ENT Flashcards

1
Q

what is the typical presentation of vestibular neuronitis?

A

A history of vertigo lasting hours-days, preceded by a viral infection. Typically resolves within weeks. no hearing loss or tinnitus

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2
Q

What is the long term management of vestibular neuronitis?

A

vestibular rehabilitation exercises

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3
Q

What are the centor criteria?

A
  • presence of tonsillar exudate
    -tender anterior cervical lymphadeopathy
  • fever
  • absence of cough
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4
Q

What are the 5 criteria of the feverpain score?

A
  • fever over 38
  • purulent tonsils
  • attended rapidly (within 3 days)
  • severely inflamed tonsils
  • no cough or coryza
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5
Q

What is the treatment of bacterial tonsilitis?

A

phenoxymethylpenicillin (7/10 days)
clarithromycin if pen-allergic

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6
Q

What is the management of a unilateral glue ear in adults?

A

2-week wait to ENT to evaluate for posterior nasal space tumour

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7
Q

What is the management of acute otitis media with perforation?

A

Oral amoxicillin

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8
Q

What is the management of otitis externa?

A

combined gentamicin and dexamethasone drops

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9
Q

What do you use a HiNTs exam for?

A

To distinguish between peripheral and central causes of vertigo such as vestibular neuronitis and posterior circulation stroke

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10
Q

What are the HiNTs findings if there is a peripheral cause of vertigo?

A

abnormal head impulse test, with either unidirectional nystagmus or no nystagmus or vertical skew

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11
Q

What are the HiNTs findings if it is a central cause of vertigo?

A

a normal head impulse test, with either bidirectional or vertical nystagmus and a vertical skew

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12
Q

What is the management of OME in children?

A
  • active observation for 3 months
  • grommet insertion
  • adenoidectomy to improve eustachian tube function
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13
Q

What is the management of persistent hoarseness in an over 45 y/o?

A

Chest X-ray and urgent referral to ENT

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14
Q

What are the otoscopy findings of acute otitis media?

A
  • bulging tympanic membrane with loss of light reflex
  • red/opacification of the tympanic membrane
  • perforation
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15
Q

What is the management of a patient with acute sensorineural hearing loss?

A

Urgent referral to ENT for audiology and brain MRI
high dose oral corticosteroids in ENT

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16
Q

What are the features of viral labyrinthitis?

A
  • recent viral infection
  • sudden onset vertigo
  • nausea and vomiting
  • can affect hearing
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17
Q

What are the features of vestibular neuronitis?

A
  • recent viral infection
  • recurrent vertigo attacks lasting hours/days
  • no hearing loss
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18
Q

What is the management of unresolving otitis externa?

A

urgent referral to ENT ?necrotising otitis externa
IV Abx that cover pseudomonas

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19
Q

What are the key features of malignant otitis externa?

A
  • diabetic/immunocompromised
  • severe otalgia
  • temporal headaches
  • purulent otorrhea
  • not clearing despite treatment
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20
Q

What is the initial management of epistaxis?

A

Pinch the nostrils firmly and lean forwards for 20 mins

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21
Q

What is the management of mastoiditis?

A

IV antibiotics

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22
Q

What is the most common type of parotid tumour?

A

Benign pleomorphic adenoma

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23
Q

What are the features of a benign pleomorphic adenoma?

A

Slow-growing, lobular, most common parotid tumour

24
Q

What are the features of a warthin tumour?

A

benign parotid tumour, associated with smoking,

25
Q

What exercises can be done at home for BPPV?

A

Brandt-Daroff

26
Q

What is the most likely causative organism for otitis externus?

A

Pseudomonas Aeruginosa

27
Q

Which drugs are ototoxic?

A

FAV.Q&A
Furosemide, Aminoglycoside (gentamicin), vancomycin, quinine, aspirin

28
Q

What is the first-line management of compacted earwax in GP?

A

1 week olive oil drops or ear syringing, then review

29
Q

What are the features of vestibular neuronitis?

A

Vertigo following recent viral infection, attacks last hours to days, may have vomiting, no effects to hearing, horizontal nystagmus

30
Q

What does the hints test distinguish?

A

Central Vs peripheral causes of vertigo

31
Q

What is the management of vestibular neuronitis?

A

Prochlorperazine for rapid relief, antihistamine for longer term, vestibular rehabilitation exercises for treatment

32
Q

What are the examination findings of quinsy?

A

Trismus, drooling, deviation of the uvula to the unaffected side

33
Q

What are the tonsillitis indications for a tonsillectomy?

A

7 episodes in 1 year, 5 per year in 2 years, 3 per year for 3 years

34
Q

What are the features of sialadenitis?

A
  • inflammation of the salivary gland
  • painful one sided neck swelling, temperature, submandibular mass, painful lymphadenopathy
35
Q

What is ludwig’s angina?

A

infection of the submandibular or sublingual space

36
Q

What is the management of unilateral glue ear in an adult?

A

Urgent referral to ENT to evaluate for posterior nasal space tumour

37
Q

What is the management of Ramsey Hunt syndrome?

A

High dose aciclovir, high dose oral steroids and eye protection

38
Q

What is the management of a post-tonsillectomy haemorrhage?

A

urgent ENT assessment

39
Q

What is the scoring system used to assess obstructive sleep apnoea?

A

Epworth sleepiness scale

40
Q

What is the management of otitis externa?

A
  • topical antibiotic plus steroid
41
Q

Which manoeuvres are used to diagnose BPPV?

A

Dix-Hallpike Manoeuvre

42
Q

Which manoeuvres are used to treat BBPV?

A

Epley Manoeuvre and Brandt-Daroff exercises

43
Q

What are the common causes of otitis media?

A

Moraxella, strep pneumoniae, haemophilus influenzae (often preceeded by a viral infection)

44
Q

Which artery may need to be ligated if other management attempts have failure in epistaxis?

A

sphenopaletine artery

45
Q

Explain the HINTs exam

A

HI test - hold head and turn 10-20 degrees, look for corrective saccade
N - look for nystagmus direction
S - test of skew, cover one eye, if uncovered eye moves vertically can show central cause

46
Q

What is exostosis?

A

Bony projections in ear canal due to repeated exposure to cold water - causes conductive hearing loss

47
Q

What is the management of otitis media with effusion (non infective)?

A

active observation for 6-12 weeks, unless Down’s syndrome or cleft palate. refer to ENT. grommets

48
Q

What is indicative of a fungal otitis externa?

A

black dots, cotton wool debris. not better with abx (refer to ENT)

49
Q

What is the management of otitis externa?

A

If mild: topical acetic acid. topical antibiotic, or combined topical antibiotic with steroid.
2nd line: oral fluclox, take a swab, refer

50
Q

What is the last line management of epistaxis?

A

Sphenopalatine artery ligation

51
Q

The presence of a persistent mouth ulcer over what time period warrants an ENT referral?

A

> 3 weeks - could be a squamous cell carcinoma

52
Q

Which medication is used to help prevent meniere’s attacks?

A

Betahistine - histamine agonist, helps with fluid pressure balance of endolymph

53
Q

Which analgesia should you try to avoid in asthmatics?

A

aspirin (+ NSAIDS) as are more likely to have a sensitivity

54
Q

When should you prescribe antibiotics in acute otitis media?

A

> 4days. Perforated eardrum, gunky ear. systemically unwell, <2y/o with bilateral OM

55
Q

What is the first line antibiotic in acute otitis media?

A

amoxicillin