SPECIALIZED PEDIATRIC CARE (NELSONS) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most important factor influencing drug dosing in neonates?

A

Organ maturation (especially liver and kidney function).

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2
Q

Why are neonates more susceptible to drug toxicity?

A

Because of immature liver metabolism and renal excretion.

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3
Q

What pharmacokinetic parameter is significantly prolonged in neonates?

A

Drug half-life.

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4
Q

How does total body water affect drug distribution in neonates?

A

Higher total body water increases volume of distribution for water-soluble drugs.

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5
Q

Which enzyme system is immature in neonates affecting drug metabolism?

A

Cytochrome P450 system.

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6
Q

Which class of drugs should be used cautiously in neonates due to risk of kernicterus?

A

Sulfonamides.

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7
Q

What is a common method to calculate pediatric drug dosages?

A

Weight-based dosing (mg/kg).

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8
Q

What is Clark’s rule for pediatric dosing?

A

Child’s dose = (weight in lbs / 150) × adult dose.

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9
Q

What is Young’s rule for pediatric dosing?

A

Child’s dose = (age in years / (age + 12)) × adult dose.

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10
Q

What is the preferred route of medication administration in pediatric emergencies?

A

Intravenous (IV) route.

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11
Q

What is the advantage of the intramuscular route in children?

A

Rapid absorption for certain drugs.

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12
Q

Which pediatric drug formulation improves palatability and compliance?

A

Liquid or chewable formulations.

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13
Q

Why is rectal administration sometimes used in pediatrics?

A

For unconscious, vomiting, or seizing patients.

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14
Q

What is the primary concern with transdermal drug use in infants?

A

Enhanced absorption and risk of toxicity due to thin skin.

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15
Q

Name one important side effect of corticosteroids in children.

A

Growth suppression.

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16
Q

Why is medication adherence challenging in pediatric patients?

A

Due to taste, dosing frequency, and caregiver administration errors.

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17
Q

What is a common technique to minimize distress during blood sampling in children?

A

Use of topical anesthetics like EMLA cream.

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18
Q

Which gauge needle is preferred for venipuncture in infants?

A

23-25 gauge butterfly needle.

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19
Q

What is the most common site for intraosseous access in children?

A

Proximal tibia.

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20
Q

When is intraosseous access indicated?

A

When IV access cannot be quickly obtained in emergencies.

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21
Q

How is nasogastric tube placement confirmed in children?

A

Auscultation of air insufflation and/or X-ray.

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22
Q

Name a contraindication for nasogastric tube placement.

A

Facial trauma.

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23
Q

What is the most appropriate size of endotracheal tube for a term newborn?

A

3.5 mm internal diameter.

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24
Q

How is endotracheal tube size estimated in older children?

A

(Age/4) + 4.

