? What is true at this point?

A

L/D Max
-Minimum total drag
-Parasite drag and induced drag are equal!!
-Greatest ratio of lift to drag (not maximum lift)
-The most efficient angle of attack for the wing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What is ground effect, when does it happen, and why?

A

Ground effect is a phenomenon that significantly reduces induced drag (Di) and increases effective lift when the airplane is within one wingspan of the ground. When the airplane is close to the ground, the downwash at the trailing edge of the wing is blocked by the ground and creates more effective lift and a “floating” sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

What is Thrust Horsepower describing?

A

Propeller output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What is Shaft Horsepower describing?

A

Engine output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Propeller efficiency (p.e.)

A

The ability of a propeller to convert engine output (SHP) into thrust (THP)
p.e. = THP / SHP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Why is propeller efficiency never 100%?

A

friction in the reduction gearbox and drag from the propeller

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

What happens to all propellers as altitude or temperature increases?

A

They become less efficient because there is less air for the blades to bite and produce thrust
(a variable pitch propeller like the T-6A will increase blade angle to help minimize lost thrust)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

In equilibrium flight, total thrust must equal total drag. Therefore, the thrust required graph is just?

A

an overlay of the total drag curve (where L/D Max is the same)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

If you accelerate past L/D Max, what drag will increase at a greater rate? What if you decelerate?

A

Accelerate -> Parasite
Decelerate -> Induced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What is Thrust Available and why does it decrease with velocity?

A

Thrust available (TA) is the amount of thrust that is produced by an engine at a given PCL setting, velocity, and density.
A propeller can only accelerate air to a maximum velocity, so as the velocity of the incoming air increases, it is accelerated less by the propeller, resulting in a decrease in thrust available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What is thrust excess?

A

Thrust excess occurs if thrust available is greater than thrust required at a particular velocity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

At maximum power, equilibrium flight is maintained when thrust available equals thrust required (where the 2 curves cross on the graph). What does this represent and what is it in the T-6A?

A

This is the maximum velocity in level flight that an airplane can achieve. It is 255 KIAS at sea level for the T-6A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

What does a positive thrust excess cause? What about a lack of thrust excess?

A

A positive thrust excess causes a climb, acceleration or both depending on the angle of attack. A lack of excess thrust causes a descent, deceleration, or both depending on angle of attack.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Where is maximum excess thrust depicted on the graph and where does max excess thrust occur in a propeller-driven aircraft?

A

Maximum excess thrust is depicted on the graph where the distance between the TA and TR curves are the greatest.

For a propeller-driven aircraft, max excess thrust occurs at a velocity LESS THAN L/d max!!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Power available (Pa)

A

the amount of power that an engine is producing at a given PCL setting, velocity, and density.
Maximum power available is produced at full PCL.
A propeller’s PA initially increases but then decreases due to a loss of thrust available as velocity increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

How is Power Available calculated?

A

To obtain power (work/time), multiply thrust available by velocity and then divide by 325 to obtain horsepower.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Power Required (Pr)

A

the amount of power required to produce thrust required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Minimum power required for level flight

A

is at a SLOWER velocity than L/Dmax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Where does maximum excess power occur in a propeller-driven aircraft?

A

At L/DMAX!!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

How does weight change Pr and Tr?

A

Increased weight now means more lift is required to overcome that extra weight. To increase lift you either have to increase velocity or AoA. Either way, Pr and Tr increases with increased weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

How does altitude change Tr?

A

If the weight of an airplane remains constant, the lift required is the same at 20,000 feet as it is at sea level. But, to produce that same lift at 20,000 feet the velocity (TAS) must increase due to the decrease in air density. Therefore, TR must increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

How does altitude change Ta and Pa?

A

Maximum engine output decreases with decreased air density. So, both Thrust Available (TA) and Power Available (PA) decrease at higher altitudes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

What happens when a pilot moves the stick to the right?

A

The right aileron raises to change the camber of that portion of the wing to that of a more symmetric airfoil – producing less lift.
The left aileron lowers, increasing camber on that portion of the left wing – producing more lift.
With less lift on the right wing and more lift on the left wing, the aircraft now rotates about the longitudinal axis to the right.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

What happens when a pilot pulls the stick aft?

A

the trailing edge of the elevator goes up (making the tail go down) and the aircraft pitches up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What happens when a pilot steps on the left rudder pedal?

A

The rudder deflects to the left (making the tail move right) and the nose of the aircraft moves left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

What happens when the camber of the wing is increased (via flaps or ailerons)?

A

The coefficient of lift increases, but the stall angle of attack decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

What kind of flap does the T-6A use?

A

A split flap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Differentiate between the 4 different types of trailing edge flaps

A

Plain flap: increases camber of wing
Split flap: creates more drag than plain
Slotted flap: creates more lift and less drag than plain
Fowler: creates more lift and surface area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

How do leading edge flaps differ to trailing edge flaps?

