GYNECOLOGIC PROBLEMS OF CHILDHOOD 1.2 (AB) Flashcards

1
Q

When does breast development begin during gestation?

A

Around week 5 of gestation.

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2
Q

When do initial lactiferous ducts form during gestation?

A

Between week 10 and 20 of gestation.

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3
Q

When does the breast bud become palpable in gestation?

A

At week 34 of gestation.

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4
Q

When does the areola appear during gestation?

A

At 5 months of gestation.

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5
Q

When does the nipple appear in a newborn?

A

Shortly after birth.

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6
Q

What is thelarche?

A

Onset of pubertal breast development.

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7
Q

At what age does thelarche usually occur?

A

Between ages 8 and 13 years.

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8
Q

How long does normal breast development take after thelarche?

A

2 to 4 years.

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9
Q

What is menarche?

A

First menstruation.

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10
Q

When does menarche usually occur relative to thelarche?

A

Around 2 years after breast development starts.

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11
Q

What is neonatal breast hypertrophy?

A

Breast enlargement in term infants of either sex due to maternal hormones.

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12
Q

What is “witch’s milk”?

A

Clear or cloudy nipple discharge in neonates due to maternal hormone withdrawal.

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13
Q

What is a common cause of neonatal mastitis?

A

Staphylococcal or streptococcal infection.

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14
Q

How is neonatal mastitis treated?

A

IV antibiotics.

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15
Q

What is polymastia?

A

Presence of supernumerary breast tissue.

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16
Q

What is polythelia?

A

Presence of accessory nipples.

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17
Q

What causes polymastia and polythelia?

A

Incomplete involution.

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18
Q

When might accessory breast tissue need to be removed?

A

If causing pain or for cosmetic reasons.

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19
Q

What is amastia?

A

Complete absence of the breast.

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20
Q

What syndrome is associated with amastia?

A

Poland syndrome.

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21
Q

How is amastia treated?

A

Surgical correction.

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22
Q

In which population is mastitis most common?

A

Lactating mothers.

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23
Q

Which organisms commonly cause mastitis?

A

Staphylococcus aureus and Bacteroides.

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24
Q

How is neonatal mastitis managed?

A

IV antibiotics for MRSA or based on culture results.

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25
Q

What are some common causes of galactorrhea?

A

Medications

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26
Q

When is cytologic evaluation of milky nipple discharge recommended?

A

Not usually recommended.

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27
Q

What tests are ordered to rule out pregnancy

A

prolactinoma

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28
Q

List common causes of nipple discharge.

A

Pregnancy

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29
Q

What imaging is preferred for evaluating breast abnormalities in pediatrics?

A

Ultrasound.

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30
Q

What lifestyle changes may reduce breast cancer risk?

A

Regular exercise

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31
Q

How does breastfeeding affect breast cancer risk?

A

Breastfeeding for at least 1 year may slightly lower the risk.

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32
Q

What screening is recommended for women in their 20s and 30s?

A

Clinical breast exam every 1-3 years.

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33
Q

What screening is recommended for women over 40?

A

Annual clinical breast exam and mammogram.

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34
Q

What screening is recommended for young adults with BRCA mutations?

A

Clinical breast exam every 6 months

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35
Q

What screening is recommended for those with thoracic radiation between 10-30 years old?

A

Annual mammography and MRI with breast exams every 6-12 months starting 8-10 years after radiation or age 25.

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36
Q

What are neonatal and pediatric ovarian cysts usually caused by?

A

Maternal estrogen stimulation.

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37
Q

How are pathologic ovarian cysts treated?

A

Ultrasound-guided laparoscopic cystectomy

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38
Q

What is the most common complication of ovarian cysts?

A

Ovarian torsion.

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39
Q

What is the most common ovarian neoplasm in children and adolescents?

A

Mature cystic teratoma (dermoid cyst).

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40
Q

How is ovarian teratoma diagnosed?

A

Ultrasound.

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41
Q

What symptoms are associated with ovarian teratoma?

A

Abdominal mass or pain (torsion or rupture).

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42
Q

What is the preferred treatment for benign ovarian teratoma?

A

Detorsion (to preserve the ovary).

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43
Q

What are cystadenomas?

A

Benign ovarian tumors (serous

44
Q

What is endometriosis?

A

Presence of ectopic endometrial tissue outside the uterus.

45
Q

What symptoms are associated with endometriosis?

A

Severe dysmenorrhea

46
Q

How are endometriomas treated?

A

Suppressive therapy (NSAIDs

47
Q

What is tubo-ovarian abscess (TOA)?

A

Adnexal mass associated with PID.

48
Q

What symptoms suggest PID with TOA?

49
Q

How is tubo-ovarian abscess treated?

A

IV antibiotics and imaging-guided abscess drainage.

50
Q

What is adnexal torsion?

A

Twisting of the ovary and/or fallopian tube.

51
Q

What are symptoms of adnexal torsion?

A

Acute lower abdominal pain

52
Q

How is adnexal torsion diagnosed?

A

Pelvic ultrasound with “whirlpool sign” or “beak sign”.

53
Q

What is the treatment for adnexal torsion?

A

Prompt surgical intervention (laparoscopic detorsion).

54
Q

What are benign causes of breast masses in pediatrics?

A

Fibroadenoma

55
Q

What are malignant causes of breast masses in pediatrics?

A

Cystosarcoma phyllodes

56
Q

What is the imaging modality of choice for breast masses in children?

