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Dental Pathology > Female Genital/Breast > Flashcards

Female Genital/Breast Flashcards

1
Q

pap smear credited with reduction of which cancer?

A

cervical carcinoma

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2
Q

most important agent in cervical oncogenesis

A

HPV

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3
Q

low risk HPV serotypes

A

6,11

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4
Q

high risk HPV serotypes

A

16,18

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5
Q

HPV interferes with which tumor suppressor gene?

A

p53

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6
Q

which quadrivalent vaccine confers immunity to HPV types 16 & 18 (70% of cervical cancer) and 6 & 11 (90% of condyloma acuminatum)

A

gardasil

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7
Q

cervical carcinoma preceded by precancerous (dysplastic) lesion

A

cervical intraepithelial neoplasia

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8
Q

peak incidence of cervical carcinoma

A

40-45 years

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9
Q

“genital warts”, sexually transmitted and benign, multiple, HPV types 6 & 11

A

condyloma acuminatum

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10
Q

STD caused by the spirochete treponema pallidum; main diagnostic tests: VDRL and RPR

A

syphilis

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11
Q

presence of a chancre at the site of initial inoculation; small papule which enlarges into a painless ulcer with well-defined margins and clean moist base

A

primary syphilis

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12
Q

generalized lymphadenopathy and a variety of mucocutaneous lesions; lesions can be maculopapular, scaly or pustular; involvement of palms and soles common; typically within 2 months of resolution of the chancre

A

secondary syphilis

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13
Q

usually after a latent period of 5 yrs or more; 3 categories: cardiovascular, neuro, benign; gummas are focal granulomatous lesions that can occur in multiple organs

A

tertiary syphilis

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14
Q

common STD, purulent cervicitis typically develops 2-7 days after exposure; vaginal discharge, painful intercourse, dysuria; easily treated with antibiotics

A

gonorrhea

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15
Q

nongonococcal cervicitis; most commonly reported bacterial STD; caused by a small G-

A

chlamydia (c. trachomatis)

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16
Q

most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge; thin, milky vaginal discharge, foul fishy odour; gardenella vaginalis

A

bacterial vaginosis

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17
Q

eukaryotic organism, parasitic protozoa, STD, burning, itching, malodorous vaginal discharge, can usually be seen on PAP smear

A

trichomonas vaginalis

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18
Q

most common vaginal and cervical fungal infection; predominantly as yeast buds and forms pseudohyphae

A

candida

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19
Q

most common in patients using intrauterine contraceptive devices

A

actinomyces

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20
Q

ground glass nuclei, eosinophilic intranuclear inclusions

A

herpes

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21
Q

both intranuclear (basophilic) and cytoplasmic inclusions

A

cytomegalovirus

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22
Q

pelvic pain, adnexal tenderness, fever, vaginal discharge, may induce formation of tubo-ovarian abscess/pyosalpinx; oophoritis, salpingitis; gonococci and chlamydia

A

pelvic inflammatory disease

23
Q

also called Stein-Leventhal syndrome; numerous cystic follicles; enlarged ovaries twice their normal size

A

polycystic ovarian disease

24
Q

the presence of glands or endometrial stroma in an abnormal location outside uterus; a disorder of reproductive years; responds to hormonal stimulation

A

endometriosis

25
Q

common cause of abnormal bleeding; linked to prolonged estrogen stimulation

A

endometrial hyperplasia

26
Q

most common invasive carcinoma of the female genital tract; predominately a disease of postmenopausal women; “post-menopausal bleeding”

A

endometrial carcinoma

27
Q

tumor of smooth muscle; common during reproductive years; may induce spontaneous aportion

A

leiomyoma

28
Q

malignant counterpart of leiomyoma with necrosis

A

leiomyosarcoma

29
Q

second most common cancer of the female genital tract: 3 % of all cancers in women

A

ovarian cancer

30
Q

account for a disproportionate number of fatal cancers due to presentation at late stage; often asymptomatic until late stages; elevations in CA-125

A

ovarian cancer

31
Q

surface epithelial tumor; cystic filled with clear fluid; can be benign

A

serous tumors

32
Q

malignant serous tumor

A

serous cystadenocarcinoma

33
Q

surface epithelial tumor: closely resemble serous counterparts; 80% are benign

A

mucinous tumors

34
Q

germ cell tumors: “dermoid cyst”; mature and immature; may contain elements of all 3 germ layers

A

teratoma

35
Q

developmental disorder: may result in supernumerary nipples

A

milkline remnants

36
Q

developmental disorder: implications in breast carcinoma

A

accessory axillary breast tissue

37
Q

developmental disorder: may be clinically confused with inversion resulting from carcinoma and/or inflammation

A

congenital inversion of nipple

38
Q

suspicious findings in mammography

A

densities, calcifications, nipple-inversion

39
Q

associated with lactation; breast vulnerable due to fissures induced by nursing; staph and strep species; confusion with inflammatory carcinoma

A

acute mastitis

40
Q

erythema, pain, fever, infiltration by neutrophils, necrosis possible

A

acute mastitis

41
Q

history of trauma or surgery; presents as painless palpable mass; possible confusion with breast carcinoma

A

fat necrosis

42
Q

stromal tumor: most common benign tumor of female breast; occur in reproductive period; size can fluctuate through menstrual cycle; abnormal density and occasionally calcified

A

fibroadenoma

43
Q

stromal tumor: “leaf-like”; occur in older age group; most present as palpable masses; high grade lesions behave in malignant manner

A

phyllodes tumor

44
Q

benign, non-proliferative changes NOT associated with increased risk of carcinoma

A

fibrocystic change

45
Q

most common malignancy in women; 2nd leading cause of cancer death in women

A

carcinoma of the breast

46
Q

1/4 of familial breast cancers attributed to mutations in …

A

BRCA1 and BRCA2

47
Q

major risk factor of sporadic breast cancer

A

hormone exposure (estrogen)

48
Q

all carcinomas are thought to arise from …

A

the terminal duct lobular unit

49
Q

1/2 of mammographically detected cancers; malignant cells limited to ducts and lobules by basement membrane

A

ductal carcinoma in situ

50
Q

does not produce mammographic findings; most cases will proceed to infiltrating carcinoma; loss of E-cadherin expression

A

lobular carcinoma in situ

51
Q

large tumors may be fixed to chest wall; lymphatic blockage may induce “peau d’orange” appearance; by the time carcinoma is palpable 1/2 of patients will have axillary lymph node involvement

A

infiltrating carcinoma

52
Q

involvement of dermal lymphatics =

A

inflammatory carcinoma

53
Q

drug that inhibits estrogen receptor; for ER, PR positive; used as adjuvant therapy in estrogen receptor positive tumors

A

tamoxifen

54
Q

drug for Her2 positive cancers; Her2/neu: member of the epidermal growth factor receptor family; overexpression of Her2/neu seen in some breast and ovarian cancers

A

trastuzamab

Dental Pathology (22 decks)

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