Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

What is the triad of symptoms of Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

Confusion, ataxia and nystagmus

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2
Q

What causes Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

thiamine deficiency (mostly secondary to chronic alcohol consumption)

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3
Q

What is the management of Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

IV pabrinex (B and C vitamins)

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4
Q

What is Korsakoff’s syndrome?

A

Wernicke’s encephalopathy - if untreated - causes amnesia (antero and retrograde) and confabulation

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5
Q

What medications are used for migraine prophylaxis?

A

Propranolol or topiramate (in asthmatics but not in women of child-bearing age)

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6
Q

What is the first line treatment for an acute migraine episode?

A

oral triptan and NSAID/paracetamol

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7
Q

What is the most common presentation of a posterior communicating artery aneurysm?

A

painful third nerve palsy

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8
Q

What is the management of idiopathic intracranial hypertension?

A

Acetazolamide (carbonic anhydrase inhibitor)

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9
Q

What are the indications for doing a CT scan within 1 hour of a head injury?

A
  • GCS < 13 initially or <1 after 2 hrs
  • skull fracture
  • seizure
  • focal neurological signs
  • more than one episode of vomiting
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10
Q

When would you do a CT scan within 8 hours after a head injury?

A
  • age > 65
  • history of bleeding/clotting disorders
  • > 30 mins of retrograde amnesia
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11
Q

What imaging do you use to diagnose MS?

A

MRI brain and orbits with contrast

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12
Q

What are the features of optic neuritis?

A
  • unilateral decrease in visual acuity and colour discrimination
  • pain worse on movement
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13
Q

What is the management of optic neuritis?

A

high dose steroids

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14
Q

What investigations should you do for a TIA?

A

Carotid artery doppler, CT/MR angiography

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15
Q

What is tardive dyskinesia?

A

involuntary repetitive movements affecting any part of the body, but mainly face and tongue - s/e of long term anti-psychotic use

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16
Q

What is acute dystonia?

A

Occurs within days of starting or increasing antipsychotic dose. Sustained muscle contractions leading to abnormal postures

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17
Q

What are the features of temporal arteritis?

A

patient >60, rapid onset < 1 month, headache, jaw claudication, tender temporal artery, visual changes

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18
Q

What may you see on temporal artery biopsy of someone with temporal arteritis?

A

skip lesions

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19
Q

What is the management of temporal arteritis?

A
  • urgent high-dose glucocorticoids
  • urgent ophthalmology review (if visual symptoms)
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20
Q

What causes visual loss in temporal arteritis?

A

anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy - swollen pale disc ad blurred margins on fundoscopy

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21
Q

Which ocular cranial nerve palsy is commonly found in patients with raised ICP?

A

oculomotor - down and out

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22
Q

What is the first line antibiotic used for bacterial meningitis?

A

IV ceftriaxone or cefotaxime (50yrs + those plus amoxicillin)
IV dexamethasone

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23
Q

What is the management of raised ICP?

A
  • get critical care input
  • secure airway, high flow oxygen
  • IV access - bloods and cultures
  • IV dexamethasone
  • IV abx if needed
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24
Q

Which antibiotic is used for listeria meningitidis?

A

IV amoxicillin + gentamicin

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25
Q

Which antibiotic should be used as prophylaxis for contacts of meningitis?

A

ciprofloxacin

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26
Q

What is the initial management of an acute ischaemic stroke?

A

exclude haemorrhagic stroke, then 300mg aspirin.
If within 4.5 hours - thrombolysis (alteplase)
If within 6 hours - thrombectomy if in proximal anterior circulation

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27
Q

What is used for the secondary prevention of strokes?

A

clopidogrel
If not aspirin plus dipyramidol

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28
Q

What is the first line anti-coagulant for stroke prevention?

A

DOACs - apixiban/rivaroxiban

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29
Q

How do you manage an aneurysm following a subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

Aneurysm coiling

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30
Q

What are the features of an extradural haematoma?

A
  • acceleration-deceleration injury/blow to side of head
  • may have a lucid interval
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31
Q

Which blood test can differentiate a seizure and a functional seizure?

A

Prolactin (10-20 mins after) raised in epileptic seizure

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32
Q

What is the treatment of a brain abcess?

A

IV ceftriaxone/other cef, plus metronidazole

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33
Q

What is the typical presentation of a pontine haemorrhage?

A

reduced GCS, paralysis, bilateral pin point pupils

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34
Q

What are the features of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?

A

Rapid onset dementia and myoclonus due to prion proteins

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35
Q

When do you get autonomic dysreflexia?

A

spinal cord injury above T6

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36
Q

What is the cushing’s triad?

A

bradycardia, hypertension, bradypnoea

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37
Q

What is the management of tonic-clonic epilepsy?

