CONGENITAL HEART DISEASE (AB) Flashcards

1
Q

3 cardiovascular structures unique to the fetus

A

Ductus venosus, Foramen ovale (located at the interatrial septum), Ductus arteriosus (if it stays open, it is called patent ductus arteriosus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What happens when there is a disruption in the flow of blood within the heart chambers?

A

Congenital heart defects may occur.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What happens in tricuspid valve atresia?

A

Restricted blood flow to the right ventricle, leading to underdevelopment of the right ventricle and pulmonary artery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Examples of right-sided cardiac lesions

A

Tricuspid valve atresia, hypoplastic right ventricle, pulmonary atresia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where does exchange of metabolites and oxygen occur in the fetus?

A

Placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the components of the umbilical cord?

A

Two arteries and one vein (AVA).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Pathway of oxygenated blood entering the fetus

A

Umbilical vein → liver (some) → ductus venosus → inferior vena cava (IVC) → right atrium (RA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Why is blood shunted from the right atrium to the left atrium via the foramen ovale?

A

Because the right side of the heart has higher pressure than the left side in utero.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the main ventricle in intrauterine circulation?

A

Right ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What happens after birth when the lungs expand?

A

Pulmonary vascular resistance decreases, blood flows to the lungs, and oxygen exchange occurs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What happens to the ductus arteriosus and ductus venosus after birth?

A

They constrict due to increased oxygen levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What causes the physiological closure of the foramen ovale?

A

Increased blood flow to the left atrium after birth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

By what age is anatomical closure of the foramen ovale expected?

A

2 months of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the first step in evaluating congenital heart disease (CHD)?

A

Thorough history taking and physical examination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Prevalence of symptomatic congenital heart disease in newborns

A

2-3 per 1000 live births

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Most common cyanotic congenital heart disease

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Most common complex congenital heart disease

A

Transposition of the great arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Genetic conditions associated with CHD

A

DiGeorge Syndrome (22q11.2 deletion), CATCH 22, Conotruncal defects (TOF, TA, DORV, VSDsubarterial), Brachial arch defects (COA, IAA, Right Aortic Arch)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Environmental factors linked to CHD

A

Maternal diabetes, maternal PKU, SLE, congenital rubella syndrome, maternal use of lithium, ethanol, warfarin, vitamin A derivatives, and AEDs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Common L→R shunt lesions

A

Ventricular septal defect (VSD), Atrial septal defect (ASD), Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), Coarctation of aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Key clinical features of cyanotic congenital heart disease

A

Squatting, cyanosis, clubbing, syncope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What diagnostic tool helps assess pulmonary blood flow in CHD?

A

Chest X-ray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How does left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) present on ECG?

A

Large R waves in left-sided leads (V5, V6, aVL, I) and deep S waves in right-sided leads (V1, V2).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How does right ventricular hypertrophy (RVH) present on ECG?

A

Large R waves in right-sided leads (V1-V3) and deep S waves in left-sided leads.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is Eisenmenger syndrome?

A

Reversal of a left-to-right cardiac shunt due to increased pulmonary vascular resistance, leading to cyanosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the five basic questions for evaluating congenital heart disease?

A
  1. Cyanotic or Acyanotic? 2. Pulmonary blood flow: Normal, Increased, or Decreased? 3. Origin: Left or Right heart? 4. Dominant ventricle? 5. Pulmonary hypertension present?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How can pulmonary blood flow (PBF) help narrow the differential diagnosis of congenital heart disease?

A

“Assess whether PBF is increased. normal or decreased using imaging.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the predominant finding in pulmonary stenosis if acyanotic congenital heart disease has normal or decreased PBF?

A

“Right ventricular hypertrophy (RVH).”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the predominant finding in aortic stenosis if acyanotic congenital heart disease has normal or decreased PBF?

A

“Left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH).”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are common history findings in a patient with pulmonary stenosis?

A

“Fatigue. exertional dyspnea. syncope (in severe cases). right-sided heart failure symptoms (peripheral edema. hepatomegaly).”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What type of murmur is associated with pulmonary stenosis, and where is it best heard?

A

“Systolic ejection murmur best heard at the left upper sternal border (LUSB).”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What additional physical exam findings may be present in pulmonary stenosis?

A

“Wide splitting of S2. ejection click that decreases with inspiration. jugular venous distention (JVD) in severe cases. right ventricular heave.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What type of murmur is heard in aortic stenosis?