A

Both change the wing camber, but leading edge flaps create excessive drag at low angles of attack. However, at high angles of attack the air flow separation is delayed and stall speed is lowered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

What advantage do flaps have on takeoff and landing?

A

Slower speeds and better visibility
Lowering the flaps increases lift allowing the aircraft to be flown at slower speeds for takeoff, approach, and landing. Also, a flatter pitch angle can be used during takeoff and landing, making it easier to see what is ahead.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

50% flap setting

A

you gain more lift than drag (which is why its typically used for takeoff)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Lowering the landing gear causes an increase in what? What tendency does this give the aircraft?

A

Lowering the landing gear causes an increase in parasite drag from the gear and the gear doors. The aircraft has a tendency to pitch slightly down as the gear is lowered, and slightly up as the gear is raised.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Lift is defined as

A

component of aerodynamic force that acts perpendicular to the relative wind.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

In straight-and-level flight (constant lift), angle of attack and velocity have __________ relationship.

A

an inverse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Which airfoil produces no lift at zero degrees angle of attack?

A

Symmetric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

What is the benefit of geometric and aerodynamic twist on a wing?

A

The wing root stalls before the wingtip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Parasite drag is defined as drag

A

caused by anything other than the creation of lift.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Painting or cleaning the surface of a wing or aircraft will

A

reduce friction drag

178
Q

Induced drag is caused by

A

the production of lift

179
Q

In level flight, an increase in velocity will

A

decreased induced drag

180
Q

Total drag is a combination of

A

induced drag and parasite drag

181
Q

In relation to velocity, total drag

A

decreases until L/DMAX then increases.

182
Q

Ground effect is the phenomenon that reduces __________ due to a decrease in __________

A

induced drag; downwash

183
Q

Thrust is the force that opposes

A

drag

184
Q

Thrust available __________ as velocity increases for a propeller-driven aircraft.

A

decreases

185
Q

As velocity increases, a propeller’s PA will initially increase then

A

decrease

186
Q

To roll the airplane to the right, how do the ailerons move?

A

right aileron rises decreasing lift, and the left aileron lowers increasing lift

187
Q

For the nose of the airplane to pitch up, the elevator must move where in relation to the horizontal stabilizer?

A

trailing edge of the elevator must move up in relation to the horizontal stabilizer

188
Q

Increasing the camber of a wing increases?

A

lift

189
Q

What kind of flaps does the T-6A have?

A

Split Flaps

190
Q

Lowering the landing gear causes an increase in

A

Parasite drag

191
Q

Aerodynamic force is the result of

A

pressure and friction distribution over an airfoil

192
Q

Component of aerodynamic force that acts parallel to the relative wind is?

A

Drag

193
Q

What kind of airfoil produces lift at zero degrees AoA?

A

Positively cambered

194
Q

What is the point where the ratio of lift to drag is the greatest?

A

L/D Max

195
Q

Total drag is comprised of?

A

Induced and Parasite drag

196
Q

3 types of parasite drag?

A

Form, Friction, Interference

197
Q

Maximum excess power for a propeller-driven aircraft occurs ____ L/DMax

A

At

198
Q

As altitude increases, power available

A

decreases

199
Q

Lowering the flaps to __________ during an approach __________ drag but __________ visibility.

A

landing (full); increases; improves

200
Q

The minimum speed for takeoff is approximately __% above the power-off stall speed. That is a safety margin to avoid a stall immediately after takeoff.

A

20%

201
Q

How can minimum takeoff speed be reduced? (3 ways)

A

Decreasing weight
Increasing wing surface area
Increasing CLMax

202
Q

How can CLMax be increased for takeoff?

A

Flaps

203
Q

Can flaps increase the surface area of the wing?

A

In some aircraft, yes, but NOT IN THE T-6A

204
Q

What is the greatest factor in takeoff distance?

A

Weight!!

205
Q

What 3 things are bad for takeoff performance?

A

Hot, Heavy, Humid

206
Q

Why does a headwind decrease takeoff distance?

A

The aircraft will have a positive TAS before beginning the takeoff roll

207
Q

Max Rate of climb
What does it rely on?

A

Gaining the most altitude in a given amount of time
Relies on excess power

208
Q

Max Angle of Climb
What does it rely on?

A

Gaining the most altitude for distance traveled
Relies on excess thrust

209
Q

Both max rate of climb and max angle of climb are flown at what power setting?

A

Maximum power

210
Q

What is the best climb speed in the T-6A?

A

140 KIAS

211
Q

What is the problem with max angle of climb?

A

an aircraft can be operating very close to stall airspeed. Fortunately, max angle of climb is not flown in the T-6A

212
Q

What factors are directly linked to climb performance?

A

The ability to produce excess power or excess thrust (which encompasses weight/altitude/configuration)

213
Q

How does a headwind or tailwind affect max angle of climb?

A

A headwind increases best angle of climb while a tailwind decreases best angle of climb

Here is an airplane that has a max angle of climb airspeed of 160 knots IAS. For this example, assume an initial no wind situation and that ground speed is also 160 knots. If this airplane flies into a headwind of 30 knots, its groundspeed is reduced to 130 knots. The airplane now reaches altitude in a much shorter ground distance.