A
  • levetiracetam or lamotrigine in women of childbearing age
  • sodium valproate in everyone else
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38
Q

What is the management of absence seizures (hellooooo)?

A

1st line: ethosuximide (ethosexymide)
2nds: men: sodium valproate
women: lamotrigine or levetiracetam

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39
Q

What is the management of myoclonic seizures?

A

men: sodium valproate
women: levetiracetaM

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39
Q

what is the management of tonic/atonic seizures?

A

Men: sodium valproate
Women: lamoTrigine

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40
Q

What is cataplexy?

A

sudden, transient loss of muscular tone when experiencing strong emotions

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41
Q

What is weber’s syndrome and how does it present?

A

Midbrain stroke - ipsilateral CN III palsy with contralateral hemiparesis - may have dilated unresponsive pupils if bad

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42
Q

What is the management of viral meningitis?

A

supportive - antivirals don’t really help

43
Q

What medication is typically used for thrombolysis in an ischaemic stroke?

44
Q

What time frame can you give thrombolysis and thrombectomy?

A

thrombolysis - within 4.5 hours
thrombectomy - within 6 hours or within 24 hours if chance to salvage brain tissue

45
Q

Which medication is used to prevent vasospasm in subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

CCB - nimodipine

46
Q

Does a diabetic oculomotor palsy affect the pupil?

A

Not always - parasympathetic fibres are less affected by ischaemia

47
Q

What is used for long term prophylaxis of cluster headaches?

A

CCBs like verapamil

48
Q

What is the management of raised intracranial pressure?

A

elevate head to 30 degrees, IV mannitol, controlled hyperventilation (low pCO2 causes vasoconstriction in brain), removal of CSF

49
Q

What is cushings triad?

A

widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, irregular breathing

50
Q

Which antiemetic is used for intracranial causes of nausea and vomiting?

A

Cyclizine - can also give dexamethasone alongside

51
Q

What are the features of degenerative cervical myelopathy?

A

Can have pain/loss of function/loss of sensation/autonomic function - usually progressive
+ve hoffman’s sign - flick finger on one hand, causes reflex twitching of finger on other hand

52
Q

What is cushings triad?

A

Hypertension, bradycardia and irregular breathing - raised ICP

53
Q

When is intraventricular haemorrhage most likely to occur?

A

Premature babies

54
Q

What investigation do you do after a subarachnoid haemorrhage seen on a CT scan?

A

CT angiogram

55
Q

Which type of weighted MRI is water white?

A

T2 weighted - H2O is white

56
Q

Which cerebral event causes torsades de points?

57
Q

How can you distinguish a haemorrhagic vs a ischaemic stroke on CT?

A

haemorrhagic shows hyperdense material surrounded by hypodense (oedema)

ischaemic shows hyperdense artery

58
Q

What is the management of bacterial meningitis?

A

Abx (Cefotaxime or ceftriaxone if 3m to 50yrs - add amoxicillin if over 50) plus dexamethasone

59
Q

What effects can you get when taking levodopa?

A

wearing off phenomenon - wearing off just before you take the next dose
peak dose dyskinesia - dyskinetic effects shortly after taking

60
Q

What is the management of malignant spinal cord compression?

A

high-dose dexamethasone, MRI spine, urgent surgical assessment

61
Q

How do you diagnose dementia?

A

Blood screen to exclude reversible causes, neuroimaging - needed for diagnosis

62
Q

What type of feeding should be initiated in a patient with MND and an unsafe swallow?

63
Q

What is the management of a myasthenic crisis?

A

IV IgG and plasmapheresis

64
Q

How does an anterior inferior cerebellar infarct differ from a posterior inferior cerebellar infarct?

A

AICA - facial paralysis and deafness as well as PICA symptoms (pons)
PICA - facial pain and temp loss, contralateral limb pain and temp loss (medulla)

65
Q

What are the features of Wernickes encephalopathy?

A

Ataxia, nystagmus and confusion, opthalmoplegia

66
Q

What is the management of a TIA?

A

300mg aspirin unless contraindicated. If on anticoagulants - CT to exclude haemorrhage.
If high risk: aspirin + clopidogrel
After 21 days: clopidogrel

67
Q

What type of facial paralysis is forehead sparing?

A

UMN problem - due to dual supply

68
Q

What investigations would you do in a stroke patient under the age of 55 with no known cause?

A

Thrombophilia panel and autoantibodies

69
Q

Which opiate can be used for neuropathic pain?

A

Tramadol - dual action as opiate and SNRI

70
Q

What types of tumours are more likely to cause bitemporal quandrantanopias?

A

Pituitary tumour - superior bitemporal quan
Craniopharyngiomas - inferior

71
Q

What is the investigation of choice for suspected MS?

