Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Finals passmed > infectious diseases > Flashcards

infectious diseases Flashcards

1
Q

How long does a full course of tetanus last for?

A

10 years from last dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What do you do if someone has a high risk wound and their last tetanus jab was >10 years ago?

A

tetanus booster
tetanus IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How many doses of tetanus injections do you require for life-long protection?

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the treatment for latent TB?

A

3 months of isoniazid, pyridoxine and rifampicin
or
6 months of isoniazid with pyridoxine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What should you do before getting a BCG vaccine?

A

a Mantoux test - if they may have been exposed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are contraindications to the BCG vaccine?

A

Previous vaccine, past TB, HIV, pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the causative organism of lyme disease?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the management of confirmed lyme disease?

A

Doxycycline or amoxicillin if pregnant
if disseminated disease - ceftriaxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When can someone go back to school after scarlet fever?

A

24hrs after starting antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Do all contacts of meningococcal meningitis need abx prophylaxis?

A

Yes, irrespective of vaccine status, should have a single dose of ciprofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the management of shingles?

A

Acyclovir within 72 hours of onset in most patients, unless mild and under 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the first line management for chicken-pox exposure in pregnancy?

A

Check maternal blood for varicella zoster antibodies.
If none, oral aciclovir at day 7 to 14 after exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the features of foetal varicella zoster?

A

skin scarring, micropthalmia, limb hypoplasia, microcephaly and learning disabilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What should be assessed before starting TB treatment?

A

Visual acuity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the common side effects of rifampicin?

A

hepatitis, orange secretions, flu-like-symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the common side effects of isoniazid?

A

peripheral neuropathy (take with B6 to prevent), hepatitis, agranulocytosis, lupus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the common side effects of Pyrazinamide?

A

hyperuricaemia (gout), arthralgia, myalgia, hepatitis (painful things)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the side effects of ethambutol?

A

optic neuritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How do you diagnose C.Diff?

A

C.Diff toxin in the stool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the first line management of C.Diff?

A

Oral vancomycin for 10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the management of a life-threatening C.Diff infection?

A

Oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What drugs should be given in someone with a CD4 count less than 200?

A

Co-trimoxazole - for pneumocystitis jiroveci prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the first-line test for HIV?

A

Viral antibodies and antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the features of diptheria?

A

recent travel abroad, sore throat with ‘diptheric membrane’ - grey membrane on tonsils and pharynx, lymphadenopathy, neuritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the management of diptheria?

A

IM penicillin (caused by corynebacterium diptheriae), diptheria antitoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the common travel related conditions?

A

Malaria, Typhoid, Arbovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How do you know a fever in a returning traveller is not malaria?

A

There is no rash in malaria
(test too)

28
Q

How is typhoid spread?

A

Faeco-oral - through contaminated food or water

29
Q

What are the clinical features of typhoid?

A

gradual onset of fever (rose spots on trunk), malaise, headache, dry cough
week 2: persistent high fever, abdominal pain and diarrhoea or constipation. hepatosplenomegaly

30
Q

What are the complications of typhoid?

A

GI perforation

31
Q

How do you diagnose typhoid?

A

Blood culture

32
Q

How do you treat typhoid?

A

IV ceftriaxone if complex
PO azithromycin if uncomplicated

33
Q

What do you see on blood film with malaria?

A

Ring trophozoites

34
Q

What causes malaria?

A

P.falciparum (much worse) and non-falciparum malaria (can present months to years after but not as bad)

35
Q

What is the treatment for malaria?

A

IV artesunate

36
Q

Give some examples of viral haemorrhagic fevers?

A

Lassa, Ebola, Marburg
- person-to-person transmission

37
Q

What are the features of lymphogranuloma venerium?

A

Caused by chlamydia
a painless genital lesion which then forms an ulcer, painful inguinal lymphadenopathy and proctitis

38
Q

What causes Chancroid?

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

39
Q

How do you diagnose legionnella?

A

Urinary antigen test

40
Q

What are the features of legionnella?

A

Flu-like symptoms, dry cough, lymphopaenia, hyponatraemia, deranged LFTs

41
Q

What is the management of legionella pneumonia?

A

Erythro/clarithromycin

42
Q

What are the features of Campylobacter gastroenteritis?

A

Prodrome, abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea. 1-6 day incubation

43
Q

What are the features of salmonella gastroenteritis?

A

12-48hrs incubation, severe vomiting and high fever

44
Q

At what age are children offered the HPV vaccine?

A

Aged 12-13

45
Q

What is the gold standard investigation for active TB?

A

Sputum culture

46
Q

What is the first line antibiotic used for an animal/human bite?

A

Co-amoxiclav. If pen allergic - give doxycycline plus metronidazole

47
Q

What is the management of a UTI in the first trimester?

A

7 days nitrofurantoin

48
Q

Which test results show active syphilis?

A

Non-treponoma test positive, treponoma specific positive

49
Q

Which test results show treated syphilis?

A

Non-treponoma test negative, treponoma specific positive

50
Q

What are the features of malaria?

A

Swinging fever - fever on alternate days. Trophozoites on blood film

51
Q

What are the features of giardia?

A

steatorrhoea, bloating, abdo pain, weight loss, can cause malabsorption and lactose intolerance

52
Q

what are the features of E.Coli gastroenteritis?

A

Commonest among travellers, watery stools, abdo cramps and nausea

53
Q

What are the CSF findings in bacterial meningitis?

A

Cloudy, low glucose, protein > 1g, raised polymorphs

54
Q

What are the CSF findings in viral meningitis?

A

Clear/cloudy, 60-80% of plasma glucose, normal protein, raised lymphocytes

55
Q

What are the CSF findings in TB meningitis?

A

cloudy/web like. low glucose, high protein (>1g), raised lymphocytes

56
Q

What is the management of latent TB?

A

3 months of isoniazid, rifampicin, pyridoxine
6 months of isoniazid with pyridoxine

57
Q

What is the first line treatment of gonorrhoea?

A

IM ceftriaxone 1g

58
Q

What are the features of Hep A?

A

Flu-like prodrome, RUQ pain, hepatomegaly, jaundice, deranged LFTs (faeco-oral spread)

59
Q

What is the diagnostic test for Lyme disease?

A

Antibody titres for Borrelia Burgdorferi

60
Q

What should you do if someone is unwell when they are supposed to have a vaccine?

A

Postpone until they get better

61
Q

What type of pneumonia is associated with erythema multiforme and erythema nodosum?

A

Mycoplasma

62
Q

What is the first line management of syphilis?

A

IM benzathine penicillin

63
Q

What are the features of cerebral toxoplasmosis?

A

Immunocompromised, headache, confusion, drowsy, CT shows ring enhancing lesion

64
Q

What causes painful genital ulcers? And what causes painless ones?

A

painful: herpes (and chancroid)
Painless: syphilis

65
Q

What organism stains with india ink?

A

Cryptococcus

66
Q

What are the features of trichomonas vaginalis?

A

yellow/green vaginal discharge, strawberry cervix. trophozoites

67
Q

What is the management of trichomonas vaginalis?

A

Oral metronidazole for 5-7 days

Finals passmed (23 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions