Resp Flashcards

1
Q

When stepping down asthma treatment what should you do?

A

Reduce the ICS by 25-50%

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2
Q

What are the common features of a lung abscess presentation?

A

Symptoms develop over weeks, systemic symptoms, productive cough with foul-smelling sputum, some haemoptysis, chest pain, dyspnoea

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3
Q

What are the X-Ray signs of a lung abscess?

A

fluid-filled space within an area of consolidation, air-fluid level

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4
Q

What is the management of a lung abscess?

A

IV Abx
percutaneous drainage if not resolving

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5
Q

What is FEV1?

A

The total volume of air someone is able to exhale in the first second of forced expiration

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6
Q

What is FVC?

A

The total volume of air that can be exhaled by the person in one breath

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7
Q

What is the FEV1/FVC ratio like in obstructive diseases?

A

Low (FEV1 is low but the total volume of air the lungs can hold is the same, they just have issues getting it out)

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8
Q

What is alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency?

A

A genetic condition that classically causes emphysema

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9
Q

What are the causes of upper zone lung fibrosis?

A

CHARTS
- coal workers pneumoconiosis, hypersensitivity pneumonitis, ankylosing spondylitis, radiation, tuberculosis, silicosis/sarcoidosis

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10
Q

What is the most common type of lung cancer in non-smokers?

A

Adenocarcinoma

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11
Q

What are the most common types of lung cancer in smokers?

A

adenocarcinoma, small cell and squamous cell

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12
Q

Which type of lung cancer is associated with gynaecomastia?

A

Adenocarcinoma

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13
Q

Which type of lung cancer is most associated with finger clubbing?

A

squamous cell

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14
Q

What is a pancoast tumour?

A

A tumour at the apex of the lung

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15
Q

What are the features of a pancoast tumour?

A

Persistent hoarse voice, smoking history, malaise, weight loss

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16
Q

What score is used to decide if a PE can be managed in outpatients?

A

Pulmonary embolism severity index (PESI)

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17
Q

What is a common complication of steroid inhaler use?

A

Oral/oesophageal candidiasis (painful swallowing)

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18
Q

What is the management of extrinsic alveolitis?

A

e.g. farmers lung/pigeon fanciers lung
Avoid triggers,
oral glucocorticoids

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19
Q

What is the most common cause of resp infections in COPD patients?

A

Haem flu (most common), step pneumonia

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20
Q

What are the features of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?

A
  • exertional dyspnoea
  • bibasal fine end creps
  • dry cough
  • clubbing
  • ground- glass
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21
Q

What X Ray finding is indicative of bronchiectasis?

A

tram-line - parallel line shadows

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22
Q

What is the PEFR gradings of asthma attacks?

A

<33% = life-threatening
33-50% = severe
50-70% = moderate

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23
Q

What does a pneumonectomy look like on an X-Ray?

A

White space where the lung is - fills with fluid after a while that is why it is white

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24
Q

What is the management of an acute exacerbation of COPD?

A

Oral prednisolone for 5 days

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25
Q

When do you give antibiotics in a COPD exacerbation?

A

When the sputum is purulent or there are clinical signs of pneumonia

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26
Q

What are the features of autoimmune hepatitis?

A

Jaundice, amenorrhoea, signs of chronic liver disease

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27
Q

What may be seen on bloods in autoimmune hepatitis?

A

Deranged lfts, raised WCC, raised IgG, ANA/SMA/LKMI antibodies

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28
Q

What is the management of autoimmune hepatitis?

A

Steroids, immunosuppressants - azathioprine, liver transplantation

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29
Q

What is good inhaler technique?

A
  • shake
  • breathe out gently
  • breathe in slow and deep, press down and keep breathing in
  • hold breath for 10 seconds
  • wait 30 seconds before second dose
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30
Q

What is a common endocrine complication of small cell lung cancer?

A

SIADH

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31
Q

which conditions have a raised transfer coefficient?

A

asthma, pulmonary haemorrhage, left to right cardiac shunts, polycythaemia

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32
Q

Which conditions cause a lower transfer coefficient?

A

pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonia, pulmonary emboli, pulmonary oedema, emphysema, anaemia, low cardiac output

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33
Q

What are the features of a pneumothorax?

A

Sudden onset dyspnoea, chest pain, hyper-resonant on percussion, reduced

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34
Q

What is the criteria for discharging a patient following an acute asthma attack?

A
  • stable on their discharge medication for 12-24hrs
  • inhaler technique
  • PEF > 75% of predicted
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35
Q

What is the most common organism in a COPD exacerbation?

A

haemophilus influenzae

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36
Q

What is the most common organism that causes a bronchiectasis exacerbation?