A

CT with gadolinium contrast. To diagnose: MRI brain and spine with contrast

72
Q

What investigation should be done following a TIA?

A

Carotid doppler ultrasound, CT if other causes need to be ruled out

73
Q

What is the management of IIH?

A

Weight loss, carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (acetazolamide), topiramate
repeated lumbar punctures, shunt

74
Q

What are the features of an uncal (trans tentorial) herniation?

A

3rd nerve palsy

75
Q

What are the features of cerebellar tonsil herniation?

A

asystolic cardiopulmonary arrest

76
Q

Which scoring system is used to assess likelihood of a stroke?

A

ROSIER - recognition of stroke in the emergency room

77
Q

What medication is used for secondary prevention of a stroke/TIA? (1st and 2nd line)

A

1st - clopidogrel
2nd - aspirin + dipyridamole
3rd - aspirin

78
Q

How does baclofen work?

A

It is a GABA-B agonist, which causes relaxation of the skeletal muscles primarily, but can have some effect on smooth muscle

79
Q

What is the management of an acute relapse of MS?

A

High dose methylprednisolone (oral or IV)

80
Q

Which drugs can reduce the incidence of MS relapses?

A

Nataluzimab, beta-interferon

81
Q

What is the first line treatment of MS spasticity?

A

Baclofen and gabapentin

82
Q

What is the difference in presentation between peripheral neuropathy and mononeuritis multiplex?

A

peripheral - gradual onset, symmetrical distribution
mononeuritis - focal, isolated nerve damage, asymmetrical

83
Q

Which sign can be used to differentiate between functional and organic lower limb weakness?

A

Hoover’s sign (synergistic contraction of other leg and lumbar muscles)

84
Q

What is the Hoffman’s sign?

A

flick index finger, see if there is involuntary movement of the index and thumb - UMN lesion

85
Q

What is the management of status epilepticus?

A

A-E
pre-hospital PR diazepam or buccal midazolam
hospital - Iv lorazepam (repeat once)
If not working: IV levetiracetam, phenytoin, sodium valproate
after 45 mins: general anaesthesia

86
Q

What is the acute management of a migraine?

A

triptan + NSAID/paracetamol

87
Q

What is the first line management of migraine prophylaxis?

A

propranolol (not in asthmatics)
topiramate (not in women of childbearing age - can affect hormonal contraceptives)
amitriptyline

88
Q

Which parkinson’s medication is best for symptom management?

89
Q

How long must you be seizure-free for to drive?

A

6 months non-epileptic
12 months epileptic

90
Q

What is the management of status epilepticus?

A

IV lorazepam/buccal medazolam
IV lorazepam
IV phenyoin/valproate/levetiracetam
Rapid sequence induction using sodium thiopental

91
Q

Which anti-epileptics are used in tonic/atonic seizures vs myoclonic seizures?

A

Males: sodium valproate for both
Tonic females: lamoTrigine
myoclonic females: Levetiracetam

92
Q

Which antiplatelets are given after a TIA?

A

within 24hrs, waiting for specialist: Aspirin
first 21 days after specialist review: clopidogrel + aspirin
Long term: clopidogrel
(but if high risk of GI bleeding, give clopidogrel and a PPI)

93
Q

What is the most common complication of meningitis?

A

sensorineural hearing loss

94
Q

What are the CSF findings of bacterial meningitis?

A

high opening pressure, raised protein, raised neutrophils, low glucose, cloudy

95
Q

What are the features of a basal ganglia stroke?

A

slowness, lack of emotion or initiative, hemineglect

96
Q

What is the management of a TIA?

A

300mg aspirin, assessed by specialist within 24hours. all patients on anticoagulants should have a CT head to exclude haemorrhage

97
Q

What investigation is done for trigeminal neuralgia?

98
Q

What is the management of trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Carbemazepine, IV fluids, trigeminal nerve block

99
Q

What are the features of secondary hypertension?

A

Significantly raised BP, occurring at a young age which is resistant to medication

100
Q

What medications are used in parkinsons?

A

Levodopa - dopamine precursor
Carbedopa - prevents peripheral breakdown of levodopa
Ropinirole - dopamine agonist
Selegine - MAOB - prevents breakdown of dopamine

101
Q

When do you give thrombolysis in stroke?

A

within 4.5 hours of stroke onset, alteplase

102
Q

When do you give thrombectomy in stroke?

A

within 6 hours, (can give with thrombolysis in 4.5 hours) and consider if within 24 hours

103
Q

Which medications do you give for wee wee incontinence?

A

Duloxetine for stress incontinence
Oxybutinin for urge incontinence

104
Q

What investigations do you do in Guillan Barre syndrome?

A

LP and EMG