A

“Systolic ejection murmur (crescendo-decrescendo).”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Where is the murmur of aortic stenosis best heard?

A

“Right second intercostal space (aortic area).”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Where does the murmur of aortic stenosis radiate?

A

“To the carotids.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What type of murmur is heard in aortic regurgitation?

A

“Diastolic decrescendo murmur.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Where is the murmur of aortic regurgitation best heard?

A

“Left third intercostal space (Erb’s point).”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Where does the murmur of aortic regurgitation radiate?

A

“To the apex.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What type of murmur is heard in mitral stenosis?

A

“Diastolic low-pitched rumbling murmur with an opening snap.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Where is the murmur of mitral stenosis best heard?

A

“Apex (left 5th ICS. midclavicular line).”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What type of murmur is heard in mitral regurgitation?

A

“Holosystolic (pansystolic) murmur.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Where is the murmur of mitral regurgitation best heard?

A

“Apex.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Where does the murmur of mitral regurgitation radiate?

A

“To the axilla.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the four auscultation sites for heart sounds?

A

“1. Right Upper Sternal Border (RUSB) - Aortic area 2. Left Upper Sternal Border (LUSB) - Pulmonic area 3. Left Lower Sternal Border (LLSB) - Tricuspid area 4. Apex - Mitral area.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What condition is suspected if a murmur at the LUSB persists beyond 7 days in a newborn?

A

“Pulmonary stenosis.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What congenital heart diseases are associated with increased pulmonary blood flow and right ventricular hypertrophy (RVH)?

A

“Atrial septal defect (ASD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the primary considerations for cyanotic congenital heart disease with decreased pulmonary blood flow and RVH?

A

“Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF). Ebstein’s anomaly.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the primary considerations for cyanotic congenital heart disease with decreased pulmonary blood flow and LVH?

A

“Tricuspid atresia. Pulmonary atresia with hypoplastic right ventricle.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the primary considerations for cyanotic congenital heart disease with decreased pulmonary blood flow and combined ventricular hypertrophy (CVH)?

A

“Truncus arteriosus. single ventricle morphology.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the primary considerations for cyanotic congenital heart disease with increased pulmonary blood flow and RVH?

A

“Transposition of the Great Arteries (TGA) with Intact Ventricular Septum (IVS). Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Connection (TAPVC). Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome (HLHS).”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the primary considerations for cyanotic congenital heart disease with increased pulmonary blood flow and CVH/LVH?

A

“TGA with Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD). Single ventricle morphology.Truncus arteriosus. Pulmonary Veno-Occlusive Disease (PVOD).”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What does ‘unobstructed & unprotected’ pulmonary circulation in cyanotic congenital heart disease lead to?

A

“Pulmonary vasculature is exposed to high pressures and volume overload. causing pulmonary hypertension.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is Eisenmenger syndrome?

A

“A condition where an untreated left-to-right shunt reverses due to pulmonary hypertension. causing cyanosis and systemic hypoxemia.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What congenital heart diseases are associated with left-to-right shunt lesions?

A

“Atrial septal defect (ASD). Ventricular septal defect (VSD). Atrioventricular septal defect (AVSD). Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA).”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the significance of Qp:Qs in congenital heart disease?

A

“Quantifies pulmonary (Qp) to systemic (Qs) blood flow; normal is 1:1. large left-to-right shunts have Qp:Qs >2:1. right-to-left shunts cause cyanosis.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are signs of Eisenmenger physiology?

A

“Gradual increase in pulmonary vascular resistance. initial improvement of heart failure symptoms. followed by progressive cyanosis.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

How is management of left-to-right shunts determined?

A

“Small defects may close spontaneously; large defects require medications (digoxin. diuretics. ACE inhibitors) and surgery if symptomatic.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the most common congenital heart defect (CHD), accounting for 25% of cases?

A

Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Where can a VSD occur?

A

Anywhere along the interventricular septum (IVS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the two major determinants of left-to-right (L-R) shunting in VSD?

A

Defect size and pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the perimembranous type of VSD associated with?

A

Shunting seen around the 10 o’clock position; at 12 o’clock, it is the subarterial type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is a characteristic feature of small perimembranous VSD?

A

Chance of spontaneous closure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Which type of VSD has shunting near the pulmonary artery?

A

Subpulmonic (Supracristal) VSD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What complication may arise in subpulmonic VSD?

A

Aortic valve destruction leading to aortic insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the recommended management for subpulmonic VSD?