A

haemophilus influenzae

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37
Q

Which conditions cause upper zone fibrosis?

A

C - coal workers pneumoconiosis
H - hypersensitivity pneumonitis
A - ankylosing spondylitis
R - Radiation
T - tuberculosis

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38
Q

What is the fluid from if it is exudate? (fluid protein/serum protein ratio >0.5)

A

TB, lung cancer, meigs syndrome

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39
Q

What would cause a transudate pleural effusion?

A

non-resp causes like nephrotic syndrome, heart failure

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40
Q

What can you give in type 2 respiratory failure if medical interventions didn’t work?

A

BiPAP

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41
Q

Which chest signs on auscultation do you hear in pulmonary fibrosis?

A

fine end-inspiratory crepitations

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42
Q

What would you give in a viral COPD exacerbation?

A

5 day course of oral prednisolone

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43
Q

What condition has a ground glass appearance on CXR?

44
Q

What type of lung cancer is associated with Cushing’s syndrome?

A

small cell lung cancer

45
Q

What is the management of allergic aspergilliosis?

A

Oral prednisolone

46
Q

What are the features of sarcoidosis?

A

erythema nodosum, bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, fever, polyarthralgia, lupus pernio, cough, hypercalcaemia

47
Q

What is the management of life-threatening asthma in those who do not respond to treatment?

A

intubation and ventilation

48
Q

How do you calculate pack years?

A

1 pack year is 20 cigarettes per day for 1 year

49
Q

Which anticoagulation is used for a PE?

A

apixaban or rivaroxaban

50
Q

Which type of pneumonia is most associated with cold sores?

A

strep pneumoniae pneumonia (pneumococcus pneumoniae)

51
Q

How do you diagnose legionella pneumonia?

A

urinary antigen

52
Q

What is the definitive management to prevent recurrent pneumothoraxes?

A

video assisted thoracoscopy surgery pleurodesis

53
Q

What are the features of Churg-Strauss syndrome (eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis)?

A

asthma, eosinophilia, sinusitis/nasal polyps, pANCA

54
Q

When would you use a V/Q scan instead of a CTPA in a suspected PE?

A

If there is renal impairment - CTPA uses contrast

55
Q

Which causative organism causes a pneumonia with cavitating lesions in the lower zone?

A

Staph aureus - also can be preceded by an influenza

56
Q

Which causative organism is indicated in pneumonia in an alcoholic?

A

Klebsiella pneumonia

57
Q

When adding a new type of inhaled drug do you add a new inhaler or start a combination?

A

Combi inhaler

58
Q

What is the minimum size of a pneumothorax to insert a chest drain?

59
Q

What is the first line management of COPD?

A

SABA or SAMA

60
Q

What is the second line management of COPD?

A

not steroid responsive: add LAMA + LABA
steroid responsive: add LABA + ICS

61
Q

What are the classic signs of pneumocystitis jiroveci?

A

HIV patients, dry cough, exercised-induced desaturation

62
Q

What is the management of a tension pneumothorax?

A

Urgent decompression with a needle - can insert a chest drain later

63
Q

What is the management of a PE?

A

Apixaban or rivaroxaban 1st line
If haemodynamically unstable: thrombolysis such as alteplase
LMWH if really severe renal failure

64
Q

How is asthma diagnosed?

A

FEV1 increased more than 12% after bronchodilator or PEFR variability > 20%

65
Q

What amount of protein in the pleural fluid if it is exudative?

A

> 30g/L - caused by cancers, infection, connective tissue disorders

66
Q

What results would you see on spirometry for IPF?

A

FEV1:FVC > 70%, low FVC, reduced transfer coefficient

67
Q

What is the first line investigation for adults with suspected asthma?

A

eosinophil count or fractional nitric oxide

68
Q

What is the first line investigation for children with suspected asthma?

A

fractional nitric oxide

69
Q

Which paraneoplastic features are associated with small cell lung cancer?

A

ADH, ACTH, Lambert Eaton

70
Q

Which paraneoplastic features are common with squamous cell lung cancer?

A

PTH-related protein, hyperthyroid, osteoarthropathy

71
Q

Which paraneoplastic features are common with adenocarcinoma?

A

Gynaecomastia, oestoarthropathy

72
Q

Which lung conditions cause upper zone fibrosis?

A

CHARTS. Coal-workers pneumoconiosis, hypersensitivity pneumonitis, ankylosing spondylitis, radiation, TB, sarcoid/silicosis

73
Q

What is the cause and management of pleural plaques?

A

Caused by asbestos exposure - are benign and do not require follow-up

74
Q

What is the management of asbestosis?

