CHILDHOOD Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common primary childhood malignant renal tumor?

A

Wilm’s tumor (nephroblastoma)

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2
Q

What is the second most common malignant abdominal tumor in childhood?

A

Wilm’s tumor

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3
Q

What percentage of childhood malignancies does Wilm’s tumor comprise in the Philippines?

A

4.5% among 1–14 yrs old

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4
Q

What are the common sites of metastasis for Wilm’s tumor?

A

Lungs , regional lymph nodes, liver

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5
Q

What are the tumor suppressor genes involved in Wilm’s tumor?

A

WT1 & WT2 on chromosome 11p

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6
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of WT1 mutation in Wilm’s tumor?

A

Autosomal dominant

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7
Q

What percentage of Wilm’s tumors involve homozygous WT1 mutation?

A

10–15%

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8
Q

What is the most common clinical presentation of Wilm’s tumor?

A

Abdominal mass (60%)

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9
Q

What percentage of Wilm’s tumor cases present with abdominal pain?

A

40%

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10
Q

What percentage of Wilm’s tumor cases present with hypertension?

A

25%

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11
Q

What percentage of Wilm’s tumor cases present with gross painless hematuria?

A

15%

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12
Q

What imaging modality can help delineate an abdominal mass in Wilm’s tumor?

A

Abdominal x-ray

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13
Q

What are definitive imaging techniques for Wilm’s tumor diagnosis?

A

Renal ultrasound , CT scan, MRI

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14
Q

What lab findings may be seen in Wilm’s tumor?

A

Polycythemia or anemia , hematuria, pyuria, altered kidney/liver function tests

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15
Q

What are the treatment modalities for Wilm’s tumor?

A

Surgical resection , chemotherapy, radiotherapy

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16
Q

What is Stage I Wilm’s tumor?

A

Tumor confined to the kidney and completely resected

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17
Q

What is Stage II Wilm’s tumor?

A

Tumor extends beyond kidney but completely resected with negative margins

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18
Q

What is Stage III Wilm’s tumor?

A

Residual tumor after surgery confined to abdomen or tumor spillage

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19
Q

What is Stage IV Wilm’s tumor?

A

Hematogenous or distant lymph node metastases

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20
Q

What is Stage V Wilm’s tumor?

A

Bilateral renal involvement

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21
Q

What is the 3rd most common childhood malignancy?

A

Neuroblastoma

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22
Q

Where does neuroblastoma originate from?

A

Neural crest cells of the adrenal medulla and sympathetic nervous system

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23
Q

What proto-oncogene is amplified in aggressive neuroblastoma?

A

MYCN on chromosome 2

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24
Q

What is the median age at diagnosis for neuroblastoma?

A

17 months

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25
Q

What is the most common presenting symptom of neuroblastoma?

A

Abdominal mass and symptoms

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26
Q

What are signs of orbital metastases in neuroblastoma?

A

Periorbital ecchymosis (raccoon eyes)

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27
Q

What paraneoplastic syndromes are associated with neuroblastoma?

A

Secretory diarrhea , sweating, opsomyoclonus

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28
Q

What sites are common for neuroblastoma metastasis?

A

Liver , bone, bone marrow, lymph nodes

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29
Q

What is unique about Stage MS neuroblastoma?

A

Occurs in infants <18 months , metastases to skin, liver, or bone marrow with favorable prognosis

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30
Q

What histologic finding is characteristic of neuroblastoma?

A

Homer-Wright pseudorosettes

31
Q

What percentage of neuroblastomas produce catecholamines?

32
Q

What are used to detect catecholamines in neuroblastoma?

A

Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) and homovanillic acid (HVA) in urine

33
Q

What is required for definitive diagnosis of neuroblastoma?

A

Tissue biopsy and genetic testing

34
Q

What treatments are used for neuroblastoma?

A

Surgery , chemotherapy, radiotherapy

35
Q

What is the most common intraocular childhood malignancy?

A

Retinoblastoma

36
Q

What gene is mutated in hereditary retinoblastoma?

A

RB1 gene on chromosome 13q14

37
Q

What is the difference between hereditary and sporadic retinoblastoma?