214
Q

How does a headwind or tailwind affect max rate of climb?

A

Wind does NOT change max RATE of climb

215
Q

Maximum endurance

A

Maximum time that an airplane can remain airborne on a given amount of fuel

216
Q

Where is maximum endurance for propeller aircraft?

A

SPEED LESS THAN L/D Max (a higher AoA, however) and on the Power Required (Pr) curve

217
Q

Maximum range

A

the maximum distance an airplane can travel on a given amount of fuel

218
Q

Where is a fixed pitch propeller airplane’s max range?

A

L/D Max velocity and AoA

219
Q

How does weight, altitude, and configuration impact cruise performance?

A

Weight: bad for cruise (more fuel needed to produce thrust)
Altitude: good for cruise (decreased temp = more efficient engine)
Configuration: bad for cruise (more drag requires more power)

220
Q

How does wind effect maximum endurance?

A

Wind does NOT effect maximum endurance since maximum endurance is only concerned with time airborne and not distance traveled.

221
Q

How does wind effect maximum range?

A

A headwind decreases and, conversely, a tailwind increases maximum range for a given amount of fuel. Maximum range is associated with a velocity, which in turn can be translated into a TAS. Therefore, a headwind reduces the aircraft’s groundspeed and hence the ground distance traveled for a given amount of fuel. A tailwind has the opposite effect.

222
Q

Critical Mach Number

A

the Mach number that produces evidence of local supersonic flow

223
Q

Mach number

A

ratio of the airplane’s TAS to the local speed of sound

224
Q

Can there be parts of an airplane where the airflow is supersonic even if the airplane is subsonic?

A

Yes. Since airplanes accelerate airflow to create lift, there is local airflow on parts of the airplane that are traveling faster than the airplane’s true airspeed. Normally, these are surfaces that have the most curvature, like the canopy or wing.

225
Q

What is the best glide speed in the T-6A?

A

125 Knots

226
Q

What is the ratio of the T-6A? What does this mean?

A

11:1 Glide Ratio
11,000 feet horizontally for every 1000 feet of altitude loss

227
Q

What factors affect glide?

A

Altitude, wind, configuration, and propeller condition

228
Q

Does weight impact maximum glide range?

A

No. As long as you are flying the L/D Max speed (which is faster for heavier aircraft)

229
Q

What is the region of reverse command?

A

When you fly slower than L/DMAX in a turbojet or maximum endurance airspeed in a turboprop, you must increase thrust or power to maintain level flight

230
Q

For landing, the final approach speed is usually __ times the stall speed?

A

1.3 times the stall speed (for safety)

231
Q

What is the greatest factor in landing distance?

A

Weight!! (just like takeoff)

232
Q

The 4 H’s that affect takeoff distance also impact landing distance

A

High, Hot, Heavy, and Humid

233
Q

Torque Effect

A

a reactive force based on Newton’s Third Law of Motion. This causes the aircraft to roll counterclockwise
primary means to compensate is: rudder and TAD

234
Q

P-factor

A

yawing moment caused by one propeller blade creating more thrust than its opposing blade

235
Q

What is required for P-factor to be noticeable?

A

High power setting and the thrust axis must be displaced from the relative wind

236
Q

If you are pitched down, what rudder do you need to compensate for p-factor? What if you are pitched up?

A

Down -> Left rudder
Up -> Right rudder

237
Q

Slipstream Swirl

A

corkscrewing airflow that travels around the fuselage (right rudder required)

238
Q

When is slipstream swirl most prevalent?

A

High power settings and low airspeeds

239
Q

Gyroscopic Precession

A

When you apply a force to the edge of a spinning object (propeller) parallel to the rotational axis, a resultant force is created in the direction of the applied force, but 90° ahead in the direction of rotation.

240
Q

How does the T-6A help compensate for gyroscopic precession effects?

A

the TAD

241
Q

What two factors are used to measure turn performance?

A

Turn radius: the radius of the circle that the flightpath defines
Turn rate: The rate of heading change measured in degrees per second

242
Q

What two variables contribute to turn “performance”?

A

Velocity and Bank Angle

243
Q

How is maximum turn rate and minimum turn radius achieved?

A

90º of bank and minimum velocity

244
Q

Standard rate turns

A

3º per second (bank angle is dependent on airspeed)

245
Q

If the ball is displaced in the direction of the turn, the airplane is in a “____.” If the ball is displaced to the opposite direction of the turn, the airplane is in a “____”

A

Same direction of turn -> Slip
Outside direction of turn -> Skid

246
Q

How is turn radius and turn rate altered in a slip vs. skid?

A

Slip: bigger radius and slower rate
Skid: smaller radius and faster rate

247
Q

What is the hazard with skids?

A

Skids are dangerous due to the possibility that the airplane could roll inverted and even crash if a stall (skidded turn stall) occurs at low altitude.