A

Closure regardless of size due to risk of aortic valve involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What type of VSD has a high chance of spontaneous closure within the first 2 years of life?

A

Muscular VSD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Where is the murmur of VSD best heard?

A

Left midsternal border (between the left upper and left lower sternal borders)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are the characteristics of a restrictive VSD?

A

Small defects (<5 mm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What defines a non-restrictive VSD?

A

Defect >10 mm or >1 cm in size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the first-line diagnostic approach for VSD?

A

CXR and 15-lead ECG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What imaging modality is used to confirm VSD diagnosis?

A

2D echocardiogram with color flow Doppler studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

When is cardiac catheterization indicated for VSD?

A

When anatomy is unclear or operability needs to be assessed (e.g., suspected Eisenmenger Syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What percentage of small VSDs close spontaneously within the first 2 years of life?

A

30-50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What type of VSD has an 80% chance of spontaneous closure?

A

Small muscular VSD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the AHA recommendation for elective closure of VSD?

A

All VSDs must be closed electively by mid-childhood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What condition may develop if a large VSD is left untreated?

A

Acquired infundibular pulmonary stenosis mimicking Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is the primary goal in managing infants with large VSDs?

A

Control heart failure symptoms and prevent pulmonary artery hypertension/Eisenmenger Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is a sign that a medium-to-large VSD patient may be developing Eisenmenger Syndrome?

A

Apparent clinical improvement in symptoms with age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is a major contraindication to VSD surgery?

A

Severe pulmonary vascular disease (PVD) and pulmonary artery hypertension non-responsive to vasodilators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What are two rare complications of surgical VSD repair?

A

Residual ventricular shunts and heart block requiring pacemaker placement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the purpose of pulmonary artery (PA) banding in VSD?

A

To protect the pulmonary bed from volume overload while awaiting definitive surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is an Atrial Septal Defect (ASD)?

A

A defect across the interatrial septum due to failure of normal embryonic septal development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are the three main types of ASD?

A

Secundum, Primum, and Sinus Venosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Which ASD type is most commonly managed with interventional closure?

A

Secundum ASD

85
Q

What syndrome is associated with secundum ASD and first-degree AV block?

A

Holt-Oram Syndrome

86
Q

What is an incompetent Patent Foramen Ovale (PFO)?

A

A PFO that remains open but does not have hemodynamic significance

87
Q

What is the physiological effect of ASD?

A

Volume overload in the right atrium (RA) and right ventricle (RV) due to left-to-right (L-R) shunting

88
Q

What factors determine the degree of L-R shunting in ASD?

A

Defect size, RV/LV compliance, pulmonary and systemic vascular resistance

89
Q

What is the characteristic murmur of ASD?

A

Systolic ejection murmur at the left upper sternal border (LUSB)

90
Q

What is a hallmark auscultatory finding in ASD?

A

Wide and fixed splitting of the second heart sound (S2)

91
Q

What diagnostic finding on CXR suggests ASD?

A

Obliteration of the retrosternal space indicating right ventricular hypertrophy (RVH)

92
Q

What is the preferred treatment for ASD in early childhood?

A

Surgical or transcatheter closure

93
Q

What is the treatment of choice for secundum ASD closure?

A

Percutaneous device closure using an atrial septal occlusion device

94
Q

What is a major complication of ASD device closure?

A

Device erosion (risk minimized by selecting good candidates)

95
Q

At what Qp/Qs ratio is ASD closure indicated?

96
Q

What type of shunt is Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)?

A

Left-to-right (L-R) shunt

97
Q

What is the classic murmur of PDA?

A

Continuous ‘machinery-like’ murmur best heard at the left upper sternal border (LUSB) or second intercostal space, left parasternal border

98
Q

What part of the cardiac cycle does the PDA murmur cover?

A

Both systole and diastole

99
Q

What is the female-to-male ratio in PDA incidence?

A

2:1, more common in females

100
Q

What congenital infection is associated with PDA?

A

Maternal/Congenital Rubella Syndrome

101
Q

What percentage of congenital heart disease (CHD) cases does PDA account for?

102
Q

What is the expected outcome of PDA in premature infants?

A

Spontaneous closure is common due to normal vessel anatomy of the ductus

103
Q

What prevents spontaneous closure of PDA in term neonates?

A

Deficiency in mucoid endothelial layer and muscular media, preventing normal constriction

104
Q

Why is it important to determine if a PDA patient is premature or term?

