Surgical Flashcards

1
Q

What is the management of bell’s palsy?

A

Oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset

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2
Q

After what time period of having bell’s palsy should you refer to ENT?

A

After 3 weeks - then urgent referral

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3
Q

What are the features of a meniscal tear?

A

Knee-locking, knee giving-way, after a twisting injury, swelling occurs several hours after the injury

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4
Q

What are the features of a cruciate ligament injury?

A

popping noise/sensation, rapid swelling, inability to return to activity, can be caused by twisting movements

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5
Q

What are the features of ankylosing spondylitis?

A

Lower back pain and stiffness of insidious onset, worse in morning, improves with exercise, schober’s test <5cm

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6
Q

What is the first line investigation of a testicular mass?

A

USS

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7
Q

What is the management of rib fractures?

A

analgesic ladder, then regional nerve block

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8
Q

What is flail chest?

A

Consecutive rib fractures, causing paradoxical movements during respiration - can cause contusional injury

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9
Q

What is a late sign of cauda equina syndrome?

A

Urinary incontinence

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10
Q

What are the signs of cauda equina?

A

low back pain, bilateral sciatic pain, reduced sensation perianally, decreased anal tone, urinary dysfunction

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11
Q

What is investigation do you do in cauda equina?

A

MRI

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12
Q

How do you manage a pre-operative low haemoglobin?

A

Pre-op blood transfusion

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13
Q

What type of resection would you do for a cancer of the rectum?

A

Anterior resection

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14
Q

How long prior to surgery should women stop taking the COCP?

A

4 weeks

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15
Q

Which diabetes medication regimes change before/after an operation?

A

metformin and sulfonylureas - omit lunch dose, take rest as normal
SGLT-2 inhibitors - omit on day of surgery
once daily insulin - reduce dose by 20%, day before and day of surgery
Humulin M3 - halve morning dose

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16
Q

What is the position of an inguinal and a femoral hernia?

A

inguinal - medial and superior to the pubic tubercle
femoral - inferior and lateral to the pubic tubercle

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17
Q

What type of surgery is done for a tumour of the rectum?

A

Anterior resection (if sigmoid colon then high anterior resection)

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18
Q

What type of surgery is done for a tumour of the ano-rectal junction?

A

abdomino-perineal excision of rectum

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19
Q

What is a Hartmann’s procedure?

A

Sigmoid excision, with end colostomy formed

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20
Q

What is the management of an anal fissure?

A

If < 1 week: laxatives and high fibre. Try analgesia. If < 1 weeks, continue with these and trial GTN. After 8 weeks - refer for sphincterotomy

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21
Q

What is a normal ABPI?

A
  1. Anything less than 1 indicates peripheral arterial disease
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22
Q

What is the management of acute pancreatitis?

A

IV fluids and opioid analgesia

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23
Q

How long after a UTI/prostatitis should you test PSA?

A

After 6 weeks

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24
Q

What medication can be used to decrease the incidence of calcium stones?

A

thiazide-like diuretics

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25
Q

What is the management of a young person who has always had difficulty maintaining an erection?

A

refer to urology

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26
Q

What is the gold standard investigation for small bowel obstruction?

A

CT abdo. XRay is first line

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27
Q

What is the management of small bowel obstruction?

A

NBM, IV fluids, NG tube drainage

28
Q

What is the management of a femoral hernia?

A

Urgent surgical repair due to risk of strangulation

29
Q

What are the features of ascending cholangitis?

A

Fever, RUQ pain, jaundice (can also get hypotension and confusion)

30
Q

What investigation is done for ascending cholangitis?

31
Q

When is AAA screening?

A

For men over 65yrs - a single ultrasound

32
Q

What are each types of stoma for and where are they?

A

spouted stoma in right iliac fossa - ileostomy
flush stoma in left iliac fossa - colostomy
Double stoma - loop anastomosis - can be reversed and usually following anterior resection

33
Q

What do you do if there is a normal CT head within 6 hours of suspected SAH?

A

Do not do LP. Consider alternative diagnosis

34
Q

When should LP done in suspected SAH?

A

After 12 hours to allow for xanthochromia formation

35
Q

What are the features of diverticulitis?

A

altered bowel habit, rectal bleeding, abdominal pain

36
Q

What is the first line investigation for a acute limb ischaemia?

A

handheld arterial doppler. if doppler signals present ABPI

37
Q

Which types of shock have warm peripheries?

