Cardio Flashcards

1
Q

An MI in which area of the heart is most likely to cause an AV block?

A

Inferior MI

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2
Q

What are the common complications of an MI?

A

Cardiac arrest, cardiogenic shock, brady/tachycardias, pericarditis, dressler’s syndrome

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3
Q

In which leads would you see changes in an inferior MI?

A

II, III and aVF

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4
Q

What are the characteristic features of acute mitral regurgitation?

A

acute onset SOB, bibasal crackles, hypotension and a systolic murmur

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5
Q

What are the presenting features of a left ventricular wall aneurysm?

A

Acute-onset SOB, bilateral infiltrates, S3 heart sound, persistent ST elevation

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6
Q

What are the features of superior vena cava obstruction?

A

facial and upper limb swelling, with distended veins, breathlessness

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7
Q

What is P mitrale?

A

A bifid P wave, due to left atrial hypertrophy e.g. in mitral valve stenosis

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8
Q

What are the risk factors in the CHA2DS2VASc score acronym?

A

Congestive HF, Hypertension, Age >75 or age >65, diabetes, prior stroke/TIA/DVT, vascular disease, Sex (female)

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9
Q

What chadvasc score requires anticoagulation?

A

> 2

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10
Q

What are the signs of cardiac tamponade?

A

Beck’s triad: hypotension, elevated JVP, diminished heart sounds.
Pulsus paradoxus (drop in BP during inspiration)
Can be after trauma

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11
Q

What is the management of aortic dissection?

A

ascending aorta - IV labetalol and surgery
descending aorta - IV labetalol

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12
Q

When would you use unsynchronised cardioversion?

A

When the patient is in cardiac arrest or pulseless ventricular tachycardia

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13
Q

When would you use synchronised cardioversion?

A

For haemodynamically unstable tachyarrhythmias

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14
Q

What would classify as unstable signs?

A

hypotension <90 systolic, syncope, clammy etc, myocardial ischaemia, heart failure.

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15
Q

How can you tell the difference between aortic dissection in the ascending vs descending aorta?

A

Ascending - you get changes in heart sounds (diastolic murmur over the 2nd intercostal space, right sternal edge)

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16
Q

What are the X-Ray findings of aortic dissection?

A

widened mediastinum

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17
Q

What is the management of aortic dissection?

A

Ascending: surgical management, BP controlled
Descending: conservative management, IV labetalol

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18
Q

Why do you get a soft ejection systolic murmur in anaemia?

A

Anaemia makes blood thinner causing turbulent flow in the aorta which creates a murmur

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19
Q

Why do people with CKD get anaemia?

A

reduced EPO and reduced absorption of iron

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20
Q

What are the features of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy?

A

Autosomal dominant - FH. Often asymptomatic, can get exertional dyspnoea, angina, syncope,

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21
Q

What are the finding of hypoertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy on echo?

A

MR SAM ASH. Mitral regurgitation, systolic anterior motion of anterior mitral valve, asymmetric hypertrophy

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22
Q

What is Wellen’s syndrome?

A

ECG pattern seen due to stenosis of LAD - biphasic or deep T-wave inversion in V2-3, minimal ST elevation

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23
Q

What is the first line management of heart failure?

A

ACE-I and beta-blocker

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24
Q

What is the second line management of heart failure

A

add an aldosterone antagonist (spironolactone, eplerenone)
or SGLT-2 inhibitors (dapaglifozin)

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25
Q

What vaccines should you offer those with heart failure?

A

annual flu vaccine, one of pneumococcal vaccine

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26
Q

What is the management of new onset AF?

A

anticoagulation and DC cardioversion (if within 48 hours of AF starting)

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27
Q

What investigation should you do before cardioversion in AF?

A

transoesophageal echo to exclude left auricular appendage thrombus

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28
Q

Which score should be used to assess whether patients with AF should be on anticoagulation?

A

ORBIT

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29
Q

What are the 5 parts of the ORBIT score?

A
  • Haemoglobin <140 for men, <120 for females (2)
  • Age > 74 (1)
  • Bleeding history (2)
  • Renal Impairment (1)
  • Treatment with anti-platelets (1)
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30
Q

Which haemodynamic changes are seen in hypovolaemic shock?

A
  • decreased cardiac output
  • increased heart rate
  • reduced left ventricular filling pressure
  • reduced blood pressure
  • increased systemic vascular resistance
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31
Q

What commonly causes neurogenic shock?

A
  • decreased sympathetic tone or increased parasympathetic tone - marked decrease in peripheral vascular resistance due to vasodilation - decreases preload and CO causing reduced tissue perfusion and therefore shock
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32
Q

Which murmur is associated with a VSD?

A

pansystolic

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33
Q

What is the management of angina?

A

BB or CCB, if symptoms not controlled on one, start both

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34
Q

What investigations should be done in suspected pericarditis?

A

ECG, transthoracic echo, bloods (inflammatory markers, troponin)

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35
Q

What is the medical management of pericarditis?

A

NSAIDs and Colchicine until symptoms resolution

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36
Q

What does an opening snap sound indicate?

A

mitral valve leaflets are still mobile

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37
Q

what murmur is heard in mitral stenosis?

A

mid-late diastolic murmur (best heard in expiration)

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38
Q

What is takotsubo cardiomyopathy?

A

Paralysis at the apex of the heart, can cause transient reduction in CO, may present with chest pain or collapse in stressful situation

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39
Q

What are the common causes of dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

alcohol, coxsackie B, wet beri beri, doxorubicin

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40
Q

What are the common causes of restrictive cardiomyopathy?

A

amyloidosis, post-radiotherapy, endocarditis

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41
Q

What is the management of a patient with peripheral arterial disease?

A

Clopidogrel and atorvastatin

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42
Q

What ABPI value confirms peripheral arterial disease?

A

< 0.9

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43
Q

Which valvular disease is associated with quinke’s sign?

A

Aortic regurgitation

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44
Q

What is the murmur in aortic regurgitation?

A

Early diastolic

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45
Q

What is the management of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy?

A

A - amiodarone
B - beta blocker
C - cardioverter defibrillator
D - dual chamber pacemaker
E - endocarditis prophylaxis

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46
Q

What is the management of bradycardia with shock?

A

500ug Atropine and repeat

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47
Q

What is the next step if IV atropine does not help bradycardia?

A
  • repeat
  • transcutaneous pacing
  • adrenaline infusion
  • transvenous pacing
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48
Q

What is the management of angina?

A
  • sublingual GTN spray
  • CCB or BB first line
  • Then both - but must give longer acting CCB or likely to get heart block
49
Q

What is the management of a patient who presents with acute coronary syndrome?

A

MONA - morphine, oxygen, aspirin 300mg, nitrates

50
Q

What is the management of a STEMI?

A

300mg aspirin,
if possible PCI within 120 mins
if not, fibrinolysis with ticagrelor

51
Q

What is the management of an NSTEMI/unstable angina?

A
  • aspirin 300mg
  • Fondaparinux if no PCI
  • if GRACE risk 3.1> give ticagrelor
  • if GRACE risk >3.1 send to PCI centre, give ticagrelor and unfractionated heparin
52
Q

What is the GRACE score for?

A

Assessing likelihood of cardiac mortality in next 6 months

53
Q

What is the gold standard investigation for cardiac tamponade?

54
Q

What is the first line management for chronic AF?

A

beta blockers
- then CCBs/ digoxin
rhythm control comes after: amiodarone

55
Q

What is the management of acute limb ischaemia?

A

Analgesia, IV heparin and vascular review

56
Q

What are the features of acute limb ischaemia?

A

Pale, pulseless, painful, paralysed, paraesthetic, cold

57
Q

What are the ECG findings of a posterior MI?

A

Tall R waves in V1 and V2

58
Q

Which organism causes endocarditis in IVDU?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

59
Q

What medication do you give for anti-clotting in AF/venous clots?