A

To predict the likelihood of spontaneous closure and provide appropriate counseling

105
Q

When should PDA closure be maintained instead of treated?

A

In critical conditions such as severe pulmonary or right ventricular outflow obstruction (RVOT) where the PDA is the only source of pulmonary circulation

106
Q

What are duct-dependent congenital heart diseases?

A

Conditions where systemic or pulmonary circulation depends on PDA patency, such as coarctation of the aorta (COA) or severe pulmonic valve stenosis/atresia

107
Q

In what percentage of CHD cases does PDA serve as a source of pulmonary blood flow?

108
Q

What clinical manifestations suggest a medium to large PDA?

A

Peripheral bounding pulses, widened pulse pressure, thrill maximal at LUSB

109
Q

What happens to the PDA murmur if pulmonary vascular disease (PVD) develops?

A

Diastolic component may be absent, leaving only a systolic murmur

110
Q

What is the characteristic murmur of PDA?

A

Continuous ‘machinery-like’ murmur best heard at the left upper sternal border (LUSB)

111
Q

What are the classic chest X-ray findings in PDA?

A

Cardiomegaly, left atrial enlargement, increased pulmonary vascular markings, main pulmonary artery bulging

112
Q

What are common differential diagnoses for a continuous machinery-like murmur?

A

Aortic-pulmonary window, ruptured sinus of Valsalva aneurysm, coronary arteriovenous fistula, truncus arteriosus with torrential pulmonary flow

113
Q

Why is spontaneous PDA closure rare in term infants?

A

Persistent PDA beyond the first week of life is uncommon due to anatomical differences in the ductus

114
Q

What are three major complications of an untreated large PDA?

A

Infective endarteritis, pulmonary/systemic emboli, Eisenmenger syndrome

115
Q

What is the preferred treatment for PDA, regardless of age?

A

Catheter-based or surgical closure

116
Q

When should a medium-to-large PDA be closed?

A

Closure should not be delayed once diagnosed to prevent complications

117
Q

What is the standard treatment approach for PDA closure?

A

Transcatheter PDA closure

118
Q

What device is used for small PDA closure?

A

Intravascular coils or small gap/device closure

119
Q

How is a transcatheter PDA closure performed?

A

Approach via femoral artery to the descending aorta, reaching the ductus area for closure

120
Q

What type of device is used for medium-to-large PDA closure?

A

Umbrella-like device

121
Q

What is the embryologic abnormality in Atrioventricular Septal Defect (AVSD)?

A

Deficiency of the atrioventricular (AV) septum

122
Q

Which genetic condition is AVSD most commonly associated with?

A

Down syndrome

123
Q

What are the three key structural defects in AVSD?

A

Inlet VSD, ostium primum defect, cleft anterior mitral valve leaflet (AMVL)

124
Q

What is a Gerbode shunt?

A

A left ventricle-to-right atrium (LV→RA) shunt due to absence of the AV septum

125
Q

What is the pathophysiology of AVSD?

A

Left-to-right shunting at both atrial and ventricular levels

126
Q

Why do AVSD patients have an early tendency to develop pulmonary vascular disease (PVD)?

A

High pulmonary blood flow leads to pulmonary hypertension

127
Q

When is surgical correction of AVSD ideally performed?

A

Within 3-6 months of life, or before 1 year to prevent Eisenmenger syndrome

128
Q

Why is early surgery especially crucial for AVSD patients with Down syndrome?

A

They have a higher tendency to develop Eisenmenger syndrome compared to non-chromosomal cases

129
Q

What type of shunt is Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)?

A

Left-to-right (L-R) shunt

130
Q

What is the classic murmur of PDA?

A

Continuous ‘machinery-like’ murmur best heard at the left upper sternal border (LUSB) or second intercostal space, left parasternal border

131
Q

What part of the cardiac cycle does the PDA murmur cover?

A

Both systole and diastole

132
Q

What is the female-to-male ratio in PDA incidence?

A

2:1, more common in females

133
Q

What congenital infection is associated with PDA?

A

Maternal/Congenital Rubella Syndrome

134
Q

What percentage of congenital heart disease (CHD) cases does PDA account for?

135
Q

What is the expected outcome of PDA in premature infants?

A

Spontaneous closure is common due to normal vessel anatomy of the ductus

136
Q

What prevents spontaneous closure of PDA in term neonates?