A

conservative

75
Q

What is the management of a mesothelioma?

A

Palliative chemotherapy

76
Q

What is the difference in presentation between acute bronchitis and pneumonia?

A

Acute bronchitis - nothing on CXR, wheeze on auscultation
Pneumonia: focal chest signs (on auscultation)

77
Q

What is the management of acute bronchitis?

A

If CRP < 20
CRP 20-100 - delayed abx
CRP > 100 - doxycycline (amox in pregnant women and kids)

78
Q

What are the features of sarcoidosis?

A

erythema nodosum, hilar lymphadenopathy, swinging fever and polyarthralgia, hypercalcaemia, lupus pernio (rash over face)

79
Q

In a COPD exacerbation what PhD would be considered for Invasive ventilation?

A

pH < 7.25 IV
pH 7.25-7.35 NIV

80
Q

What are the chest X-Ray findings of silicosis?

A

upper zone fibrosis and egg shell calcification of hilar nodes

81
Q

Which antibiotic can be given as prophylaxis for recurrent COPD exacerbations?

A

Azithromycin

82
Q

How can you differentiate between a PE and fat-embolism syndrome?

A

Both have similar symptoms, fat embolism can cause confusion and neurological symptoms too. Often occurs 12-72hrs after traumatic fracture

83
Q

What type of blood gas does hyperventilation show?

A

Respiratory alkalosis - blowing of CO2 makes it more alkaline. PaCO2 low, normal PaO2

84
Q

What is the management of a primary or secondary pneumothorax with no alarming features?

A

Primary - Outpatient follow-up every 2-4 days
Secondary - conservative management with inpatient follow-up

85
Q

What are the parts of a CURB-65 score?

A

Confusion (8)
Urea > 7
RR > 30
BP < 90/60
Age > 65

86
Q

What is the management of asthma in adults?

A

1: ICS/formoterol combi reliever (AIR)
2. low dose MART (ICS/formoterol maintenance) - can start this first if bad symptoms like nocturnal awakening
3. medium dose MART
4. Add LAMA/LTRA

87
Q

When do you offer long-term oxygen therapy in COPD?

A

If PaO2 is 7.3-8
AND has polycythaemia, oedema, or pulmonary hypertension

88
Q

What pH level does it need to be to intubate in COPD?

A

< 7.26 - above that but below 7.35 give BiPAP

89
Q

How do you diagnose sleep apnoea?

A

Polysomnography

90
Q

What should the PaO2 of oxygen be?

A

10 less than the fraction of inspired oxygen

91
Q

What is the difference in blood gases between type 2 acute and chronic resp failure?

A

Acute - bicarb usually normal as kidneys take hours or days to raise, and pH is low
Chronic - pH is normal due to metabolic compensation, Bicarb is high

92
Q

Why do people with COPD get polycythaemia?

A

hypoxia increases EPO production which increases RBC production (raised haemoglobin and haematocrit)

93
Q

In a pleural effusion which factors determine whether a chest drain should be placed?

A

cloudy fluid, pH < 7.2, organisms

94
Q

How long after resolution of pneumonia should you have a CXR?

95
Q

What are the specific features of a legionella infection?

A

bradycardia, confusion, lymphopaenia, hyponatraemia, deranged lfts

96
Q

What type of NIV is used for sleep apnoea?

A

CPAP (BiPAP for COPD/asthma exacerbations)

97
Q

What is the most common cause of CAP?

A

streptococcus pneumonia

98
Q

Which vaccines should you get if you have COPD?

A

one off pneumococcal and yearly flu (if CKD or hyposplenism have pneumococcal every 5 years)

99
Q

Which antibiotic can be given prophylactically in COPD?

A

azithromycin

100
Q

What is Meig’s syndrome?

A

Benign ovarian tumour, ascites, pleural effusion

101
Q

What is the diagnostic investigation in idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?

102
Q

What is the first line management of asthma in adults?

A

low dose ICS and formoterol (LABA) (as-needed AIR therapy) - and then second line change to maintenance

103
Q

What is atelectasis?

A

Partial or complete collapse of a part of a lung due to fluid filling the alveolar space or deflation of the alveoli

104
Q

Which drugs typically cause lung fibrosis?

A

Amiodarone and methotrexate

105
Q

What is the first line antibiotic for a hospital acquired pneumonia?

A

Co-Amoxiclav

106
Q

What is an exudative pleural effusions?

A

Excess fluid in the pleural space, due to capillary leakage. > 35g/L, usually due to infection or malignancy

107
Q

What abx do you give in CAP?

A

0-1 = oral amoxicillin/clarith/doxy
2 = combi oral
3-5 = IV coamox and clarith