A

Warfarin or apixaban/rivaroxaban - as this type of clotting is due to blood stasis and is therefore clotting-factor driven

60
Q

Which medication do you give for arterial clots?

A

Low dose aspirin, clopidogrel, ticagrelor, dipyramidole. Mainly platelet driven due to damaged endothelium

61
Q

What is the first line anti-platelet in coronary heart disease?

A

Aspirin 75mg

62
Q

What is the first line antiplatelet in cerebrovascular disease?

A

Clopidogrel 75mg

63
Q

Which calcium channel blockers are rate limiting?

A

Verapamil and diltiazem

64
Q

Which antiplatelets do you give prior to PCI in a STEMI?

A

aspirin 300mg
prasugrel if not already taking oral anticoagulant
Clopidogrel if taking anticoagulant

65
Q

Which anticoagulants are used in PCI?

A

unfractionated heparin with bailout glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor

66
Q

What are the ECG signs of a posterior MI?

A

St depression in leads V1-V3

67
Q

Which murmurs are louder on inspiration and which on expiration?

A

RILE
Right sided loud on inspiration
Left sided loud on expiration

68
Q

A pulmonary embolism shows what kind of picture on blood gases?

A

Respiratory alkalosis (causes hyperventilation, low CO2 - alkalosis)

69
Q

What is the first line medication for reducing stroke risk in AF?

A

Rivaroxaban/apixaban

70
Q

What is the management of a pulmonary embolism?

A

DOACs first line
if not LMWH followed by warfarin.
If circulatory failure: thrombolysis

71
Q

What medications should be given in ALS after 3 shocks in VF/VT?

A

Adrenaline 1mg and amiodarone 300mg

72
Q

What investigation do you do in suspected aortic dissection?

A

CT angio if stable
transoesophageal echo is unstable

73
Q

Which drugs do you use for which tachycardia?

A

adenosine - narrow complex SVT
amiodarone - broad complex
magnesium sulphate - torsades de pointes

74
Q

What do you give patients on warfarin needing emergency surgery?

A

Prothrombin complex
if surgery can wait 6-8hrs - vit K

75
Q

What does an ASD murmur sound like?

A

ejection systolic mumur louder on inspiration

76
Q

When does left ventricular free wall rupture occur following an MI?

A

1-2 weeks after, presents with acute heart failure secondary to cardiac tamponade

77
Q

What are the features of a left ventricular aneurysm?

A

Persistent ST elevation and left ventricular failure

78
Q

When does pericarditis and dressler’s syndrome occur following an MI?

A

pericarditis - within 48 hours, usually following transmural MI
Dressler’s syndrome - 2-6 weeks after MI - autoimmune pericarditis

79
Q

Give an example of a long-acting nitrate

A

Ivabradine, nicorandil, ranolazine

80
Q

A GRACE score of greater than what should indicate PCI in an NSTEMI?

A

3% - PCI within 72 hrs

81
Q

What is the management of bradycardia with signs of shock?

A

500mcg atropine repeated up to 3mg. Atropine is anti-cholinergic - blocks parasympathetic activity

82
Q

In acute coronary syndrome, when would MONA not be used?

A

No Morphine if not severe pain
No oxygen if SATS < 94%
No nitrates if hypotensive

83
Q

What are fusion and capture beats on an ECG?

A

capture - when SAN happens to produce a normal QRS in the context of AV block
fusion - when sinus and ventricular beats coincides

84
Q

Which arrythmias are broad complex?

A

Those that originate below the AV nodes - in the ventricles

85
Q

Which drugs do you give in an NSTEMI?

A

Aspirin + fondaparinux if not having angio or not at high risk of bleeding
if having angio, give unfractionated heparin instead

86
Q

Which CCB can you use in heart failure?

A

Amlodipine

87
Q

Which thiazide-like diuretic do you use in heart failure?

A

Indapamide - less impact on glucose levels, reduces afterload, longer half-life

88
Q

What medications are used for rate control in AF?

A

Beta-blockers +/or rate limiting CCBs (diltiazem)
2nd line: digoxin

89
Q

Which medications are used for rhythm control in AF?

