PEDIATRIC NEPHROLOGY 1.2 (AB) Flashcards

1
Q

What is one of the most common causes of renal failure in young children?

A

Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the three key microangiopathic changes seen in Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome?

A

Hemolytic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the most common infectious cause of Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS)?

A

E. coli infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the laboratory findings in HUS?

A

Anemia with microangiopathic changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What defines a probable case of HUS?

A

Acute HUS diagnosis without clear history of acute or bloody diarrhea in the preceding 3 weeks OR onset within 3 weeks of bloody diarrhea but without confirmed microangiopathic changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What defines a confirmed case of HUS?

A

Acute HUS diagnosis meeting lab criteria with onset within 3 weeks after bloody diarrhea episode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are two common sources of E. coli transmission in HUS?

A

Undercooked meat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of HUS in terms of renal damage.

A

Thickened capillary walls narrow lumen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What causes microangiopathic anemia in HUS?

A

Mechanical damage to RBCs passing through narrowed vasculature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What causes thrombocytopenia in HUS?

A

Intra-renal platelet adhesion or damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the typical age group affected by HUS?

A

<4 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the usual clinical presentation of HUS?

A

Gastroenteritis followed by sudden irritability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the management for HUS?

A

Supportive care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In newborns and infants

A

what are some causes of Renal Vein Thrombosis?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In older children

A

what are some causes of Renal Vein Thrombosis?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Renal Vein Thrombosis?

A

Thrombus forms due to hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the classic clinical manifestation of Renal Vein Thrombosis?

A

Sudden gross hematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What imaging modality can confirm Renal Vein Thrombosis?

A

Doppler flow studies of the IVC and renal vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the key components of treatment for Renal Vein Thrombosis?

A

Supportive care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What gene is associated with Autosomal Recessive Polycystic Kidney Disease (ARPKD)?

A

PKHD1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does the PKHD1 gene encode?

A

Fibrocystin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the appearance of the kidneys in ARPKD?

A

Markedly enlarged with innumerable cysts in cortex and medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the prognosis for infants with ARPKD?

A

Poor; many do not survive the first year of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the classic clinical presentation of ARPKD in neonates?

A

Bilateral flank masses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is Porter facies?

A

Low set ears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are some key systemic findings in ARPKD?

A

Hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What imaging finding strongly suggests ARPKD?

A

Enlarged hyperechogenic kidneys with poor corticomedullary distinction on ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What genetic finding supports the diagnosis of ARPKD?

A

Absence of renal cysts in both parents (autosomal recessive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the role of genetic testing in ARPKD?

A

Confirms diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the treatment approach for ARPKD?

A

Supportive care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the estimated 10-year survival for children with ARPKD surviving past the first year?

A

Over 80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What percentage of children with ARPKD develop ESRD within the first decade?

A

Over 50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the long-term prognosis for children with ARPKD?

A

Relatively poor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Upper limit of normal protein excretion in healthy children

A

150 mg/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Proteinuria level on urine dipstick: 1+

A

30 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Proteinuria level on urine dipstick: 2+

A

100 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Proteinuria level on urine dipstick: 3+

A

300 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Proteinuria level on urine dipstick: 4+

A

> 2,000 mg/dL

39
Q

Causes of false positive proteinuria on dipstick

A

Highly concentrated urine, gross hematuria, pH >8, chlorhexidine, benzalkonium, phenazopyridine therapy

40
Q

3 non-pathologic causes of proteinuria

A

Postural (orthostatic), fever >38.4°C, exercise

41
Q

Criteria for non-pathologic proteinuria

A

<1,000 mg/day and not associated with edema or disease

42
Q

Transient causes of proteinuria

A

Fever, exercise, dehydration, cold exposure, CHF, seizure, stress

43
Q

4 main categories of proteinuria causes

A

Transient, Orthostatic, Glomerular, Tubular

44
Q

Examples of tubular causes of proteinuria

A

Tubulointerstitial nephritis (TIN), Wilson’s disease, heavy metal poisoning, Acute Tubular Necrosis (ATN), Polycystic Kidney Disease (PCKD)

45
Q

Basic work-up for proteinuria (4 tests)

A

Serum creatinine, 24-hour urinary protein excretion, urine protein/creatinine ratio, serum C3

46
Q

When is renal biopsy indicated in proteinuria?

