Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Finals passmed > Medical > Flashcards

Medical Flashcards

1
Q

What are the ECG findings in hypocalcaemia?

A

Prolonged QT interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Removal of the parathyroid glands can lead to what electrolyte imbalance?

A

Hypocalcaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the features of hypercalcaemia on an ECG?

A

ST segment shortening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is total iron binding capacity like in iron deficiency anaemia?

A

High

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is total iron binding capacity like in anaemia of chronic disease?

A

Low/normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What levels are required to diagnose someone with diabetes?

A
  • 2 hour post-prandial glucose >= 11.1
  • Fasting glucose >= 7
  • HbA1c > 47
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the levels of C-peptide in type 1 and type 2 diabetes?

A
  • Type 1 - low C-peptide
  • Type 2 - high C-peptide
    (C-peptide is made alongside insulin)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the key features of diabetic ketoacidosis?

A

abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, kussmaul respiration (deep hyperventilation), acetone-smelling breath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the management of a myasthenic crisis?

A

IV IgG and plasmapheresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the pathophysiology of myasthenia gravis?

A

Autoimmune - antibodies to acetylcholine receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the first line treatment of myasthenia gravis?

A

pyridostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In type 1 diabetes when should blood sugar levels be checked?

A

before each meal and before bed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the blood glucose targets for type 1 diabetics?

A

5-7mmol/l on waking
4-7mmol/l before meals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In which patients with type 1 diabetes can you include metformin in their treatment?

A

Patients with a BMI > 25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the features of cellulitis?

A

unilateral, erythema usually with well-defined margins, swelling, systemic upset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What bacteria commonly causes cellulitis?

A

Strep pyogenes
(sometimes staph aureus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the management of cellulitis?

A

oral abx if mild - flucloxacillin (clarithromycin or erythromycin (in pregnancy) if penicillin allergic)
if severe - IV co-amoxiclav/clindamycin/cef

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the first line treatment for hypertension in diabetics?

A

ACE-I/ARBs e.g. Ramipril

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the mechanism of action of SGLT-2 inhibitors?

A

Increase urinary glucose excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the mechanism of action of sulphonylureas (gliclazide)?

A

Increase insulin release from the pancreas

21
Q

How do you diagnose type 2 diabetes in an asymptomatic patient?

A

two elevated fasting/random glucose tests on two separate occasions

22
Q

what drug is used to treat thyrotoxicosis in pregnancy?

A

Propylthiouracil in first trimester
Carbimazole in second and third

23
Q

Which diabetes medication increases risk of ulcers or infection?

A

SGLT-2 inhibitors (canagiflozin)

24
Q

What conditions are associated with subclinical hyperthyroidism?

A

atrial fibrillation, osteoporosis, dementia

25
Q

Which pain medications slow bone healing?

A

NSAIDs

26
Q

How do you diagnose cellulitis?

A

On clinical observation

27
Q

What is the management of hypocalcaemia?

A

IV calcium gluconate

28
Q

Which drug is a calcimimetic?

A

Cinacalcet - it mimics the action of calcium on tissue by allosteric activation of the calcium-sensing receptor

29
Q

Which tumours are most likely to metastasise to bone?

A

prostate, breast, lung

30
Q

What are the signs of bone cancer/mets?

A

Pathological fractures, hypercalcaemia, raised ALP

31
Q

What is subclinical hypothyroidism?

A

Raised TSH, but T3 and T4 normal, no symptoms

32
Q

What is a Mantoux test?

A

A skin-prick test for TB, if TB is present (active or latent) a skin reaction will occur - unless they are immunosuppressed

33
Q

What are the features of a phaeochromocytoma?

A

hypertension, headaches, palpitations, sweating, anxiety

34
Q

How do you test for a phaeochromocytoma?

A

24hr urinary collection of metanephrines

35
Q

What is the treatment of phaeochromocytoma?

A

Surgery
alpha-blockers (phenoxybenzamine) then beta-blockers (propranolol) in the meantime

36
Q

What are the sodium levels like in pre-renal uraemia?

A

High, because they hold onto sodium to preserve volume

37
Q

What is Kallmann syndrome?

A

Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism

38
Q

What are the features of anti-phospholipid syndrome?

A

thrombosis, recurrent miscarriage, livedo reticularis (lace-like appearance of skin), prolonged APTT

39
Q

What is the management of anti-phospholipid syndrome?

A

Primary thromboprophylaxis - low-dose aspirin
Secondary - lifelong warfarin

40
Q

What type of crystals are present in gout?

A

negatively bifringent needles, monosodium urate

41
Q

What are the features of an adrenal crisis?

A

hypotension, tachycardia, hyperkalaemia and hyponatraemia

42
Q

What is the management of an adrenal crisis?

A

IV hydrocortisone (no need for mineralocorticoids as hydro provides some mineralocorticoid activity)

43
Q

What are the features of hypomagnesaemia?

A

Parasthesia, tetany, seizures and arrhythmias

44
Q

How much adrenaline do you give to an adult in anaphylaxis?

A

500 micrograms (0.5ml of 1 in 1000)

45
Q

What is lupus pernio?

A

A raised purple rash over the nose, in patients with sarcoidosis

46
Q

What are the features of an acute haemolytic reaction?

A

Fever, abdo pain, hypotension

47
Q

What is the management of an acute haemolytic reaction?

A

stop transfusion, send crossmatch, fluid resuscitation

48
Q
A

Finals passmed (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions