BONE AND CONNECTIVE TISSUE DISORDERS 1.2 (AB) Flashcards

1
Q

“What is spondylolysis?”

A

A defect in the pars interarticularis, often caused by repetitive hyperextension stresses.

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2
Q

“What part of the vertebra is affected in spondylolysis?”

A

The pars interarticularis.

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3
Q

“What is the main cause of spondylolysis?”

A

Repetitive hyperextension stresses that transmit compressive forces to the pars interarticularis.

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4
Q

“What types of stress fractures are seen in spondylolysis?”

A

Unilateral or bilateral stress fractures, which may lead to pseudoarthrosis.

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5
Q

“What is pseudoarthrosis in spondylolysis?”

A

A false joint that forms when a stress fracture does not heal properly, allowing abnormal motion.

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6
Q

“What sports are commonly associated with spondylolysis?”

A

Gymnastics, football (interior linemen), weightlifting, and wrestling.

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7
Q

“What are the clinical manifestations of spondylolysis?”

A

Mechanical low back pain that may radiate to the buttocks, with or without hamstring spasm; neurologic symptoms are rare.

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8
Q

“Can spondylolysis be asymptomatic?”

A

Yes, it may be found incidentally on imaging.

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9
Q

“What physical exam findings are associated with spondylolysis?”

A

Discomfort with spinal extension or hyperextension, tenderness over the affected vertebra, and pain provoked by maintaining extension.

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10
Q

“What provocative test is used for spondylolysis?”

A

Keeping the spine extended for 10-20 seconds to see if back pain is reproduced.

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11
Q

“What is spondylolisthesis?”

A

Forward slippage of one vertebra on another.

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12
Q

“What percentage of the population has spondylolisthesis?”

A

Approximately 4-5%.

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13
Q

“What are the main causes of spondylolisthesis?”

A

Dysplastic/congenital, isthmic (due to pars stress fracture), traumatic, and neoplastic.

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14
Q

“What are the most common types of spondylolisthesis in children and adolescents?”

A

Dysplastic and isthmic.

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15
Q

“What percentage of patients with spondylolysis develop spondylolisthesis?”

A

Between 5% and 15%.

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16
Q

“What neurologic symptoms can occur with spondylolisthesis?”

A

Radiculopathy and, in severe cases, cauda equina syndrome with bowel/bladder dysfunction.

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17
Q

“What physical exam findings are associated with high-grade spondylolisthesis?”

A

Loss of lumbar lordosis, flattening of the buttocks, and a vertical sacrum due to posterior pelvic rotation.

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18
Q

“What is the preferred imaging modality for spondylolysis and spondylolisthesis?”

A

High-quality AP and lateral radiographs of the lumbar spine.

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19
Q

“What additional radiographic view can help diagnose spondylolysis?”

A

Oblique radiographs.

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20
Q

“What is the ‘Scotty dog’ sign?”

A

A radiographic finding where the posterior elements of the lumbar spine resemble a dog, and a pars defect appears as a ‘collar’ on the dog’s neck.

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21
Q

“What is the initial management for asymptomatic spondylolysis?”

A

No treatment is required.

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22
Q

“What is the initial management for symptomatic spondylolysis?”

A

Activity modification, core-strengthening physical therapy, and anti-inflammatory medication.

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23
Q

“What medications can be used for pain management in spondylolysis?”

A

NSAIDs such as mefenamic acid, celecoxib, and Alaxan®.

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24
Q

“What is the role of lumbosacral orthosis in spondylolysis treatment?”

A

Immobilizes the spine in slight flexion to relieve stress on the posterior elements, potentially speeding up symptom resolution.

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25
Q

“How long is a lumbosacral orthosis typically worn?”

A

3-4 months.

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26
Q

“When should sports participation be restricted in spondylolysis?”

A

Until symptoms have resolved.

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27
Q

“Does spondylolysis heal in most cases?”

A

No, but symptoms resolve in most patients even without healing.

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28
Q

“When is surgery indicated for spondylolysis?”

A

For chronic, refractory back pain that does not improve with conservative measures.

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29
Q

“What is the surgical treatment for spondylolysis at L5?”

A

Posterior spinal fusion from L5 to S1.

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30
Q

“Why is L5-S1 fusion preferred for spondylolysis?”

A

Because mobility at this level is naturally limited compared to higher lumbar levels.

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31
Q

“What surgical options exist for spondylolysis at higher lumbar levels?”

A

Techniques to repair pseudoarthrosis without fusion.

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32
Q

“What factors determine the management of spondylolisthesis?”

A

Patient age, presence of pain or neurologic symptoms, and degree of deformity.

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33
Q

“What is the recommended treatment for low-grade spondylolisthesis?”

A

Similar to spondylolysis management: activity modification, physical therapy, and NSAIDs.

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34
Q

“Should asymptomatic high-grade spondylolisthesis always be treated surgically?”

