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Dental Pathology > Soft Tissue > Flashcards

Soft Tissue Flashcards

1
Q

The most common tumor of the oral cavity; probably not a true neoplasm; reactive lesion, secondary to trauma or chronic irritation

A

Fibroma

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2
Q

F>M, 4th-6th decade; commonly located along the bite line of the buccal mucosa; sessile, smooth-surfaced pink nodule

A

fibroma

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3
Q

variant of fibroma that feature both clinically and histologically unique features; unassociated with trauma or irritation

A

giant cell fibroma

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4
Q

F>M, first 3 decades; most occur on gingiva, followed by tongue; sessile, often papillary nodule; features large, stellate-shaped or multinucleated fibroblasts

A

Giant cell fibroma

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5
Q

reactive lesion that occurs secondary to irritation from an ill-fitting denture

A

epulis fissuratum

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6
Q

any tumor of the gingiva or alveolar mucosa

A

epulis

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7
Q

F>M, middle aged and older; single or multiple folds of firm, fibrous tissue located in the alveolar vestibule (usually anterior)

A

epulis fissuratum

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8
Q

lesions can achieve large size; may be ulcerated; fibroepithelial polyp- pedunculated lesion of palate beneath maxillary denture

A

epulis fissuratum

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9
Q

reactive process of the palate underneath a maxillary denture; associated with: ill-fitting denture, poor hygiene, wearing denture 24 hr/day; superimposed candidiasis

A

inflammatory papillary hyperplasia

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10
Q

variable involvement of the hard palate; aymptomatic, erythematous lesion with a pebbly surface; had been seen on edentulous mandibular ridge or on epulis

A

inflammatory papillary hyperplasia

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11
Q

may see pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia

A

inflammatory papillary hyperplasia

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12
Q

common non-neoplastic proliferation of granulation tissue; not a true granuloma; response to local irritation or trauma; F>M, children and young adults; common during pregnancy

A

pyogenic granuloma

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13
Q

rapidly growing, smooth or lobulated ulcerated mass; easily bleeds; any mucosal surface with most involving the gingiva

A

pyogenic granuloma

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14
Q

relatively common reactive lesion of the gingiva; histologically identical to the central giant cell granuloma

A

peripheral giant cell granuloma

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15
Q

F>M, 5th and 6th decades; bluish-purple lesion, exclusively on the gingiva or alveolar ridge; radiographic- may cause “cupping” resorption (saucerization)

A

peripheral giant cell granuloma

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16
Q

relatively common reactive lesion, probably arising from periodontal ligament; this lesion is unrelated to the central ossifying fibroma; teenagers and young adults; maxilla>mandible; exclusively on the gingiva; frequently ulcerated

A

peripheral ossifying fibroma

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17
Q

mineralization, consisting of bone, cementum-like, or dystrophic calcifications; ulcerated surface; 16% recurrence rate

A

peripheral ossifying fibroma

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18
Q

benign tumor of fat; although rare in the oral/maxillofacial area, the lipoma is the most common mesenchymal neoplasm; unrelated to metabolism/body fat

A

lipoma

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19
Q

F>M; soft nodule, most commonly involving the buccal mucosa; normal or yellow in color; well circumscribed, lobular arrangement of mature adipose tissue

A

lipoma

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20
Q

reactive proliferation of neural tissue; not necessarily a true neoplasm; secondary to disruption of Schwann cell tube

A

Traumatic neuroma

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21
Q

F>M, middle-aged adults; smooth surfaced, submucosal nodule; commonly involve the mental foramen area; may be symptomatic

A

traumatic neuroma

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22
Q

benign neural tumor of schwann cell origin; uncommon, but often involve the head and neck

A

schwannoma

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23
Q

oral tumors most commonly involve the tongue; may arise within bone, causing an expansile, unilocular radiolucency

