GASTROENTEROLOGY (AB) Flashcards

1
Q

Which esophageal sphincter controls entry into the esophagus?

A

Upper esophageal sphincter (UES)

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2
Q

What happens to UES pressure during deep sleep?

A

Decreases almost to zero

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3
Q

What happens to UES pressure during stress and straining?

A

Increases markedly

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4
Q

What are the two main functions of the UES?

A

Prevents air entry during respiration; Acts as a barrier to esophagogastric reflux

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5
Q

What is the primary function of the esophageal body?

A

Conducts peristaltic waves to propel food

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6
Q

What is the speed of esophageal peristalsis?

A

~3 cm/sec

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7
Q

What triggers primary peristalsis?

A

Swallowing

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8
Q

What triggers secondary peristalsis?

A

Gastroesophageal reflux (GER)

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9
Q

What is the normal resting pressure of the lower esophageal sphincter (LES)?

A

~20 mm Hg

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10
Q

What LES pressure is considered abnormal?

A

<10 mm Hg

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11
Q

What LES pressure maintains competence?

A

> 5 mm Hg

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12
Q

When does the LES relax?

A

Swallowing, belching, reflux events

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13
Q

What diagnostic test is best for structural anomalies like strictures and hiatal hernia?

A

Barium fluoroscopy

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14
Q

What esophageal abnormality is best evaluated with patient prone and barium via nasogastric tube?

A

H-type Tracheoesophageal Fistula

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15
Q

What does modified barium swallow assess?

A

Pharyngeal and esophageal phase coordination; detects aspiration and dysphagia

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16
Q

What diagnostic test directly visualizes mucosal abnormalities in the esophagus?

A

Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD)

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17
Q

What conditions can EGD help differentiate?

A

GERD, eosinophilic esophagitis, infections (viral or fungal)

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18
Q

What diagnostic test evaluates peristalsis efficiency and detects reflux episodes?

A

Radionuclide scintigraphy

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19
Q

What is a radionuclide salivagram used for?

A

Demonstrates aspiration of small amounts of saliva

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20
Q

What test uses synchronized pressure measurements to assess esophageal dysmotility?

A

Esophageal manometry

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21
Q

What does high-resolution manometry (HRM) provide?

A

Detailed analysis of UES relaxation and peristaltic pressures

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22
Q

What diagnostic test measures acidity, duration, and frequency of reflux episodes?

A

Extended pH monitoring

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23
Q

What syndrome is associated with esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula?

A

VACTERL syndrome

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24
Q

What is the incidence of esophageal atresia and TEF?

A

1.7 per 10,000 live births

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25
Q

What is the most common type of esophageal atresia with TEF?

A

Type C (esophageal atresia with distal TEF)

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26
Q

What is the hallmark neonatal sign of esophageal atresia?

A

Inability to pass nasogastric/orogastric tube

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27
Q

What are two antenatal clues for esophageal atresia?

A

Absence of fetal stomach bubble; Maternal polyhydramnios

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28
Q

What radiographic finding suggests esophageal atresia?

A

Coiled feeding tube in esophageal pouch

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29
Q

What radiographic finding indicates a coexisting TEF?

A

Air-distended stomach

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30
Q

What is the most common primary esophageal dysmotility disorder?

A

Achalasia

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31
Q

What is the characteristic barium swallow finding in achalasia?

A

Bird’s beak sign

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32
Q

What is achalasia caused by?

A

Loss of LES relaxation and loss of esophageal peristalsis

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33
Q

What is a common infectious cause of achalasia?

A

Chagas disease (Trypanosoma cruzi)

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34
Q

What syndrome is associated with achalasia, alacrima, and adrenal insufficiency?

A

Triple A Syndrome (Allgrove Syndrome)

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35
Q

What condition mimics achalasia but is caused by malignancy or infiltration?

A

Pseudoachalasia

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36
Q

What clinical clues suggest pseudoachalasia?

A

Rapid onset, older age, weight loss

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37
Q

What is the first diagnostic test for suspected achalasia?

A

Endoscopy (to rule out malignancy)

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38
Q

What is the initial treatment of choice for achalasia?

A

Pneumatic dilation

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39
Q

What surgical procedure is performed for achalasia?

A

Laparoscopic Heller Myotomy

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40
Q

What minimally invasive procedure can be done for achalasia?

A

Peroral Endoscopic Myotomy (POEM)

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41
Q

What medication can temporarily relieve achalasia symptoms?

A

Calcium channel blockers (e.g., Nifedipine)

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42
Q

What endoscopic treatment temporarily relieves achalasia?

A

Botulinum toxin injection

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43
Q

What is the most common type of hiatal hernia?