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25
What is the preferred site for lumbar puncture in infants?
L3-L4 or L4-L5 interspace.
26
What position is ideal for lumbar puncture in children?
Lateral decubitus with spine flexed.
27
What is a major complication of lumbar puncture?
Post-lumbar puncture headache or traumatic tap.
28
What is the most important pre-procedure assessment before pediatric sedation?
Airway evaluation.
29
Name a common local anesthetic used in pediatric procedures.
Lidocaine.
30
What is the main complication associated with central venous catheter placement?
Infection or thrombosis.
31
What is the best practice to reduce infection risk during central line insertion?
Maximal sterile barrier precautions.
32
What is a key difference between pediatric and adult responses to anesthesia?
Children have faster respiratory and cardiovascular changes.
33
What is the minimum fasting time before elective surgery for breast milk?
4 hours.
34
What is the minimum fasting time before elective surgery for clear liquids?
2 hours.
35
Why are children at higher risk of airway obstruction during anesthesia?
Due to smaller, more compliant airways and larger tongue.
36
What is laryngospasm and when is it a concern in pediatric anesthesia?
Reflex closure of the vocal cords, common during induction or extubation.
37
What anesthetic agent is commonly used for rapid induction in children?
Sevoflurane.
38
Which premedication can help reduce separation anxiety before pediatric surgery?
Midazolam.
39
What is the most serious complication of inhalational anesthetics in susceptible children?
Malignant hyperthermia.
40
What genetic mutation is associated with malignant hyperthermia?
RYR1 gene mutation.
41
What is the antidote for malignant hyperthermia?
Dantrolene.
42
Why is temperature monitoring crucial in pediatric anesthesia?
Children are prone to hypothermia.
43
What is emergence delirium in pediatric anesthesia?
Agitation and confusion during recovery from anesthesia.
44
Which age group is at highest risk for emergence delirium?
Toddlers and preschoolers (2-5 years old).
45
What is the most sensitive indicator of adequate ventilation during anesthesia?
End-tidal CO₂ monitoring.
46
Which neuromuscular blocker has the shortest duration of action and is commonly used for rapid sequence intubation?
Succinylcholine.
47
What is the recommended method to manage a full stomach in emergency pediatric surgery?
Rapid sequence induction and intubation.
48
A 2-year-old child with meningitis requires IV antibiotics. What key pharmacokinetic change should be considered when dosing?
Increased volume of distribution for water-soluble drugs like aminoglycosides.
49
A preterm neonate on gentamicin develops nephrotoxicity. What is the likely cause?
Prolonged half-life and immature renal clearance leading to accumulation.
50
A 4-year-old undergoing surgery has been NPO for 3 hours after apple juice intake. Can the surgery proceed?
Yes, clear liquids require only 2 hours fasting; surgery can proceed.
51
A 6-month-old infant is receiving medication through a nasogastric tube. The drug is crushed and diluted. What must be confirmed before administration?
Proper tube placement (by auscultation or X-ray) to avoid aspiration.
52
A 3-year-old child is in septic shock and IV access is unobtainable. What is the next best route for vascular access?
Intraosseous access (proximal tibia).
53
During an appendectomy, a 5-year-old develops sudden masseter muscle rigidity after inhalational anesthesia. What is the diagnosis?
Malignant hyperthermia.
54
What immediate steps should be taken when malignant hyperthermia is suspected?
Discontinue triggering agents, administer dantrolene, cool the patient, hyperventilate with 100% oxygen.
55
A 7-year-old is sedated for MRI and develops hypoxia. What is the most likely cause?
Airway obstruction due to sedation-related hypopharyngeal collapse.
56
A neonate needs a lumbar puncture. During the procedure, the infant suddenly becomes apneic. What is the most concerning complication?
Brainstem herniation due to increased intracranial pressure.
57
A 2-year-old child is given lidocaine for a procedure and then develops seizures. What toxicity must be suspected?
Local anesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST).
58
A 1-year-old scheduled for surgery has a URI with mild fever and nasal congestion. What is the anesthetic risk?
Increased risk of perioperative airway complications (laryngospasm, bronchospasm).
59
A child presents with a femur fracture needing emergency surgery. What is the best induction method for anesthesia?
Rapid sequence induction to minimize aspiration risk.
60
A pediatric patient undergoing procedural sedation for fracture reduction suddenly becomes bradycardic. What should you immediately assess?
Oxygenation and ventilation; hypoxia is the most common cause.
61
An 8-year-old has severe burns and requires sedation for dressing changes. Which sedation agent is ideal for providing analgesia and minimal respiratory depression?
Ketamine.
62
After placement of a central venous catheter in a child, there is acute respiratory distress. What is the first investigation to order?
Chest X-ray to rule out pneumothorax.
63
A 2-year-old scheduled for elective hernia repair vomits clear fluid 3 hours before surgery. What is the next best step?
Postpone surgery unless emergent; ensure full fasting time is observed.
64
A neonate receiving phenytoin shows subtherapeutic levels despite correct dosing. What is a possible explanation?
Reduced protein binding and altered metabolism in neonates.
65
A 5-year-old is undergoing anesthesia. After extubation, he has inspiratory stridor and desaturation. What is the diagnosis?
Laryngospasm.
66
During anesthesia, a child’s temperature drops to 34°C. What are the physiologic effects?
Bradycardia, impaired drug metabolism, increased oxygen consumption.
67
A 4-year-old is sedated with midazolam for a procedure but becomes difficult to arouse. What is the reversal agent?
Flumazenil.
68
A 9-month-old infant under general anesthesia has sudden hypotension and flushing after antibiotic administration. What is the likely diagnosis?
Anaphylaxis.
69
A 5-year-old has difficulty extubating after surgery and shows generalized weakness. Which anesthetic complication should be suspected?
Residual neuromuscular blockade.
70
An infant receiving a high dose of ceftriaxone develops jaundice. What is the mechanism?
Ceftriaxone displaces bilirubin from albumin, increasing free bilirubin levels.
71
A 3-year-old child undergoing MRI under sedation with propofol develops apnea. What is the management?
Immediate airway support with bag-mask ventilation and consider intubation if necessary.
72
A child with cerebral palsy is planned for anesthesia. What preoperative assessment is crucial?
Assessment of airway abnormalities and risk of gastroesophageal reflux.
73
A 1-year-old is sedated with dexmedetomidine. What advantage does this drug have compared to benzodiazepines?
Minimal respiratory depression and natural sleep-like sedation.