BONE AND CONNECTIVE TISSUE DISORDERS 1. (AB) Flashcards

1
Q

What should be included in a comprehensive history for bone and connective tissue disorders?

A

Details about prenatal, perinatal, and postnatal periods, including gestational, maternal, and birth history.

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2
Q

What maternal health factors should be assessed in prenatal history?

A

Smoking, prenatal vitamins, illicit drug/narcotic use, alcohol, diabetes, immunization status (rubella vaccine), and STIs.

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3
Q

Why is prenatal history important in orthopedic assessment?

A

Certain maternal factors (e.g., rubella, diabetes) can contribute to congenital conditions like rubella syndrome.

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4
Q

What perinatal factors should be noted in a child’s history?

A

Pregnancy length, labor type, fetal presentation, fetal distress, need for oxygen, birth length/weight, Apgar score, and muscle tone.

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5
Q

Why is fetal presentation important in orthopedic assessment?

A

Certain limb deformities (e.g., breech position) may be due to intrauterine positioning rather than congenital abnormalities.

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6
Q

What neonatal factors should be documented in history taking?

A

Feeding history, hospital stay, and any resuscitation efforts.

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7
Q

Why is developmental history important in orthopedic assessment?

A

Delayed milestones (e.g., gross motor delay) may indicate syndromes like Trisomy 21 or neuromuscular disorders.

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8
Q

What conditions might be suspected in an infant presenting with foot swelling?

A

Trisomy 21, Trisomy 13, or congenital hypothyroidism.

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9
Q

What aspects of medical history are relevant to orthopedic complaints?

A

Past surgeries, history of burns, fractures, joint contractures, or chronic symptoms.

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10
Q

Why is family history important in musculoskeletal disorders?

A

It can suggest genetic conditions like muscular dystrophy or skeletal dysplasias and help with prognostication.

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11
Q

What are key aspects of pain characterization in orthopedic history?

A

Location, intensity, quality, onset, duration, progress, radiation, aggravating/alleviating factors.

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12
Q

What is the significance of localized pain in orthopedic assessment?

A

It suggests a specific issue with bones, joints, muscles, nerves, or nearby organs.

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13
Q

What is an important clue of tumor-related bone pain?

A

Pain that is progressive, unrelenting, and occurs at night.

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14
Q

What type of pain is usually continuous and associated with infection or inflammation?

A

Pain from cellulitis, abscesses, or post-fracture inflammation.

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15
Q

What are typical characteristics of acute orthopedic pain?

A

Sudden onset, often related to trauma, commonly associated with fractures.

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16
Q

What is the concern when pain persists for more than 3-4 weeks?

A

Possible serious underlying pathology such as infection, tumor, or inflammatory condition.

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17
Q

What does radiating pain in an orthopedic patient suggest?

A

Potential nerve involvement or radiculopathy, possibly requiring a neuro consult or MRI.

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18
Q

Why is it important to assess gait and posture in orthopedic evaluation?

A

Abnormalities can indicate musculoskeletal or neurologic conditions.

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19
Q

What does an orthopedic physical examination include?

A

Inspection, palpation, joint range of motion assessment, and functional assessment (e.g., gait).

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20
Q

What screening tool is adapted for pediatric musculoskeletal assessment?

A

The pediatric Gait, Arms, Legs, Spine (pGALS) test.

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21
Q

What are the three screening questions in the pGALS test?

A

1) Pain or stiffness in joints/muscles/back? 2) Difficulty dressing? 3) Difficulty climbing stairs?

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22
Q

What findings during inspection may suggest an underlying syndrome?

A

Skin rashes, café-au-lait spots, dimples, tufts of hair, or midline spinal defects.

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23
Q

What general body habitus findings should be noted in orthopedic exams?

A

Cachexia, pallor, or signs of nutritional deficiencies (e.g., vitamin D deficiency).

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24
Q

What is a key aspect of assessing joint deformities?

A

Determine whether the deformity is fixed or correctable and whether it is associated with muscle spasm or pain.

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25
Q

What are common deformity classifications?

A

Varus (away from midline), Valgus (toward midline), Recurvatum (hyperextension), and flexion deformity.

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26
Q

What conditions can cause gait abnormalities?

A

Muscle weakness (e.g., muscular dystrophy), spasticity (e.g., cerebral palsy), and contractures (e.g., arthrogryposis).