A

No, nonoperative management is safe and does not lead to significant problems.

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35
Q

“Does delayed surgery for spondylolisthesis worsen outcomes?”

A

No, delayed surgical treatment does not significantly affect outcomes.

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36
Q

“What is the surgical treatment for symptomatic low-grade spondylolisthesis?”

A

In situ posterior spinal arthrodesis (spinal fusion).

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37
Q

“What is in situ posterior spinal arthrodesis?”

A

A surgical procedure that joins two or more vertebrae to promote bone growth and fusion.

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38
Q

“How does kyphotic slip angle affect spondylolisthesis prognosis?”

A

Patients with a more kyphotic slip angle have a poorer prognosis, but surgery does not necessarily improve outcomes.

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39
Q

“What is the main principle of surgical management for high-grade spondylolisthesis?”

A

Stabilize the unstable segment of the spine while avoiding neurologic complications.

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40
Q

Why are most connective tissue diseases considered systemic?

A

Because connective tissue is present throughout the body, affecting multiple organs.

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41
Q

What term does Nelson’s textbook use for connective tissue diseases in children?

A

Rheumatic Diseases of Childhood.

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42
Q

Why is rheumatic disease considered a diagnosis of exclusion?

A

Because missing it may lead to improper treatment, and it must be distinguished from other conditions like infections or malignancy.

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43
Q

What are the components used to define rheumatic diseases?

A

Physical exam, autoimmune markers, serologic tests, tissue pathology, and imaging.

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44
Q

Why is recognition of clinical patterns essential in rheumatic disease diagnosis?

A

Because no single diagnostic test exists and test results may be positive in the absence of disease.

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45
Q

What complicates the diagnosis of rheumatic diseases in children?

A

Children may present with partial criteria or features of multiple diseases (overlap syndromes).

46
Q

What are the primary mimics of rheumatic diseases?

A

Infection and malignancy.

47
Q

Why must mimicking disorders be excluded before starting treatment for rheumatic disease?

A

Because treatment (especially corticosteroids) differs significantly and could worsen non-rheumatic conditions.

48
Q

What are common symptoms of rheumatic diseases?

A

Joint pain, fever, fatigue, and rash.

49
Q

How does arthralgia differ from arthritis?

A

Arthralgia is joint pain without physical findings; arthritis includes swelling observed in physical exam.

50
Q

What conditions are suggested by arthralgia without physical findings of arthritis?

A

Infection, malignancy, orthopedic conditions, benign syndromes, or pain syndromes like fibromyalgia.

51
Q

What does arthritis indicate in a pediatric patient?

A

A strong predictor of rheumatic disease and reason for referral.

52
Q

What might nighttime joint pain with abnormal blood counts suggest?

A

Malignancy such as leukemia or neuroblastoma.

53
Q

What mechanical condition is suggested by knee pain worsened by stairs in an adolescent girl?

A

Patellofemoral syndrome.

54
Q

What is the Patellar Grind Test used for?

A

Evaluating patellofemoral pain syndrome.

55
Q

What is a characteristic feature of growing pains?

A

Night pain relieved by rubbing, no morning limp, common in ages 3-10.

56
Q

What is suggested by joint pain with hyperextensible joints in a 3–10-year-old girl?

A

Benign hypermobility syndrome.

57
Q

What should be suspected if arthralgia occurs with dry skin, fatigue, or cold intolerance?

A

Thyroid disease.

58
Q

What symptoms may suggest pediatric SLE or JIA?

A

Arthralgia or arthritis.

59
Q

What symptoms are more specific to arthritis than arthralgia?

A

Morning stiffness, swelling, limited ROM, gait issues, gelling phenomenon.

60
Q

What must be present on PE to diagnose JIA?

A

Arthritis.

61
Q

Is there a specific lab test diagnostic for JIA?

62
Q

What does fatigue in rheumatic diseases also commonly occur with?

A

SLE, JDM, vasculitis, and chronic childhood arthritis.

63
Q

What does overwhelming fatigue with school absence suggest?

A

Chronic fatigue syndrome or fibromyalgia.

64
Q

What rheumatic diseases cause fevers?

A

Systemic JIA, SLE, vasculitis, ARF, sarcoidosis, MCTD.

65
Q

What non-rheumatic conditions can mimic fever in rheumatic diseases?

A

Malignancies, infections, IBD, Kawasaki, HSP, periodic fevers.

66
Q

What does a malar rash suggest in rheumatic diseases?

A

SLE or JDM.

67
Q

What condition is Gottron papules a sign of?

A

Juvenile Dermatomyositis (JDM).

68
Q

What non-rheumatic conditions mimic oral ulcers seen in SLE or Behçet disease?

A

HSV infection, PFAPA syndrome.

69
Q

Why is ANA testing done in suspected rheumatic diseases?

A

It’s a nonspecific marker to guide further evaluation if positive.

70
Q

What is the role of radiographs in arthralgia?

A

They reassure in benign syndromes and detect malignancy, osteomyelitis, or chronic arthritis.

71
Q

What does MRI detect better than plain radiographs?

A

Early erosive arthritis, joint fluid, synovial enhancement, and trauma sequelae.

72
Q

What imaging is used to localize diffuse pain in systemic arthritis?

A

Radionucleotide bone scans.

73
Q

What additional evaluations are recommended for systemic rheumatic diseases affecting the heart or lungs?

A

Echocardiogram, PFT, HRCT, and possibly bronchoalveolar lavage.

74
Q

Why is treatment of rheumatic diseases multidisciplinary?

A

Because they are systemic and affect multiple organs.

75
Q

Who are typically included in the multidisciplinary team for childhood rheumatic diseases?

A

Pediatric rheumatologist, pediatrician, nurse, social worker, therapists, consultants.

76
Q

What are the roles of occupational therapy in rheumatic diseases?

A

Splinting, reducing stress on joints, aiding ADLs.

77
Q

Why is eye screening important in childhood rheumatic diseases?

A

To detect uveitis and medication-related ocular toxicity.

78
Q

What are some nutrition-related concerns in childhood rheumatic diseases?

A

Undernourishment from illness and obesity from glucocorticoids.

79
Q

Why is treatment of rheumatic diseases in childhood multidisciplinary?

A

Because rheumatic diseases are systemic and can affect the kidneys

80
Q

Who are the key healthcare providers involved in treating pediatric rheumatic diseases?

A

Pediatric rheumatologist

81
Q

What are the nurse’s roles in pediatric rheumatic disease management?

A

Disease-related education

82
Q

What is the role of a social worker in pediatric rheumatic disease care?

A

Facilitating school services

83
Q

What does physical therapy address in pediatric rheumatic diseases?

A

Deficits in joint or muscle mobility

84
Q

What is the role of occupational therapy in pediatric rheumatic diseases?

A

Splinting to reduce joint contractures and deformities

85
Q

Why is ophthalmology involved in pediatric rheumatic disease management?

A

To screen for uveitis and ocular toxicity from medications like hydroxychloroquine and glucocorticoids.

86
Q

Why is nutrition important in managing pediatric rheumatic diseases?

A

To address undernourishment from systemic illness and obesity/overnourishment from glucocorticoids.

87
Q

What are examples of school integration in pediatric rheumatic care?

A

Individualized Educational Plan (IEP) or 504 plan.

88
Q

What psychosocial supports are recommended in pediatric rheumatic disease care?

A

Peer group relationships

89
Q

What elements are part of coordination of care in pediatric rheumatic diseases?

A

Patient and family involvement as team members

90
Q

What is the specificity of anti-dsDNA antibodies?

A

High specificity for SLE; associated with lupus nephritis.

91
Q

What condition is anti-Sm antibody highly specific for?

A

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE); associated with lupus nephritis.

92
Q

What autoantibody is associated with autoimmune hepatitis?

A

Anti-smooth muscle (Sm) antibody.

93
Q

What is the disease association of anti-Pm-Scl antibody?

A

Sclerodermatomyositis.

94
Q

Which antibodies are associated with Sjögren syndrome?

A

SSA (Ro) and SSB (La).

95
Q

Which antibody usually coexists with anti-SSA?

A

Anti-SSB (La).

96
Q

Which autoantibodies are suggestive of MCTD?

A

Anti-RNP and sometimes anti-dsDNA.

97
Q

What is the prevalence of anti-centromere antibodies in limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis?

98
Q

Which antibody is associated with systemic sclerosis and rare in children?

A

Anti-topoisomerase I (Scl-70).

99
Q

Which antibody is associated with drug-induced lupus?

A

Anti-histone antibody.

100
Q

What are cytoplasmic ANCA (PR3-ANCA) associated with?

A

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener’s)

101
Q

What are perinuclear ANCA (MPO-ANCA) associated with?

A

Microscopic polyangiitis

102
Q

What is anti-CCP specific for?

A

Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (RF+); may be positive before RF.

103
Q

What is the initial evaluation for suspected SLE or MCTD?

104
Q

What further evaluation is done if ANA test is positive in SLE/MCTD?

105
Q

What subspecialty evaluations are considered for SLE/MCTD?

A

Antiphospholipid Abs

106
Q

What is the initial evaluation for juvenile dermatomyositis?

107
Q

What further test is considered for juvenile dermatomyositis?

A

MRI of muscle.

108
Q

What subspecialty evaluation is done for juvenile dermatomyositis?

A

Electromyography

109
Q

What labs and imaging are part of granulomatosis with polyangiitis workup?

110
Q

What is the gold standard imaging for suspected granulomatosis with polyangiitis?

A

Bronchoscopy with lavage

111
Q

What is the initial workup for JIA?

112
Q

What antibodies should be considered for JIA evaluation?

A

Anti-streptolysin O