A

Hereditary is bilateral/multifocal , sporadic is unilateral/unifocal

38
Q

What is the characteristic histologic finding in retinoblastoma?

A

Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes

39
Q

What is the most common clinical sign of retinoblastoma?

A

Leukocoria (white pupillary reflex)

40
Q

What are other clinical signs of retinoblastoma?

A

Strabismus , decreased vision, hyphema, pupillary irregularity

41
Q

What is the primary goal of retinoblastoma treatment?

42
Q

What is the secondary goal of retinoblastoma treatment?

A

Preserve vision and decrease risk of late side effects

43
Q

What are treatment options for retinoblastoma?

A

Cryotherapy , laser photoablation, enucleation, chemotherapy, radiation

44
Q

What are histiocytosis syndromes characterized by?

A

Proliferation or accumulation of monocyte-macrophage system cells of bone marrow origin

45
Q

What are histiocytes?

A

A form of white blood cell

46
Q

What is the most well-known childhood histiocytosis?

A

Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis (LCH)

47
Q

What is the hallmark of Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis?

A

Clonal proliferation of monocyte lineage cells containing Birbeck granules

48
Q

What are Birbeck granules?

A

Tennis-racket shaped bilamellar granules diagnostic of LCH

49
Q

What cells are CD1a-positive and CD207-positive with Birbeck granules?

A

Langerhans cells

50
Q

Which disease is also called Histiocytosis X?

A

Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis

51
Q

What are the three clinical entities under Histiocytosis X?

A

Hand-Schuller-Christian disease. Letterer-Siwe disease. Eosinophilic granuloma

52
Q

Where are Langerhans cells located in the skin?

A

All layers of epidermis except the stratum corneum

53
Q

What percentage of LCH cases have skeletal involvement?

54
Q

What bone sites are most often affected in LCH?

A

Skull. pelvis. femur. maxilla. mandible

55
Q

What symptom results from destruction of mastoids in LCH?

A

Chronically-draining infected ears

56
Q

What results from lesions in weight-bearing bones in LCH?

A

Pathologic fractures

57
Q

What symptom arises from vertebral body collapse in LCH?

A

Stooping posture or flank back

58
Q

What causes the “free-floating teeth” appearance in LCH?

A

Destruction of mandible and maxilla

59
Q

What skin symptom may occur in LCH?

A

Hard-to-treat seborrheic dermatitis

60
Q

What other systemic manifestations may occur in LCH?

A

Lymphadenopathies. hepatosplenomegaly. exophthalmos. pituitary dysfunction

61
Q

What is the first diagnostic step for LCH?

A

Tissue biopsy from skin or bone lesion

62
Q

What other tests support the diagnosis of LCH?

A

CBC. LFTs. coagulation studies. skeletal survey. chest x-ray. urine osmolarity

63
Q

What is the goal of treatment in single-system LCH?

A

Arrest progression and prevent permanent damage

64
Q

What is the typical clinical course of LCH?

A

Benign with high chance of spontaneous remission

65
Q

What treatments are used in localized LCH?

A

Curettage. steroid injection. low-dose radiation therapy

66
Q

What is the treatment for multisystem LCH?

A

Systemic multi-agent chemotherapy

67
Q

What is the cellular characteristic of LCH lesions?

A

Langerhans-like cells (CD1a+ & CD207+) with Birbeck granules

68
Q

What is the cellular characteristic of HLH lesions?

A

Normal reactive macrophages with erythrophagocytosis and CD8+ T cells

69
Q

What are the cellular characteristics of Juvenile xanthogranuloma?

A

Vacuolated histiocytes with foamy cytoplasm

70
Q

What is the cellular hallmark of Rosai-Dorfman disease?

A

Hemophagocytic histiocytes

71
Q

What characterizes malignant histiocytosis?

A

Neoplastic proliferation of monocyte/macrophage-like cells

72
Q

What classification of leukemia is associated with histiocytosis?

A

Acute monocytic leukemia (M5 by FAB classification)

73
Q

What are the histiocytosis types classified under the childhood histiocytoses?

A

LCH. HLH. Juvenile xanthogranuloma. Rosai-Dorfman disease. Malignant histiocytosis

74
Q

Which histiocytosis is associated with albinism syndromes?

A

Hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis (HLH)