A

Deficiency in mucoid endothelial layer and muscular media, preventing normal constriction

137
Q

Why is it important to determine if a PDA patient is premature or term?

A

To predict the likelihood of spontaneous closure and provide appropriate counseling

138
Q

When should PDA closure be maintained instead of treated?

A

In critical conditions such as severe pulmonary or right ventricular outflow obstruction (RVOT) where the PDA is the only source of pulmonary circulation

139
Q

What are duct-dependent congenital heart diseases?

A

Conditions where systemic or pulmonary circulation depends on PDA patency, such as coarctation of the aorta (COA) or severe pulmonic valve stenosis/atresia

140
Q

In what percentage of CHD cases does PDA serve as a source of pulmonary blood flow?

141
Q

What clinical manifestations suggest a medium to large PDA?

A

Peripheral bounding pulses, widened pulse pressure, thrill maximal at LUSB

142
Q

What happens to the PDA murmur if pulmonary vascular disease (PVD) develops?

A

Diastolic component may be absent, leaving only a systolic murmur

143
Q

What is the characteristic murmur of PDA?

A

Continuous ‘machinery-like’ murmur best heard at the left upper sternal border (LUSB)

144
Q

What are the classic chest X-ray findings in PDA?

A

Cardiomegaly, left atrial enlargement, increased pulmonary vascular markings, main pulmonary artery bulging

145
Q

What are common differential diagnoses for a continuous machinery-like murmur?

A

Aortic-pulmonary window, ruptured sinus of Valsalva aneurysm, coronary arteriovenous fistula, truncus arteriosus with torrential pulmonary flow

146
Q

Why is spontaneous PDA closure rare in term infants?

A

Persistent PDA beyond the first week of life is uncommon due to anatomical differences in the ductus

147
Q

What are three major complications of an untreated large PDA?

A

Infective endarteritis, pulmonary/systemic emboli, Eisenmenger syndrome

148
Q

What is the preferred treatment for PDA, regardless of age?

A

Catheter-based or surgical closure

149
Q

When should a medium-to-large PDA be closed?

A

Closure should not be delayed once diagnosed to prevent complications

150
Q

What is the standard treatment approach for PDA closure?

A

Transcatheter PDA closure

151
Q

What device is used for small PDA closure?

A

Intravascular coils or small gap/device closure

152
Q

How is a transcatheter PDA closure performed?

A

Approach via femoral artery to the descending aorta, reaching the ductus area for closure

153
Q

What type of device is used for medium-to-large PDA closure?

A

Umbrella-like device

154
Q

What is the embryologic abnormality in Atrioventricular Septal Defect (AVSD)?

A

Deficiency of the atrioventricular (AV) septum

155
Q

Which genetic condition is AVSD most commonly associated with?

A

Down syndrome

156
Q

What are the three key structural defects in AVSD?

A

Inlet VSD, ostium primum defect, cleft anterior mitral valve leaflet (AMVL)

157
Q

What is a Gerbode shunt?

A

A left ventricle-to-right atrium (LV→RA) shunt due to absence of the AV septum

158
Q

What is the pathophysiology of AVSD?

A

Left-to-right shunting at both atrial and ventricular levels

159
Q

Why do AVSD patients have an early tendency to develop pulmonary vascular disease (PVD)?

A

High pulmonary blood flow leads to pulmonary hypertension

160
Q

When is surgical correction of AVSD ideally performed?

A

Within 3-6 months of life, or before 1 year to prevent Eisenmenger syndrome

161
Q

Why is early surgery especially crucial for AVSD patients with Down syndrome?

A

They have a higher tendency to develop Eisenmenger syndrome compared to non-chromosomal cases

162
Q

What are the two main types of acyanotic congenital heart disease with obstructive lesions?

A

Pulmonary stenosis and aortic stenosis

163
Q

What is the predominant ventricle in Coarctation of the Aorta (COA)?

A

Left ventricle (LV)

164
Q

What percentage of congenital heart disease (CHD) cases does pulmonary stenosis account for?

165
Q

What is the most common cause of pulmonary obstruction at the valve area?

A

Valvar pulmonary stenosis

166
Q

What syndromes are associated with pulmonary stenosis?

A

Noonan syndrome, LEOPARD syndrome, Alagille syndrome

167
Q

What factors determine the significance of pulmonary stenosis?

A

Anatomic location, magnitude of lesion, patient’s age, and myocardial contractility impairment

168
Q

What pathophysiologic changes occur in pulmonary stenosis?