A

Proteinuria >1 g/day, hypertension, or diminished renal function

47
Q

4 hallmark findings of nephrotic syndrome

A

Heavy proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, edema, hyperlipidemia

48
Q

Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children

A

Minimal Change Disease (85%)

49
Q

3 histologic types of idiopathic nephrotic syndrome

A

Minimal Change Disease, Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis, Mesangial Proliferative GN

50
Q

Histologic findings in Minimal Change Disease

A

Normal LM, effacement of epithelial foot processes on EM

51
Q

Steroid response rate in Minimal Change Disease

52
Q

Steroid response rate in Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis

53
Q

Histologic findings in Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis

A

Mesangial proliferation, segmental scarring, (+) IgM and C3

54
Q

Histologic findings in Mesangial Proliferative GN

A

Diffuse mesangial cell proliferation and increased matrix

55
Q

Steroid response rate in Mesangial Proliferative GN

56
Q

Pathophysiology of proteinuria in nephrotic syndrome

A

Increased glomerular capillary permeability

57
Q

Pathophysiology of Minimal Change Disease

A

T cell dysfunction alters cytokines, loss of negatively charged glycoprotein in glomerular wall

58
Q

Main cause of hypoalbuminemia in nephrotic syndrome

A

Urinary protein loss

59
Q

Effect of hypoalbuminemia on fluid balance

A

Decreased plasma oncotic pressure causes fluid transudation to interstitial space

60
Q

Effect of hypoalbuminemia on renal perfusion

A

Decreased intravascular volume decreases renal perfusion, activates RAAS

61
Q

Why does edema worsen in nephrotic syndrome?

A

ADH release enhances water reabsorption in collecting ducts

62
Q

2 causes of hyperlipidemia in nephrotic syndrome

A

Increased hepatic protein synthesis, decreased lipoprotein lipase activity

63
Q

Why are serum lipids elevated in nephrotic syndrome?

A

Lipids are bound to albumin, low albumin causes hyperlipidemia

64
Q

Common demographic for nephrotic syndrome

A

Males 2-6 years old

65
Q

Classic presentation of nephrotic syndrome

A

Generalized edema, anorexia, irritability, abdominal pain

66
Q

Are hypertension and gross hematuria common in nephrotic syndrome?

A

No, they are uncommon

67
Q

Typical urine dipstick finding in nephrotic syndrome

A

3+ to 4+ proteinuria

68
Q

Diagnostic protein excretion rate in nephrotic syndrome

A

> 40 mg/m²/hr

69
Q

Serum albumin level in nephrotic syndrome

70
Q

Serum cholesterol and triglyceride levels in nephrotic syndrome

71
Q

C3 and C4 levels in nephrotic syndrome

A

Usually normal

72
Q

Most common infectious complication in nephrotic syndrome

A

Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP)

73
Q

Most common organisms causing infection in nephrotic syndrome

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae, E. coli

74
Q

Treatment components for nephrotic syndrome

A

Low sodium diet, fluid restriction, diuretics, human albumin, steroids, immunosuppressants

75
Q

Most common cause of UTI in girls

A

E. coli (75-90%)

76
Q

Other common UTI pathogens in girls

A

Klebsiella, Proteus

77
Q

UTI pathogens in both sexes

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus, Enterococcus

78
Q

Important consideration in male adolescents with UTI

A

Consider sexually transmitted infections (STDs)

79
Q

3 clinical forms of UTI

A

Pyelonephritis, cystitis, asymptomatic bacteriuria

80
Q

Classic symptoms of pyelonephritis

A

Abdominal, flank, or back pain, fever, malaise, N/V, diarrhea

81
Q

Classic symptoms of cystitis

A

Gross hematuria, dysuria, urgency, frequency, malodorous urine, suprapubic pain

82
Q

Definition of asymptomatic bacteriuria

A

Positive urine culture without clinical symptoms

83
Q

Main pathogenesis of UTI

A

Ascending infection from fecal flora

84
Q

Proper genital hygiene technique in girls

A

Wipe front to back

85
Q

Urine culture criteria for UTI diagnosis (Nelson’s)

A

> 100,000 cfu/mL single pathogen OR >10,000 cfu/mL with symptoms

86
Q

Presumptive UTI criteria

A

Positive urinalysis, symptoms, and single organism >100,000 cfu/mL

87
Q

Gold standard for UTI diagnosis (PPS guidelines)

A

Any bacterial growth from suprapubic aspiration

88
Q

UTI diagnosis criteria from catheterized urine

A

> 50,000 cfu/mL single pathogen

89
Q

UTI diagnosis criteria from midstream void

A

> 100,000 cfu/mL single pathogen if symptomatic

90
Q

Imaging test for 1st febrile UTI

A

Renal ultrasound (UTZ)

91
Q

Imaging test for 2nd febrile UTI after negative workup

A

Voiding cystourethrography (VCUG)

92
Q

Antibiotics for acute cystitis

A

TMP-SMX, Nitrofurantoin, Amoxicillin (3-5 days)

93
Q

Antibiotics for clinical pyelonephritis

A

Ceftriaxone, Cefotaxime, Ampicillin

94
Q

Best scan for diagnosing acute pyelonephritis

A

DMSA renal scan