A

Ultrasound.

57
Q

What systemic conditions can cause amastia?

A

Poland syndrome.

58
Q

What can juvenile hypothyroidism cause in relation to breast development?

A

Pubertal delay or premature breast development.

59
Q

What is the mainstay of treatment for juvenile hypothyroidism?

A

Thyroid hormone replacement (levothyroxine).

60
Q

What is the primary treatment goal for ovarian cystectomy in children?

A

Ovarian preservation to maintain fertility.

61
Q

What causes neonatal ovarian cysts?

A

Maternal estrogen stimulation.

62
Q

What screening is recommended for women with BRCA mutations?

A

Semiannual breast exams

63
Q

What condition should be considered in a sexually active adolescent with adnexal mass and pain?

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).

64
Q

What is the imaging modality of choice for diagnosing ovarian torsion?

A

Pelvic ultrasound.

65
Q

What is the most common ovarian malignancy in children and adolescents?

A

Dysgerminoma

66
Q

What percentage of dysgerminoma cases are bilateral?

67
Q

Which ovarian malignancy is most sensitive to chemotherapy and radiation?

A

Dysgerminoma

68
Q

What genetic conditions are associated with dysgerminoma?

A

Gonadal dysgenesis and androgen insensitivity

69
Q

What are the 3 main diagnostic criteria components for PCOS according to the Rotterdam criteria?

A

Oligoovulation or anovulation

70
Q

How many follicles must be present in 1 ovary to meet the Rotterdam criteria for polycystic ovaries?

A

12 or more follicles

71
Q

What is the minimum ovarian volume in PCOS according to the Rotterdam criteria?

72
Q

What syndrome was originally described by Stein and Leventhal in 1935?

A

Stein-Leventhal Syndrome

73
Q

What classic triad is associated with Stein-Leventhal Syndrome?

A

Amenorrhea

74
Q

What metabolic abnormalities are commonly associated with PCOS?

75
Q

What is a key ovarian pathophysiologic defect in PCOS?

A

Impaired follicular response to FSH

76
Q

Which hormone is oversecreted in PCOS?

A

Luteinizing hormone (LH)

77
Q

What liver protein is decreased in PCOS contributing to androgen excess?

A

Sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG)

78
Q

What adrenal hormone is increased in PCOS?

A

Dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate (DHEAS)

79
Q

Which enzyme converts testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT)?

A

5α-reductase

80
Q

What environmental and genetic factors contribute to PCOS pathogenesis?

A

Ovarian dysfunction

81
Q

What endocrine axis is dysfunctional in PCOS?

A

Hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian (HPO) axis

82
Q

What two diagnostic criteria does the NIH use for PCOS?

A

Oligoovulation or anovulation AND clinical or biochemical hyperandrogenism

83
Q

What diagnostic criteria does the Androgen Excess Society emphasize?

A

Clinical/biochemical hyperandrogenism and either polycystic ovaries or oligoovulation/anovulation

84
Q

Which diagnostic criteria for PCOS is most commonly used worldwide?

A

Rotterdam criteria

85
Q

What are the clinical hallmarks of PCOS?

A

Menstrual abnormalities and hyperandrogenism

86
Q

What scoring system assesses hirsutism in PCOS?

A

Modified Ferriman-Gallwey Score

87
Q

What Ferriman-Gallwey score is diagnostic for hirsutism in Filipino women?

A

7 or higher

88
Q

What ultrasound finding is characteristic of PCOS?

A

String of pearls (rosary beads) appearance

89
Q

What disorder must be excluded when diagnosing PCOS?

A

Thyroid disease

90
Q

What thyroid lab test may be ordered when evaluating for PCOS?

91
Q

What hormone level screens for non-classic congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

A

Serum 17-hydroxyprogesterone (17-OHP)

92
Q

What makes diagnosing PCOS difficult in adolescents?

A

Rotterdam criteria change post-puberty and HPO axis immaturity

93
Q

What criteria must be present for PCOS diagnosis 3 years post-menarche?

A

Menstrual irregularity

94
Q

What is first-line therapy for adults with PCOS not desiring fertility?

A

Combined hormonal contraceptives (estrogen + progestin)

95
Q

What medication is commonly prescribed for insulin resistance in PCOS?

96
Q

What medication class is often used adjunctively to reduce hirsutism in PCOS?

A

Antiandrogens

97
Q

What type of diet has evidence for improving PCOS outcomes?

98
Q

What percentage of weight loss can restore menses in PCOS?

99
Q

What type of diet is sometimes used but may be difficult to sustain long term in PCOS?

A

Ketogenic diet

100
Q

What lifestyle intervention is key for managing overweight and obesity in PCOS?

101
Q

What inflammatory markers improve with weight loss in PCOS?

A

CRP and homocysteine

102
Q

What hormone-binding protein increases with weight loss in PCOS?

103
Q

What should families of patients with PCOS be encouraged to do?

A

Adopt similar healthy diet and increased physical activity

104
Q

What message from ‘The Ministry of Healing’ emphasizes the physician’s role?

A

The true physician is an educator; restorative power is in nature

105
Q

What was the diagnosis in the 16-year-old patient with severe acne and irregular menses?

106
Q

What was the initial treatment for the 16-year-old patient with PCOS?

A

Low-dose combined contraceptive pills and lifestyle management

107
Q

What was the outcome for the 16-year-old patient after 4 years?

A

Clear skin