A

Obstruction → increased RV systolic pressure → right ventricular hypertrophy (RVH)

169
Q

What is the oxygen saturation status in pulmonary stenosis without ASD or VSD?

170
Q

What is critical pulmonary stenosis in newborns characterized by?

A

Decreased RV compliance, right-to-left (R-L) shunt across PFO, cyanosis

171
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of mild-to-moderate pulmonary stenosis?

A

Normal growth and developmental milestones

172
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of severe pulmonary stenosis?

A

Right ventricular failure and cyanosis if interatrial communication is present

173
Q

What is the management for moderate to severe pulmonary stenosis?

A

Balloon valvuloplasty or balloon valvotomy

174
Q

When is open pulmonic valvuloplasty indicated?

A

For patients with thickened valves who cannot undergo valvotomy

175
Q

What is the most common type of aortic stenosis?

A

Valvular aortic stenosis

176
Q

What is the structural abnormality in valvular aortic stenosis?

A

Thickened leaflets with commissural fusion

177
Q

What syndrome is associated with subvalvar aortic stenosis?

A

Shone syndrome (Subvalvar AoS + MS + COA)

178
Q

What syndrome is associated with supravalvar aortic stenosis?

A

Williams syndrome

179
Q

What genetic feature is common in patients with Williams syndrome?

A

‘Elfin’ facial appearance

180
Q

What percentage of CHD cases does aortic stenosis account for?

181
Q

What is the most common congenital lesion associated with aortic stenosis?

A

Bicuspid aortic valve

182
Q

What causes a bicuspid aortic valve?

A

Failure of the raphe to open

183
Q

What are possible complications of a bicuspid aortic valve?

A

Aortic stenosis or aortic regurgitation (valvular insufficiency)

184
Q

What is the normal appearance of an aortic valve on imaging?

A

Mercedes-Benz sign (presence of 3 valve leaflets)

185
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of mild-to-moderate aortic stenosis?

A

Asymptomatic

186
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of severe aortic stenosis?

A

Left ventricular (LV) failure and signs of low cardiac output

187
Q

What is the treatment for moderate to severe aortic stenosis?

A

Balloon valvuloplasty

188
Q

Why is balloon valvuloplasty performed in aortic stenosis?

A

To prevent LV dysfunction, syncope, and sudden death

189
Q

What are surgical options for severe aortic stenosis?

A

Konno procedure, aortic valve replacement (AVR), Ross procedure

190
Q

When is surgery indicated for aortic stenosis?

A

For extremely dysplastic valves or subvalvar/supravalvar stenosis

191
Q

What are transcatheter stent valves?

A

Tissue valves sewn into an expandable metal stent

192
Q

In whom are transcatheter stent valves mainly used?

A

Adults too ill for surgery and all age groups needing stenotic area dilation

193
Q

What percentage of CHD cases does coarctation of the aorta (COA) account for?

194
Q

What is the male-to-female ratio in COA?

A

2:1 (more common in males)

195
Q

What genetic syndrome is associated with COA?

A

Turner syndrome

196
Q

What percentage of COA patients have a bicuspid aortic valve?

A

More than 70%

197
Q

What are intracranial vascular anomalies associated with COA?

A

Intracranial aneurysms

198
Q

What is the usual clinical presentation of infants with COA?

A

Asymptomatic

199
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of COA in children and adolescents?

A

Weakness or pain/claudication in lower extremities after exertion, hypertension on routine PE

200
Q

What is the classic sign of COA on physical examination?

A

Disparity in pulse and blood pressure (upper extremity > lower extremity)

201
Q

What is radial-femoral delay?

A

Delayed femoral pulse compared to radial pulse due to COA

202
Q

What heart failure symptoms can occur in COA?

A

Systolic murmur, signs of left heart failure

203
Q

What are the classic CXR findings in COA?

A

Figure of 3 sign and rib notching

204
Q

What causes rib notching in COA?

A

Dilated intercostal arteries due to collateral circulation

205
Q

What is the initial treatment for neonates with severe COA?

A

Prostaglandin E1 infusion to maintain ductus arteriosus patency

206
Q

Why is prostaglandin E1 given in severe COA?

A

To maintain systemic circulation to lower extremities and organs

207
Q

What is the definitive treatment for COA in older children?

A

Surgical correction or stent placement

208
Q

When is stent placement preferred over surgery in COA?

A

In patients with severe LV dysfunction or high surgical risk