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27
Q

What non-musculoskeletal conditions can cause limping?

A

Testicular torsion, inguinal hernia, and appendicitis.

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28
Q

What is a key distinguishing feature of an antalgic gait?

A

The patient avoids weight-bearing on the affected limb due to pain.

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29
Q

What are common causes of back pain in children?

A

Trauma, spondylolysis, spondylolisthesis, infection, tumors, and systemic conditions like leukemia.

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30
Q

What should be included in a pediatric neurologic evaluation?

A

Developmental milestones, muscle strength, sensory function, tone, reflexes, and spinal assessment.

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31
Q

What is the importance of assessing limb length in orthopedic exams?

A

Discrepancies can indicate underlying pathology such as dysplasia or neuromuscular disorders.

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32
Q

Why is gait assessment important in children?

A

Neurologic maturation affects gait, and deviations may indicate underlying pathology.

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33
Q

At what age do children typically develop a mature gait?

A

By around 7 years old, their gait resembles that of an adult.

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34
Q

What orthopedic conditions are common in early walkers (1-3 years old)?

A

Septic arthritis, transient synovitis, occult trauma, and developmental dysplasia of the hip.

35
Q

What orthopedic conditions are common in children aged 3-10 years?

A

Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease, juvenile idiopathic arthritis, septic arthritis, and osteomyelitis.

36
Q

What non-orthopedic conditions should be considered in pediatric back pain?

A

Urinary tract infections, nephrolithiasis, pneumonia, and malignancies.

37
Q

What is the significance of persistent back pain in children?

A

It warrants further evaluation as children often have an identifiable skeletal pathology.

38
Q

What is the difference between spasticity and contractures?

A

Spasticity is increased muscle tone with hyperreflexia (e.g., cerebral palsy), while contractures are fixed joint stiffness due to fibrosis or muscle shortening.

39
Q

What is the role of palpation in orthopedic exams?

A

Assess for warmth (infection/inflammation), tenderness, masses, tightness, and structural abnormalities.

40
Q

How is range of motion assessed in joint examination?

A

Both active and passive movement should be compared bilaterally, ideally using a goniometer.

41
Q

What are some key causes of limping in children?

A

Fractures, infections, inflammatory diseases, developmental dysplasia, and neuromuscular disorders.

42
Q

What are common causes of knee pain in children?

A

Osteochondritis dissecans, Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease, and slipped capital femoral epiphysis.

43
Q

What should be considered in a child presenting with toe-walking?

A

Cerebral palsy, muscular dystrophy, idiopathic habit, or tight Achilles tendons.

44
Q

What are signs of a serious underlying cause in a child with musculoskeletal complaints?

A

Night pain, progressive symptoms, systemic signs (fever, weight loss), or neurologic deficits.

45
Q

What conditions can present with genu varum (bowlegs) or genu valgum (knock-knees)?

A

Rickets, Blount disease, skeletal dysplasia, and physiologic variations.

46
Q

What should be suspected in a child with scoliosis and café-au-lait spots?

A

Neurofibromatosis type 1.

47
Q

Why is early identification of limping in children crucial?

A

It helps diagnose serious conditions like septic arthritis, tumors, or neuromuscular disorders early.

48
Q

“What is metatarsus adductus?”

A

A condition where the forefoot is adducted relative to the hindfoot, often caused by intrauterine molding.

49
Q

“What is metatarsus varus?”

A

A deformity where the forefoot is adducted and sometimes in supination.

50
Q

“What percentage of metatarsus adductus cases are bilateral?”

51
Q

“What are the key clinical features of metatarsus adductus?”

A

Forefoot adduction (sometimes supination), normal midfoot and hindfoot, convex lateral foot border, prominent base of the fifth metatarsal.

52
Q

“What is the primary cause of calcaneovalgus feet?”

A

In utero positioning.

53
Q

“What are the key clinical features of calcaneovalgus feet?”

A

Excessive dorsiflexion and eversion of the hindfoot, abducted forefoot, possible external tibial torsion.

54
Q

“What is congenital talipes equinovarus (clubfoot)?”

A

A deformity involving malalignment of the calcaneo-talar-navicular complex.

55
Q

“What is the mnemonic for the components of clubfoot?”

A

CAVE (Cavus: midfoot, Adductus: forefoot, Varus: heel, Equinus: hindfoot).

56
Q

“What is congenital vertical talus?”