248
Q

How many G’s are required to maintain 60º of bank in level flight?

A

2.0 G’s

249
Q

Limit load factor

A

greatest load factor an airplane can sustain without risk of permanent damage

250
Q

Ultimate load factor

A

maximum load factor an aircraft can withstand without structural failure (150% of limit load factor)

251
Q

Symmetric G’s

A

anytime the only control deflected is the elevator

252
Q

Asymmetric G’s

A

encountered anytime the ailerons or rudder are deflected in flight, or there is a yawing moment produced by uneven weight distribution

253
Q

Why are lower limits imposed for asymmetric G’s?

A

These lower limits are imposed because the lift (G-force) on the up-going wing is more than what is read on the cockpit accelerometer

254
Q

Aerodynamic (Stall) Limit

A

The curved lines that start at zero and intersect the load limit lines are called stall or aerodynamic limit lines. These lines represent the total load factor that can be generated at a particular airspeed before a stall occurs.

255
Q

Maneuvering Speed (and what is it for the T-6A)?

A

the speed above which full or abrupt control movements in one axis can result in structural damage to the aircraft. The T-6A maneuvering speed limit is 227 KIAS.

256
Q

Static stability

A

initial tendency of an object to move toward or away from its original equilibrium position

257
Q

Dynamic stability

A

position and measure of displacement of an object after it has been disturbed with respect to time

258
Q

Positive static stability

A

initial tendency of an object to return to its original equilibrium is positive static stability. A ball, when displaced in the bottom of a bowl, wants to roll back to the bottom where it started

259
Q

Negative static stability

A

the initial tendency of an object to move away from its original equilibrium. Take the ball in the previous example, and turn the bowl upside down. The ball will now roll away from its original center point, exhibiting negative static stability.

260
Q

Neutral Static Stability

A

the initial tendency of an object to accept the new position as a new equilibrium. If the ball is placed on a flat surface, and moved, it does not move toward or away from its originating position

261
Q

Static vs. Dynamic Stability

A

Static stability only tells you about an object’s initial tendency for movement. It does not indicate whether the object will ever reach equilibrium (dynamic stability)

262
Q

Positive dynamic stability

A

If the ball in the bowl moves through the equilibrium point when released, but each oscillation over time becomes smaller until it stops at the equilibrium point, it exhibits positive dynamic stability or damped oscillation

263
Q

Negative dynamic stability

A

If the ball continued to climb higher on each pass, it would exhibit negative dynamic stability or undamped oscillation. This is very unlikely but airplanes sometimes exhibit this property.

264
Q

Neutral dynamic stability

A

If the same ball’s oscillations never dampened but remained at a constant amplitude it would possess neutral dynamic stability

265
Q

Stability vs Maneuverability

A

Stability and maneuverability are inversely proportional.
If an airplane is stable and tends to remain at equilibrium, it is hard for the pilot to turn the airplane, but easy to control (Cargo planes)
On the other hand, if an airplane is unstable it is easy to turn or maneuver but this responsiveness can make it hard to control otherwise (Fighters)

266
Q

What two forces affect longitudinal static stability?

A

Lift and Weight (where CG is positioned vs AC)

267
Q

Sideslip angle

A

difference between the flight path and the longitudinal axis

268
Q

Factors that contribute to static stability

A

Straight wings: positive
Swept wings: positive
Fuselage: negative
Vertical stabilizer: positive

269
Q

What is the greatest positive contributor to directional static stability?

A

Vertical stabilizer

270
Q

What is the greatest positive contributor to lateral static stability?

A

Wing dihedral

271
Q

How does wing mounting affect lateral stability?

A

High wing placement: positive lateral stability
Low wing placement: negative lateral stability

272
Q

How does wing sweep and the vertical stabilizer effect lateral stability?

A

Both are positive contributors

273
Q

What does cross-coupling mean?

A

Lateral and directional stability are interrelated

274
Q

Directional divergence

A

An aircraft with directional divergence continues to yaw and increase its sideslip angle in response to a small initial sideslip

275
Q

Spiral divergence

A

An aircraft that exhibits spiral divergence continues to yaw and roll in reaction to an initial sideslip, resulting in a tight descending spiral.

276
Q

Dutch Roll

A

Dutch roll is caused by a combination of strong lateral and weak directional stability. A disturbance causes a roll that produces a sideslip. The airplane reacts with strong lateral stability by correcting to wings- level, but causing the nose to yaw in the direction of the sideslip. This cycle continues

277
Q

Proverse Roll

A

Tendency for the aircraft to roll in the same direction as it is yawing

278
Q

Adverse Yaw

A

tendency of the airplane to yaw away from the direction of aileron input. Due to increased lift on the up-going wing, more induced drag retards the forward movement of that wing, resulting in the nose yawing opposite the direction of roll

279
Q

Phugoid oscillations

A

NOT a result of cross-coupling. Phugoid oscillations are long period oscillations (20 to 100 seconds per cycle) of altitude and airspeed while maintaining a nearly constant angle of attack. An upward gust causes an airplane to gradually gain altitude but lose airspeed. When enough airspeed is lost the airplane noses over and the reverse occurs. Usually a pilot corrects this situation without being aware that it is happening.