A

Septic, anaphylactic and neurogenic

38
Q

Which surgery is often used for emergency bowel resections?

A

Hartmanns - resection of sigmoid and formation of end colostomy

39
Q

What is the management of appendicitis?

A

Appendicectomy, with prophylactic IV Abx

40
Q

What are the preventative doses of aspirin and clopidogrel?

A

75mg (300mg is a loading dose)

41
Q

Why how does goserelin help prostate cancer?

A

GnRH agonist - causes over stimulation of pituitary, raise in T, followed by low T levels

42
Q

What is the first line medication for symptom management in prostate hyperplasia?

A

Alpha-1 antagonists (tamsulosin)

43
Q

what hormonal therapy is used for breast cancer?

A

Tamoxifen in pre + peri menopausal women
Aromatase inhibitors (anastrozole) in post-menopausal women

44
Q

How long before surgery should you fast?

A

6 hours for food/non clear liquids, 2 hours for clear liquids

45
Q

Should you take sulfonylureas (gliclazide) on the day of surgery?

A

No, omit morning dose, if afternoon operation, omit both doses. omit due to risk of hypoglycaemia

46
Q

Should you take SGLT-2 inhibitors on the day of surgery?

47
Q

What is the difference in presentation between acute cholangitis and acute cholecystitis?

A

Cholangitis - fever, RUQ pain, jaundice (charcot’s triad), lft changes
cholecystitis - RUQ pain, no jaundice, fever, raised WCC, mild LFT changes

48
Q

What is the management of acute cholangitis?

A

IV Abx, ERCP

49
Q

What is the difference in presentation between an incarcerated hernia and a strangulated one?

A

Incarcerated is less painful, but is non-reducible. Blood can still flow to tissue.
Strangulated hernias are more painful due to lack of blood supply

50
Q

When do patients get steatorrhoea and diabetes mellitus in chronic pancreatitis?

A

5-25 years after disease starts - measure HbA1c annually

51
Q

What are the common complications of a trans-urethral resection of the prostate?

A

erectile dysfunction and incontinence

52
Q

What hormonal therapy is given in oestrogen positive breast cancer?

A

tamoxifen in pre and peri-menopausal women, anastrozole in post

53
Q

Which biological therapy can be used in breast cancer?

A

Herceptin (trastuzumab) only in HER2 positive tumours

54
Q

Which medication can be used to reduce hypercalciuria?

A

Thiazide diuretics

55
Q

What is the management of hernias in children?

A

Umbilical - manage conservatively (Um no need for surgery)
Inguinal - repair ASAP
(In for surgery)

56
Q

What is the difference in presentation between perianal fissure and fistula?

A

Fistula - can predispose to absesses can cause raised temperatures, can cause pus, throbbing pain, more incontinence than bleeding
Fissure - sharp pain is only usually on defecation, bleeding

57
Q

What is the management of an anal fissure?

A

Stool softeners, lubricants, local anaesthetics.
If chronic - give GTN, if not working after 8 weeks, try sphincterotomy or botulinum toxin

58
Q

What is the first line management of symptoms caused by an enlarged prostate?

A

Alpha-1 antagonists, second line is 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors

59
Q

What is the management of varicose veins?

A

1st line: compression stockings, exercise, leg elevation
refer to secondary care id skin changes: can do endothermal ablation, foam sclerotherapy, ligation or stripping

60
Q

What are the indications for a thoracotomy in a haemothorax?

A

> 1.5L blood loss
or > 200ml blood loss every hour for > 2 hours

61
Q

What is the difference between acute and critical limb ischaemia?

A

Critical = chronic, > 2 weeks, end stage of PAD, gangrene, ulcers, pain at rest
Acute = sudden onset ischaemia to a limb, usually due to a thrombus

62
Q

What investigations should be done for acute limb ischaemia?

A

hand held doppler, if signals present ABPI

63
Q

Which medications typically cause erectile dysfunction?

A

SSRIs and beta blockers and alcohol

64
Q

What is the first line management of peripheral arterial disease?

A

atorvastatin 80mg and clopidogrel

65
Q

What is reynolds pentad?

A

Charcot’s triad (fever, jaundice, RUQ pain) plus hypotension and confusion - seen in ascending cholangitis

66
Q

How long after cholecystitis should you have a cholecystectomy?

A

within 1 week