A

Amiodarone + Fleicanide

90
Q

When are adrenaline and amiodarone given in VF/Pulseless VT?

A

After 3rd shock - if non-shockable give adrenaline straight away

91
Q

Which valvular pathology causes an quinke’s and demussets signs?

A

Aortic regurgitation - early diastolic murmur

92
Q

Which coronary artery supplies the inferior aspect of the heart?

A

The right coronary

93
Q

Between which heart sounds are systolic and diastolic murmurs?

A

systolic - between 1-2
diastolic - between 2-1

94
Q

What are the ECG findings in cardiac tamponade?

A

Electrical alternans - Beat-to-beat variation in QRS amplitude due to the swinging motion of the heart within the pericardial sac

95
Q

Can people drive following a PCI?

A

If private vehicle - yes
If bus/lorry - wait 6 weeks then DVLA must reassess

96
Q

What is the management of orthostatic hypotension?

A

fludrocortisone

97
Q

How do you diagnose postural hypotension?

A

symptomatic fall in BP > 20 systolic or 10 diastolic

98
Q

Which scoring system is used to risk-stratify which patients with a PE should be admitted?

A

PESI (pulmonary embolism severity index)

99
Q

What is the acute management of heart failure?

A

IV loop diuretics (furosemide/bumetanide)
Oxygen. GTN if ischaemia/hypertension/valve disease

100
Q

What are the steps for managing hypertension?

A
  1. ACE/ARB if <55 or diabetic. CCB if > 55 or AC
  2. Add either CCB/ACE/ARB or thiazide diuretic
  3. add a third drug or the preceding options
  4. if K+ < 4.5 add spironolactone, if K+ > 4.5 add alpha/beta blocker
101
Q

Name some alpha blockers

A

Tamulosin, doxazosin

102
Q

How long should patients be anticoagulated before they have cardioversion for AF?

A

At least 3 weeks

103
Q

Which drugs are used for pharmacological cardioversion?

A

amiodarone if structural heart disease or mechanical heart valve
amiodarone/flecainide without structural heart disease

104
Q

Why can aortic dissection cause horner’s syndrome?

A

the expanding aorta compresses the sympathetic trunk causing horners (ptosis, miosis and anhidrosis)

105
Q

What is the timeline of ECG changes seen in an MI?

A
  • hyperacute T waves (mins)
  • ST-elevation (mins-hours)
  • T wave inversion (hours-days), pathological Q waves if necrosis
106
Q

What is the management of SVT?

A

valsalva. IV adenosine as rapid IV bolus 6mg, then 12, then 18, or electrical cardioversion

107
Q

Which coronary artery supplies the AVN?

A

Right coronary

108
Q

What causes a third heart sound?

A

Rapid filling of the ventricles, seen in LV failure, dilated cardiomyopathy, pericarditis, mitral regurg

109
Q

What causes a fourth heart sound?

A

Forceful atrial contraction against a stiffened ventricle, such as in hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy and aortic stenosis

110
Q

Which anticoagulant is used in mechanical heart valves?

111
Q

What ECG changes are seen in pericarditis?

A

Widespread saddle-shaped ST Elevation, PR depression

112
Q

What are some common contraindications for statins?

A

Pregnancy and macrolides (erythromycin/clarithromycin)

113
Q

What is the target INR?

114
Q

How can you tell the difference between SVT and sinus tachycardia on ECG?

A

SVT: HR > 160bpm, narrow qrs

115
Q

What are the steps for the management of angina?

A
  1. BB or CCB (diltiazem, verapamil)
  2. BB+CCB (amlodipine, nifedipine)
  3. add long acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil
116
Q

What is boerhaave syndrome?

A

vomiting, thoracic pain, subcutaneous emphysema. middle aged alcoholics

117
Q

What are the features on exam of coarctation of the aorta?

A

Radio-femoral delay, LV heave, weak peripheral pulses, ejection systolic murmur

118
Q

What is the best way to monitor treatment in heart failure?

A

Urine output - catheterisation