280
Q

Which of the dynamic effects is NOT a result of cross coupling?

A

Phugoid oscillations

281
Q

What are pilot-induced oscillations? Why do they happen? What axis do they normally occur in?-

A

Pilot induced oscillations are short period (1 – 3 seconds per cycle) oscillations that can occur in any three of the aircraft axes. The greatest hazard you face as a pilot is when it occurs in the pitch axis, particularly during landing. A PIO in the pitch axis is the result of the pilot and the inherent longitudinal stability of the airplane simultaneously trying to correct for the same oscillations.

282
Q

What does the takeoff distance equation demonstrate?

A

Weight is the greatest factor in takeoff distance

283
Q

Maximum range is defined as the

A

maximum distance an aircraft can fly on a given amount of fuel

284
Q

Critical Mach Number is defined as the

A

Mach number that produces the first evidence of local supersonic flow

285
Q

What speed give you the most distance for the airplane’s altitude if the engine fails?

A

Best glide speed (125 KIAS)

286
Q

How will a headwind affect maximum glide range?

A

Decreases range

287
Q

Is it possible to require more thrust for a slower airspeed?

A

Yes. This is known as the “region of reverse command”

288
Q

Landing roll is decreased by what kind of wind?

A

Headwind

289
Q

P-factor is caused by

A

one propeller blade creating more thrust thank its opposing blade

290
Q

If the propeller rotates clockwise, what happens to torque?

A

torque is the opposite or counterclockwise

291
Q

Turn rate and radius are based on what factors?

A

Velocity and bank angle

292
Q

In a skid, the balance ball of the turn and bank indicator is deflected

A

in the opposite direction of the turn

293
Q

Thrust must increase in a turn due to the increase in

A

drag

294
Q

Load factor is the ratio of what?

A

Load to weight

295
Q

What is limit load factor defined as?

A

the greatest load factor an airplane can sustain without risk of permanent deformation or damage.

296
Q

Asymmetric G-limits are lower than symmetric because

A

the lift on the up-going wing is experiencing more Gs than what is read on the accelerometer

297
Q

The G-force required to maintain a 60º bank level turn?

A

+2 G’s

298
Q

What is the initial tendency of an object to return to its original equilibrium?

A

Positive static stability

299
Q

What is where oscillations never dampen but remain at a constant amplitude?

A

Neutral dynamic stability

300
Q

An airplane exhibits __________ if after a disturbance that rolls the airplane, it generates forces that reduce the bank angle and return it to wings-level.

A

Lateral stabiity

301
Q

Cross-coupling causes?

A

spiral and directional divergence

302
Q

A PIO in the pitch axis is the result of the

A

pilot and the inherent longitudinal stability of the airplane simultaneously trying to correct for the same oscillations.

303
Q

How does a tailwind impact takeoff distance?

A

Increases it

304
Q

Max range is defined as the

A

farthest distance an airplane can travel on a given amount of fuel

305
Q

Max endurance is

A

the maximum time that an airplane can remain airborne on a given amount of fuel

306
Q

Max glide range (flown at best glide speed) is obtained at

A

L/D Max

307
Q

Gaining the most altitude in a given amount of time is

A

max rate of climb

308
Q

Slipstream swirl is most noticeable

A

high power settings and low airspeed

309
Q

Ultimate load factor is defined as

A

the maximum load factor that the airplane can withstand without structural failure

310
Q

Turn radius is a factor of?

A

Velocity and bank angle

311
Q

Critical Mach is defines as

A

Mach number that produces the first evidence of local supersonic flow.

312
Q

Sideslip angle is the

A

the difference between the flightpath and the longitudinal axis.

313
Q

When flying at maximum endurance airspeed in the T-6A, increasing AOA to maintain level flight will result in _____ airspeed, requiring ____ power

A

Slower airspeed, requiring more power

314
Q

What are the two types of flows in the boundary layer?

A

Laminar and Turbulant

315
Q

What kind of flow is the primary producer of lift?

A

Laminar

316
Q

What is the adverse pressure gradient? What causes it and what impact does it have?

A

Low pressure behind the max point of thickness creates turbulent flow

317
Q

What is the boundary layer doing from the forward edge to the max point of thickness?

A

Laminar flow
Moving from high to low pressure
Airflow accelerates
Kinetic Energy builds
High boundary layer surface adherence

318
Q

Boundary layer from Max point of thickness to trailing edge

A

Progresses from laminar to turbulent flow
Moving from low to high pressure
Airflow decelerates
Encounters adverse pressure gradient
Decreasing boundary layer adherence

319
Q

What does a high AoA to the boundary layer?

A

Kinetic energy decreases, adverse pressure gradient increases, separation point moves forward

320
Q

What is boundary layer separation?