A

Sliding hernia (Type 1)

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44
Q

What type of hiatal hernia involves the stomach fundus herniating next to the esophagus?

A

Paraesophageal hernia (Type 2)

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45
Q

What is the hallmark symptom of hiatal hernia?

A

Reflux

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46
Q

What is the key difference between gastroesophageal reflux (GER) and GERD?

A

GER is physiologic; GERD causes bothersome symptoms

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47
Q

What is Sandifer Syndrome?

A

Food refusal and neck contortions associated with GERD

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48
Q

When does physiologic GER typically resolve in infants?

A

By 12-24 months

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49
Q

What are common GERD symptoms in older children?

A

Abdominal/chest pain (heartburn), regurgitation

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50
Q

What symptom is more common in adolescents with GERD?

A

Heartburn

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51
Q

What is the most common foreign body ingested by children?

A

Coins

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52
Q

What radiographic sign helps distinguish esophageal from tracheal foreign bodies?

A

Flat surface seen on AP view for esophageal; Edge seen on lateral for tracheal

53
Q

What is a key radiographic sign of disk battery ingestion?

A

Double rim sign

54
Q

What type of injury does grade 2b caustic ingestion cause?

A

Discrete or circumferential ulceration with risk of perforation and later stenosis

55
Q

What is the primary risk of grade 3b caustic ingestion?

A

High risk of perforation, death, and stenosis

56
Q

What clinical signs suggest esophageal perforation after foreign body ingestion?

A

Cervical swelling, subcutaneous crepitus

57
Q

What are key risk factors for esophageal atresia?

A

Advanced age, obesity, smoking

58
Q

What is the survival rate for esophageal atresia and TEF?

59
Q

What respiratory symptoms suggest esophageal foreign body in children?

A

Stridor, wheezing, cyanosis, dyspnea

60
Q

What common esophageal disorder is associated with eosinophilic esophagitis?

A

Food impactions

61
Q

What is gastric duplication?

A

Uncommon cystic or tubular structures within the gastric wall

62
Q

What is the prevalence of gastric duplication?

A

2–7% of all GI duplications

63
Q

What is the common location for gastric duplication?

A

Greater curvature of the stomach

64
Q

What is the typical size of gastric duplications?

A

Usually <12 cm in diameter

65
Q

Do gastric duplications usually communicate with the gastric lumen?

A

No, but they share a common blood supply

66
Q

What is gastric volvulus?

A

Abnormal rotation (twisting) of the stomach due to absence or elongation of ligamentous attachments

67
Q

Which key ligaments are involved in gastric volvulus along the longitudinal axis?

A

Gastrohepatic, gastrosplenic, gastrocolic

68
Q

Which key ligaments are involved in gastric volvulus along the transverse axis?

A

Gastrophrenic, retroperitoneal attachment of the duodenum

69
Q

What is organoaxial volvulus?

A

Rotation along the longitudinal axis

70
Q

What is mesenteroaxial volvulus?

A

Rotation along the transverse axis

71
Q

What is combined gastric volvulus?

A

Rotation along both axes

72
Q

What complication can result from gastric volvulus?

A

Twisting leads to necrosis

73
Q

What is congenital duodenal obstruction?

A

Blockage of the duodenum present at birth

74
Q

What is the incidence of congenital duodenal obstruction?

A

2.5–10 per 100,000 live births

75
Q

What causes intrinsic duodenal obstruction?

A

Duodenal atresia due to failed recanalization during gestation

76
Q

What imaging sign is associated with duodenal atresia?

A

Double-bubble sign

77
Q

Which syndrome is commonly associated with duodenal atresia?

A

Down syndrome

78
Q

What are examples of extrinsic causes of duodenal obstruction?

A

Annular pancreas, preduodenal portal vein, duplication cysts, congenital bands

79
Q

What percentage of congenital heart disease is associated with duodenal atresia?

80
Q

What percentage of annular pancreas is associated with duodenal atresia?

81
Q

What complications can annular pancreas cause?

A

GERD, peptic ulcer disease, pancreatitis, recurrent obstruction

82
Q

What percentage of duodenal atresia is associated with malrotation?

83
Q

What are symptoms of duodenal atresia at birth?

A

Bilious vomiting, abdominal distension

84
Q

What is the key antenatal sign of duodenal atresia?

A

Polyhydramnios

85
Q

What is the hallmark imaging finding for duodenal atresia?

A

Double-bubble sign with no distal gas

86
Q

What is malrotation?

A

Incomplete or absent rotation of the intestine around the SMA during fetal development

87
Q

What happens in the 5th week of gestation during normal intestinal development?