A

schwannoma

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24
Q

Schwannoma: Antoni _ tissue: Spindle-shaped schwann cells palisaded around central acellular areas (Verocay bodies)

A

A

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25
Q

Schwannoma: Antoni _ tissue: Randomly arranged spindle cells against a myxomatous background; Ancient schwannoma

A

B

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26
Q

the most common peripheral nerve neoplasm; tumor cells are a mixture of Schwann cells and fibroblasts

A

neurofibroma

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27
Q

typically solitary, involving the tongue or buccal mucosa; may occur in bone; multiple lesions associated with neurofibromatosis

A

neurofibroma

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28
Q

circumscribed proliferation of spindle-shaped (comma-shaped) cells against a background of delicate collagen fibers; variable numbers of mast cells

A

neurofibroma

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29
Q

Relatively common autosomal dominant syndrome (50% new mutations) with variable expressivity

A

Neurofibromatosis (Von Recklinghausen’s Disease of Skin)

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30
Q

Type _ neurofibromatosis: bilateral acoustic neuroma (schwannoma of auditory nerve)

A

2

31
Q

multiple neurofibromas: small papules to large pendulous masses; plexiform neurofibroma; cafe au lait pigmentation (6 or more, smooth-edged, yellow-tan to brown macules)

A

neurofibromatosis

32
Q

crowe’s sign (axillary freckling); lish nodules (pigment spots on the iris); CNS tumors, mental deficiency, seizures

A

neurofibromatosis

33
Q

oral lesions: enlargement of the fungiform papillae, neurofibromas; radiograph: enlargement of the mandibular foramen

A

neurofibromatosis

34
Q

5% or NF patients will develop _ or other tumors

A

neurofibrosarcoma

35
Q

Rare hereditary condition characterized by tumors or hyperplasias of neuroendocrine origin; inherited as an autosomal dominant trait or spontaneous mutation

A

Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2B

36
Q

MEN type _: pancreatic islets, adrenal cortex, parathyroid glands, pituitary gland

A

1

37
Q

MEN type _: adrenal pheochromocytoma, medullary thyroid carcinoma

A

2

38
Q

MEN 2B: Mutation in the RET oncogene on chromosome _

A

10

39
Q

in addition to MEN type 2, MEN type 2B will present with multiple _ _

A

mucosal neuromas

40
Q

Marfanoid habitus; narrow face with thick, protruberant lips; small neuromas may involve the eyelid, conjunctiva, or cornea

A

MEN 2B

41
Q

Mucosal neuromas involving predominantly the lips or anterior tongue; sweating, hypertension, heart palpitations secondary to catecholamine production by pheochromocytoma

A

MEN 2B

42
Q

Urinary or serum calcitonin secondary to thyroid carcinoma; Epi/NE or VMA secondary to pheochromocytoma; Mucosal neuromas show hyperplasia of nerve bundles

A

MEN 2B

43
Q

MEN 2B: prophylactic thyroidectomy due to poor prognosis of _ _ _

A

medullary thyroid carcinoma

44
Q

Rare pigmented neoplasm of neural crest origin; it is typically a tumor of the first year of life

A

Melanotic neuroectodermal tumor of infancy

45
Q

most involved the anterior maxilla; rapidly expansile, blue to black lesion; destruction of underlying bone

A

melanotic neuroectodermal tumor of infancy

46
Q

High VMA, which return to normal after removal

A

melanotic neuroectodermal tumor of infancy

47
Q

Biphasic cell population: small round cell, epithelioid cells with dark brown melanin pigment

A

melanotic neuroectodermal tumor of infancy

48
Q

uncommon tumor that appears to be of schwann cell origin; significant predilection for the oral cavity; F>M; 4th to 6th decade; solitary lesion, primarily involving the dorsal tongue; asymptomatic sessile nodule

A

granular cell tumor

49
Q

large polygonal cells with granular cytoplasm; often show overlying pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia; S-100 positivity