A

Point in the streamline where airflow no longer adheres to the airfoil; caused by decreasing ratio of kinetic energy vs. adverse pressure gradient. As turbulent airflow area increases, amount of airfoil producing lift can become insufficient to support aircraft’s weight.

321
Q

What is a stall?

A

Condition in flight where increase in AoA results in decrease in CL

322
Q

Stall AoA

A

remains constant for any airfoil
measured in arbitrary units

323
Q

Stall speed

A

variable based on condition

324
Q

Two classifications of stalls?

A

Power-on and power-off

325
Q

What kind of stall will give a warning indication closer to stall airspeed?

A

Power-off

326
Q

Where does the aircraft tend to roll in power-on v. power-off stalls?

A

Power-on: left (due to torque)
Power-off: right (due to engine mounting)

327
Q

What does the vertical component of thrust do for stalls?

A

Lowers stall speed by essentially acting as lift

328
Q

What factors affect stall airspeed?

A

Gross weight, Altitude (air density), and Load factor

329
Q

Does true or indicated stall airspeed increase with altitude?

A

True

330
Q

Why does increased G-loading affect stall airspeed?

A

It is equivalent to increased weight

331
Q

What does boundary layer control devices do?

A

deflects high kinetic energy airflow from bottom of wing to top of the wing to suppress boundary layer separation

332
Q

What is the most common boundary layer control device?

A

Leading edge slats

333
Q

What are the benefits of boundary layer control?

A

Increased maneuvering capabilities and decreased landing speed/distance

334
Q

What is the order that control effectiveness is lost?

A

Ailerons, elevator, rudder

335
Q

How many AoA units does the T-6 stall at?

A

18 units

336
Q

What stall warnings are available in the T-6A?

A

Turbulent airflow striking empennage, AoA Gauge, and Stick Shaker

337
Q

What impact does the stick shaker have on natural stall warnings?

A

May mask aircraft buffeting

338
Q

Describe laminar flow

A

Area of the boundary layer where air molecules flow smoothly within the streamline

339
Q

What force opposes and controls the adverse pressure gradient?

A

The kinetic energy of the relative wind

340
Q

What is the definition of boundary layer separation?

A

Point in the streamline where airflow no longer adheres to the airfoil

341
Q

What is the point of stall on a CL curve?

A

CL Max

342
Q

Definition of a stall

A

Condition in flight where increase in AOA results in decrease in CL

343
Q

Key difference between stall AoA and stall airspeed?

A

Stall AOA remains constant – stall airspeed is variable

344
Q

What are the factors associated with increased thrust that impact stall characteristics

A

Vertical thrust component and propeller acceleration factor

345
Q

What are the two major classifications of stalls?

A

Power-on and power-off

346
Q

Which type of stall will have the lowest stall airspeed?

A

Power-on stall

347
Q

Which flight control would you normally expect to be least effective during a stall/stall recovery?

A

Ailerons

348
Q

Would a heavier or lighter aircraft stall at a higher indicated airspeed?

A

Heavier

349
Q

Would an aircraft at 12,000 feet or 6,000 feet stall at a higher true airspeed?

A

12,000 feet

350
Q

How does G-loading affect stall speed?

A

stall speed increases

351
Q

If maintaining level flight, what happens to stall airspeed as you increase bank angle?

A

stall speed increases b/c of increased load factor

352
Q

What is the effect of increased weight on stall airspeed?

A

stall speed increases

353
Q

Higher G-loading and higher bank angle = _____ stall airspeed.

A

Higher

354
Q

What is the basic function of a boundary layer control (BLC) device?

A

to suppress boundary layer separation

355
Q

What is the T-6A stall AOA?

A

18 units

356
Q

What is the primary artificial stall warning in the T-6A?

A

stick shaker

357
Q

What does activation of the stick shaker indicate?

A

aircraft is approximately 5 to 10 knots above stall speed

358
Q

What effect does increasing AOA have on the kinetic energy of the relative wind?

A

decreases it

359
Q

What are the benefits provided by Boundary Layer Control (BLC) devices?

A

Increased maneuvering capability
Decreased landing speed and distance

360
Q

Which type of stall will have the lower stall airspeed?

A

Power-on stall

361
Q

What is the only reason the T-6A will stall?

A

Exceeding stall AoA (18 units)

362
Q

What is required to enter a spin?

A

Stall and yaw

363
Q

What is post-stall gyration

A

Aerodynamic forces during a stall that result in movement around the pitch, roll, and yaw axes

364
Q

How does airspeed at stall energy affect poststall gyration tendency?

A

Higher the energy (airspeed) at stall entry – greater the poststall gyration tendency
Lower the energy (airspeed) at stall entry – less the poststall gyration tendency

365
Q

Autorotation

A

Combination of roll and yaw that propagates itself and progressively gets worse due to asymmetrically stalled wings

366
Q

What does the introduction of yaw do when an aircraft is stalled?