A

A condition where the midfoot is dorsally dislocated on the hindfoot and the ankle is in fixed equinus.

57
Q

“What is pes cavus?”

A

A deformity involving plantar flexion of the forefoot or midfoot on the hindfoot, leading to elevation of the medial longitudinal arch.

58
Q

“What are some common toe deformities?”

A

Juvenile hallux valgus, mallet toe, curly toes, claw toe, overlapping 5th toe, annular bands, polydactyly, macrodactyly, subungal exostosis, hammer toe, ingrown toenail.

59
Q

“What are common causes of foot pain in children aged 0-6 years?”

A

Poorly fitting shoes, fractures, puncture wounds, foreign bodies, osteomyelitis, cellulitis, juvenile idiopathic arthritis, hair tourniquet, dactylitis, leukemia.

60
Q

“What are common causes of foot pain in children aged 6-12 years?”

A

Poorly fitting shoes, trauma (fracture, sprain), juvenile idiopathic arthritis (enthesopathy), puncture wound, Sever disease, accessory tarsal navicular bone, hypermobile flatfoot, tarsal coalition, oncologic causes (Ewing sarcoma, leukemia).

61
Q

“What are common causes of foot pain in adolescents aged 12-18 years?”

A

Poorly fitting shoes, stress fractures, trauma (fracture, sprain), foreign body, ingrown toenail, metatarsalgia, plantar fasciitis, Achilles tendinopathy, accessory ossicles, tarsal coalition, avascular necrosis (Freiberg infarction, Kohler disease), plantar warts.

62
Q

“What is acetabular dysplasia?”

A

Abnormal morphology and development of the acetabulum.

63
Q

“What is hip subluxation?”

A

A condition where the femoral head has only partial contact with the acetabulum.

64
Q

“What is hip dislocation?”

A

A condition where there is no contact between the femoral head and acetabulum.

65
Q

“What are the two major classifications of developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)?”

A

Typical and teratologic.

66
Q

“What is the difference between typical and teratologic DDH?”

A

Typical DDH occurs in otherwise normal patients, while teratologic DDH is associated with syndromes or genetic conditions and occurs before birth.

67
Q

“What is a hip click?”

A

A high-pitched sensation (or sound) felt at the end of abduction during DDH testing with Barlow and Ortolani maneuvers.

68
Q

“What is the Barlow maneuver used for?”

A

To assess the potential for hip dislocation by adducting the hip and applying posterior pressure.

69
Q

“What is the Ortolani test used for?”

A

To reduce a dislocated hip by abducting the hip while applying anterior pressure.

70
Q

“What is the Galeazzi sign?”

A

A sign of DDH where one knee appears lower when both hips are flexed to 90 degrees.

71
Q

“What is the Klisic test?”

A

A test where an imaginary line between the greater trochanter and anterior superior iliac spine should point to the umbilicus; deviation indicates hip dislocation.

72
Q

“What is the primary goal in the management of DDH?”

A

To obtain and maintain a concentric reduction of the femoral head within the acetabulum for normal development.

73
Q

“What is scoliosis?”

A

A complex, three-dimensional spinal deformity with a coronal plane curve of at least 10 degrees.

74
Q

“What is the etymology of the term ‘scoliosis’?”

A

Derived from the Greek word ‘skolios,’ meaning bent or curved.

75
Q

“What is the most common type of scoliosis?”

A

Idiopathic scoliosis.

76
Q

“What percentage of scoliosis cases are idiopathic?”

77
Q

“What is adolescent idiopathic scoliosis (AIS)?”

A

Idiopathic scoliosis occurring in patients aged 11 years and older.

78
Q

“What are the three classifications of idiopathic scoliosis based on age?”

A

Infantile (0-3 years), Juvenile (3-10 years), Adolescent (≥11 years).

79
Q

“What is the Adams forward bend test used for?”

A

To detect scoliosis by assessing rib hump prominence.

80
Q

“What is the Cobb method used for?”

A

To measure the degree of spinal curvature in scoliosis.

81
Q

“When is brace treatment used for scoliosis?”

A

For progressive curves in growing patients to reduce the risk of worsening.

82
Q

“When is surgery indicated for scoliosis?”

A

For curves >45 degrees in growing patients or >50 degrees in skeletally mature patients.

83
Q

“What is the goal of scoliosis surgery?”

A

To stop progression, improve cosmesis, and maintain spinal balance while preserving motion.