A

Mid bowel elongates and protrudes into the umbilical cord

88
Q

What happens in the 12th week of gestation during normal intestinal development?

A

Rotation and fixation complete

89
Q

Where should the duodenum move during normal rotation?

A

To the ligament of Treitz

90
Q

Where should the cecum rotate during normal rotation?

A

To the right lower quadrant

91
Q

What is nonrotation in malrotation?

A

Jejunum and ileum on the right, colon on the left

92
Q

What is incomplete rotation in malrotation?

A

Cecum fails to move to the right lower quadrant

93
Q

What is the significance of a narrow mesenteric base in malrotation?

A

Increased risk of midgut volvulus

94
Q

What are Ladd bands?

A

Fibrous bands from cecum to RUQ, crossing and obstructing the duodenum

95
Q

What is the major complication of malrotation?

A

Midgut volvulus

96
Q

What is the hallmark symptom of midgut volvulus in infants?

A

Bilious vomiting

97
Q

What severe symptoms can occur in malrotation with volvulus?

A

Shock, peritonitis

98
Q

What are chronic symptoms of malrotation in older children?

A

Intermittent vomiting, abdominal pain, failure to thrive

99
Q

What imaging finding on plain X-ray suggests duodenal obstruction?

A

Double-bubble sign

100
Q

What is the gold standard imaging test for malrotation?

A

Upper GI series

101
Q

What does a corkscrew appearance on upper GI series indicate?

A

Midgut volvulus

102
Q

What is the whirlpool sign on ultrasound?

A

Twisting of mesenteric vessels

103
Q

What is Meckel’s diverticulum?

A

Incomplete obliteration of the omphalomesenteric duct

104
Q

What is the prevalence of Meckel’s diverticulum?

105
Q

Where is Meckel’s diverticulum located?

A

50-75 cm from the ileocecal valve on the antimesenteric border

106
Q

What is the typical size of Meckel’s diverticulum?

107
Q

What types of ectopic tissue can be found in Meckel’s diverticulum?

A

Gastric and pancreatic

108
Q

What is the Rule of 2s for Meckel’s diverticulum?

A

2% prevalence, 2 feet from ileocecal valve, 2 inches long, 2 types of ectopic tissue, 2:1 male predominance

109
Q

What is the most common symptom of Meckel’s diverticulum?

A

Painless rectal bleeding

110
Q

What complications can occur with Meckel’s diverticulum?

A

Intestinal obstruction, diverticulitis

111
Q

At what age do bleeding symptoms from Meckel’s diverticulum usually present?

112
Q

What imaging test detects ectopic gastric mucosa in Meckel’s diverticulum?

A

Meckel Scan (Technetium-99m Pertechnetate)

113
Q

What is functional constipation?

A

Chronic constipation meeting Rome IV criteria without organic cause

114
Q

What are Rome IV criteria for functional constipation in infants?

A

2 or fewer defecations per week, excessive stool retention, hard/painful bowel movements, large-diameter stools, large rectal fecal mass

115
Q

What additional criteria apply for toilet-trained children with functional constipation?

A

At least 1 weekly episode of incontinence, large stools that clog toilet

116
Q

What are the Rome IV criteria for functional constipation in children ≥4 years?

A

≤2 defecations/week, ≥1 fecal incontinence episode/week, retentive posturing, painful stools, large rectal mass, large diameter stools

117
Q

What is nonretentive fecal incontinence?

A

Inappropriate defecation with no evidence of fecal retention

118
Q

What is the first-line medication for rapid rectal disimpaction in infants?

A

Glycerin suppositories

119
Q

What is the phosphate enema dose for infants <1 year?

120
Q

What is the phosphate enema dose for children >1 year?

A

6 mL/kg up to 135 mL

121
Q

What is the dose for polyethylene glycol with electrolytes for slow disimpaction?

A

25 mL/kg/hour until clear fluid

122
Q

What is the maintenance dose of polyethylene glycol 3350 (MiraLAX) for children >1 year?

A

0.7 g/kg/day (max 17.5 g/day)

123
Q

What is the dose of milk of magnesia for maintenance in infants >1 month?

A

1-3 mL/kg/day

124
Q

What is the dose of lactulose for maintenance in infants >1 month?

A

1-3 mL/kg/day

125
Q

What is the Senna dose for children 1-5 years?

A

5 mL with breakfast, max 15 mL daily

126
Q

What is the Senna dose for children 5-15 years?

A

2 tablets with breakfast, max 3 tablets daily

127
Q

What is the recommended glycerin enema dose for children >10 years?

A

20-30 mL/day

128
Q

What is the bisacodyl suppository dose for children >10 years?

A

10 mg daily