A

When the aircraft is stalled, introduction of yaw creates an AOA difference between left and right wings.
Lift and drag become unbalanced
Creates rolling and yaw tendency
Can cause spin entry and autorotation

367
Q

What does higher and lower AoA in a stall result in?

A

In a stall, lower AOA = more lift
Higher AoA = less lift

368
Q

Which wing has a higher AoA in a spin?

A

The inside wing (which is why it is producing less lift)

369
Q

How does AoA and drag correlate in a spin?

A

Higher AoA = more drag
Lower AoA = less drag

370
Q

What sustains aircraft rolling motion around the spin axis?

A

Lift differential and drag differential

371
Q

How does an inverted spin occur?

A

Entered from negative G stall and yaw

372
Q

How does an erect spin occur?

A

Entered from positive G stall and yaw

373
Q

How does lower pitch impact rotation rate in a spin?

A

Lower pitch results in higher rotation rate

374
Q

How does the rotation rate affect nose-down movement?

A

Higher rotation rate results in larger force opposing nose-down movement

375
Q

Why does steeper pitch and increased rotation rate occur?

A

Intentional or unintentional control inputs
Aircraft weight
Spin direction

376
Q

Progressive spin

A

Caused by maintaining full up elevator while holding anti-spin rudder
Characterized by lowering of the nose and spin direction reversal

377
Q

Aggravated spin

A

Caused by maintaining pro-spin rudder and moving stick forward of neutral
Characterized by immediate increase in nose-down pitch and increased roll rate

378
Q

How does weight affect spin entry and recover?

A

Lighter = faster entry, increased oscillations, faster recovery
Heavier = slower entry, less oscillations, slower recovery

379
Q

How does stall speed vary with pitch attitude?

A

Inversely
(Lower pitch attitude = higher stall speed and faster entry)
(Higher pitch attitude = slower stall speed and slower entry)

380
Q

What are characteristics of a right spin?

A

Stabilizes at lower pitch
Stabilizes slower
Rotation rate increased

381
Q

What are characteristics of a left spin?

A

Stabilizes at a higher pitch
Stabilizes faster
Rotation rate decreased

382
Q

Can an aircraft that is not stalled be in a spin?

A

No. Both stall and yaw must be present to spin.

383
Q

Define poststall gyration

A

Aerodynamic forces during stall that result in movement around the pitch, roll, and yaw axes

384
Q

What is the key factor affecting the intensity of poststall gyration?

A

The airspeed at the time of stall

385
Q

What is the definition of Angle of Attack (AoA)?

A

The angle between the chordline and the relative wind

386
Q

In a spin, which wing will have the higher AoA up-going or down-going wing?

A

Down-going (inside) wing

387
Q

What is the cause of autorotation in a spin?

A

Unequal lift and drag forces acting on each wing

388
Q

What sustains aircraft rolling around the spin axis?

A

Lift differential between inside and outside wings

389
Q

If stalled and yawed, which aircraft would would enter an inverted spin? (one at +6 G’s and one at +3 G’s)

A

Neither. An aircraft must be in a negative G stall and yaw to enter an inverted spin.

390
Q

How does anti-spin rudder aid in recovery?

A

Slows rotation and decreases AOA

391
Q

Would an aircraft spinning with the stick other than full aft be in an accelerated or unaccelerated spin?

A

Anytime the aircraft is spinning with the stick other than full aft, the spin is accelerated.

392
Q

Higher pitch attitude at stall results in __________ spin entry and __________ oscillations.

A

slower; less

393
Q

Will a left or a right spin stabilize at a lower pitch attitude?

A

Right

394
Q

What causes the variance in left and right spin characteristics?

A

Gyroscopic effect of the propeller

395
Q

What two conditions must be present in order for an aircraft to spin?

A

Stall and yaw

396
Q

How does the introduction of yaw affect the lift and drag of a stalled wing?

A

Causes asymmetrical lift and drag between the outside and inside wing

397
Q

What conditions must be present to enter an inverted spin?

A

Negative G stall and yaw introduced

398
Q

What is the main aerodynamic factor affecting spins?

A

Conservation of angular momentum

399
Q

What causes an accelerated spin?

A

Spinning with the control stick anywhere other than full aft

400
Q

In a right spin, which rudder position will provide the greatest anti-spin forces?

A

Full left rudder

401
Q

How can a progressive spin be entered?

A

By maintaining full aft stick while applying and holding anti-spin rudder

402
Q

Which aircraft will enter a spin slower, with less oscillation, and take longer to recover? (4,000 pound vs 6,000 pound)

A

6,000 pound

403
Q

Which aircraft will spin at a lower pitch attitude and higher rotation rate? (Right spin or left spin)

A

Right spin

404
Q

How does wake turbulence occur?

A

Wake turbulence generation occurs anytime the aircraft is producing lift. When the aircraft lands and is no longer producing lift, wake turbulence generation ends

405
Q

Why does an aircraft producing lift create wake turbulance?