A

Granular cell tumor

50
Q

Rare tumor of the alveolar ridge in newborns; unknown histogenesis; striking resemblance to granular cell tumor

A

congenital epulis (of the newborn)

51
Q

Females; pink to red, polypoid mass; most commonly found in the anterior maxilla

A

congenital epulis

52
Q

Histo similar to granular cell tumor except: No pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia, No S-100 positivity

A

congenital epulis

53
Q

benign proliferation of blood vessels; the most common tumor of infancy; rarely present at birth; 5-10% of 1 yr olds, F>M; raised nodular masses of skin; may be seen intraorally

A

hemangioma

54
Q

present at birth and persist throughout life; “port-wine stains”; venous vs arteriovenous; may occur in bone; mandible>maxilla

A

vascular malformation

55
Q

non-hereditary developmental condition characterized by vascular proliferations of the skin and brain; secondary to persistence of the vascular plexus around the cephalic portion of the neural tube

A

Sturge-weber angiomatosis

56
Q

nevus flammeus (port wine stain); may be seen intraorally; mental retardation, hemiplegia, convulsions; leptomeningeal angiomas; gyriform “tram-line” calcifications

A

sturge-weber angiomatosis

57
Q

port wine stain- dilated blood vessels within the dermis (capillary vascular malformation); gingival lesions may resemble pyogenic granuloma

A

sturge-weber angiomatosis

58
Q

benign tumor of lymphatic channels; 75% occur in the head and neck; cervical _ most commonly involve the posterior tongue

A

lymphangiomas

59
Q

Oral lesions of _: tongue is most common site; “Frog’s eggs;” deeper tumors- Ill defined masses; alveolar _

A

lymphangiomas

60
Q

benign tumor of smooth muscle; typically a tumor of the uterus; any age; firm submucosal nodule; lips, palate, tongue, cheek; vascular lesions may appear bluish

A

leiomyoma

61
Q

solid- well circumscribed bundles of spindle-shaped nuclei with blunt-ended nuclei (cigar-shaped)

A

leiomyoma

62
Q

benign tumor of skeletal muscle; rare, but most involve the head and neck

A

rhabdomyoma

63
Q

_ rhabdomyoma: nodule or mass; floor of mouth, palate, base of tongue

A

adult

64
Q

_ rhabdomyoma: M>F, young children; face and preauricular region; haphazard arrangement of less mature, spindle-shaped cells

A

fetal

65
Q

malignant tumor of fibroblastic origin; typically a tumor of the extremities; children and young adults; slow-growing, initially painless mass; most commonly involve the nose and sinuses; “herring-bone pattern”

A

fibrosarcoma

66
Q

malignant tumor; 50% associated with neurofibromatosis; rare tumor of the head and neck area; young adults, sometimes rapidly growing mass; pain or paresthesia; may occur within bone

A

Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor

67
Q

fascicles of atypical spindle-shaped cells; wavy nuclei; triton tumor

A

malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor

68
Q

vascular neoplasm that has become more common with the AIDS epidemic; associated with HHV-8;

A

kaposi’s sarcoma

69
Q

_ Kaposi’s: elderly adults; tumor of the lower extremities; slowly progressive, indolent tumor

A

classic

70
Q

_ kaposi’s: benign nodular; aggressive; florid; lymphadenopathic

A

endemic (african)

71
Q

_ kaposi’s: associated w/ organ transplant, especially renal; more aggressive

A

iatrogenic

72
Q

_ kaposi’s: usually in homosexual males; decreasing in frequency; oral lesions common

A

AIDS-related

73
Q

malignant tumor of skeletal muscle; M>F, 1st decade (embryonal); potentially rapidly growing, infiltrative mass; orbit, nasal cavity, nasopharynx

A

rhabdomyosarcoma

74
Q

_ variant of rhabdomyosarcoma: polypoid growth; “grape-like”

A

botryoid

Dental Pathology (22 decks)

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