A

T spanwise airflow moves around the wingtip and does more than create induced drag. It also produces spiraling masses of air at the wingtip called wingtip vortices. These wingtip vortices rotate clockwise off the left wing and counterclockwise from the right wing.

406
Q

What is the wake turbulence zone?

A

The region behind the aircraft containing the trailing vortices is called the wake turbulence zone

407
Q

What determines the strength of wingtip vortices?

A

Weight, Speed, and Configuration

408
Q

What produces the worst wake turbulence?

A

Heavy, Clean, and Slow (the things that require the most AoA)

409
Q

Do all aircraft produce wake turbulence?

A

All aircraft generating lift produce a vortex hazard regardless of their size, speed, or wing configuration

410
Q

What kind of aircraft are most susceptible to wake turbulence?

A

Short wingspan aircraft

411
Q

What is the best way to prevent a wake turbulence accident?

A

Avoid the vortices caused by landing and departing aircraft

412
Q

How much time should be given as space behind a heavy aircraft?

A

2 minutes

413
Q

In addition to the 2-minute spacing rule, what can pilots do to completely avoid the wake turbulence?

A

Pilots can adjust their liftoff point to before where the aircraft rotated and land beyond their touchdown point

414
Q

What is the minimum landing spacing requirement behind wake turbulence?

A

3 minutes

415
Q

Does the 2 minute takeoff rule apply to parallel runways?

A

Yes, because vortices can move laterally near the ground and can create a vortex hazard along other runways

416
Q

What is wind shear?

A

Sudden change in wind direction and/or speed over a short distance in the atmosphere

417
Q

What is an “increasing performance wind shear?”

A

As the aircraft crosses the shear line, the stronger headwind will cause higher airspeed and lift.

418
Q

What is a “decreasing performance wind shear?”

A

As the aircraft crosses the shear line, there will be an abrupt drop in headwind velocity and a corresponding decrease in lift and performance

419
Q

What is a microburst?

A

The most common type of vertical wind shear

420
Q

What is the maximum airspeed adjustment for wind shear?

A

10 knots

421
Q

With a reported 15 knot loss, what adjustments will you make?

A

fly your approach 10 knots faster

422
Q

How do wingtip vortices rotate when looking from behind the aircraft?

A

Right wing vortex rotates counterclockwise and left wing vortex rotates clockwise.

423
Q

What kind of aircraft will generate the greater wake turbulence?

A

Heavy, slow, and clean

424
Q

What flaps configuration increases wake turbulence?

A

Flaps up (high AoA)

425
Q

Which of the following are the factors that primarily affect the strength of vortices?

A

Weight, speed, and configuration

426
Q

An aircraft flying in which position would experience an induced roll to the left?

A

Behind the right wingtip

427
Q

This graphic depicts a large aircraft taking off on the center runway with a crosswind from the right of 5 knots.
Which runway(s) do you think will be affected by this aircraft’s wake turbulence?

A
428
Q

(True/False) Pilots of small aircraft should avoid operating within two rotor diameters of a hovering helicopter due to downwash hazards. However, since a helicopter does not generate wake turbulence, normal spacing rules do not apply.

A

False

429
Q

Assuming you had to take off behind this departing large aircraft, where would you want to plan your liftoff point?

A

Before they rotated

430
Q

Assuming you had to take off behind a large aircraft that just landed, where would you want to plan your liftoff point?

A

After their touchdown point

431
Q

When taking off behind a heavy aircraft (over 255,000 pounds), established spacing requirement is __________ minute(s) minimum. This spacing is also encouraged behind large aircraft (41,000 to 255,000 pounds)

A

2 minutes

432
Q

If you had to land behind this departing large aircraft (Figure 7-65), where would you want to plan your touchdown point?

A

Before they rotated

433
Q

If you had to land behind this large aircraft that had just landed on the same runway, where would you want to plan your touchdown point?

A

After they landed

434
Q

Minimum landing spacing requirement is __________ minute(s) behind a heavy aircraft (over 255,000 pounds)

A

3 minutes

435
Q

Wind shear is defined as a sudden change in wind __________ over a short distance in the atmosphere.

A

speed and/or direction

436
Q

Microburst will most likely be encountered in areas of heavy

A

Rain

437
Q

Key hazards created by wake turbulence are __________ and __________.

A

induced roll; induced flow field

438
Q

How will a wind shear that decreases your headwind component by 20 knots affect your aircraft?

A

Indicated airspeed will decrease 20 knots, thereby decreasing lift.

439
Q

During an approach, you pass through a shear that changes the wind from a 10-knot tailwind to a 10-knot headwind. How will this shear affect your aircraft?

A

Indicated airspeed will increase by 20 knots, lift will increase, and the aircraft will tend to climb above glidepath.

440
Q

An aircraft reported wind shear on final with a 10-knot loss of airspeed. How should you adjust your approach?

A

Set flaps to “Takeoff” and add 10 knots to your approach speed.

441
Q

What wind changes would an aircraft initially encounter if flown through a microburst?

A

A strong headwind