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Dental Pathology > Bone > Flashcards

Bone Flashcards

1
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta: secondary to mutation in either the _ or _ genes, which guide type 1 collagen formation

A

COL1A1 or COL1A2

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2
Q

osteopenia, bowing, angulation, or deformity of long bones; multiple fractures; wormian bones of the skull

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

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3
Q

most common and least severe form of osteogenesis imperfecta, moderately severe bone fragility, blue sclera, hearing loss before age 30, some show opalescent teeth

A

type 1

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4
Q

most severe form of osteogenesis imperfecta, extreme bone fragility with frequent fractures, blue sclera, some opalescent teeth

A

type 2

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5
Q

most severe form of osteogenesis imperfecta beyond perinatal period; moderately severe bone fragility, blue sclera, kyphoscoliosis, some opalescent teeth

A

type 3

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6
Q

type _ of osteogenesis imperfecta; mild to moderate bone fragility, blue sclera fades with age, bone fractures, decrease after puberty, some opalescent teeth

A

type 4

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7
Q

hereditary disorder characterized by increased bone density; secondary to defect in osteoclastic function; the defect results in thickening of cortical bone and sclerosis of cancellous bone

A

osteopetrosis

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8
Q

_ form of osteopetrosis: normocytic anemia, symptoms secondary to cranial nerve pressure, pathologic fracture, skull deformities, hypertelorism, delayed tooth eruption, autosomal recessive

A

infantile (malignant)

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9
Q

_ form of osteopetrosis: milder, typically detected upon routine radiograph, no anemia, no cranial nerve compression, uncommon pathologic fracture, osteomyelitis, autosomal dominant

A

adult (benign)

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10
Q

numerous osteoclasts; lack of howship’s lacunae; dense bone formation

A

osteopetrosis

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11
Q

hereditary bone defect of the bone and clavicles; secondary to defect in the CBFA 1 gene, which guides osteoblastic diffentiation and bone formation; autosomal dominant inheritance pattern

A

cleidocranial dysplasia

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12
Q

frontal and parietal bossing; ocular hypertelorism; mid-face hypoplasia; open fontanels and wormian bones

A

cleidocranial dysplasia

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13
Q

hypoplasia or absence of clavicles; oral: numerous unerupted and supernumerary teeth, high arched palate

A

cleidocranial dysplasia

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14
Q

harmless process that may mimic pathology; may be secondary to aberrant bone regeneration following extraction, persistance of fetal marrow, and/or marrow hyperplasia

A

focal osteoporotic marrow defect

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15
Q

F>M, posterior mandible, asymptomatic, ill-defined radiolucency with fine trabeculations; normal bone, cellular hematopoietic marrow

A

focal osteoporotic marrow defect

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16
Q

focal area of bone density of unknown etiology; often confused with condensing osteitis

A

idiopathic osteosclerosis

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17
Q

age 20-40; mandibular first molar area; asymptomatic; well defined area of radiopacity

A

idiopathic osteosclerosis

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18
Q

disease of bone characterized by abnormal resorption and deposition of bone; unknown etiology; evidence has suggested a possible viral etiology; recent gene mutations have also been identified

A

paget’s disease of bone (osteitis deformans)

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19
Q

M>F; older individuals; monostotic vs. polyostotic; thickened enlarged, and weakened bones; often painful

A

paget’s disease

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20
Q

maxilla>mandible, enlarged alveolar ridges, may see spacing of the teeth

A

paget’s disease

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21
Q

radiograph: early- decreased radiodensity and altered trabeculation, later- patchy, sclerotic bone (cotton wool), hypercementosis

A

paget’s disease

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22
Q

increased serum alkaline phosphatase; normal calcium and phosphorous levels; elevated urinary hydroxyproline; osteoblastic formation and osteoclastic resorption of bone; basophilic reversal lines (mosaic or jigsaw pattern)

A

paget’s disease

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23
Q

_ develops in about 1% of Paget’s patients

A

osteosarcoma

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24
Q

non-neoplastic lesion of the jaws; significance lies in differentiation from brown tumor of hyperparathyroidism and association with cherubism

A

central giant cell granuloma

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25
Q

F>M, aggressive vs. non-aggressive, typically painless expansile, mandible, anterior to the first molar, may cross the midline, unilocular to multilocular radiolucency

A

central giant cell granuloma

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26
Q

spindle cell proliferation with variable numbers of multinucleated giant cells, erythrocytic extravasation and hemosiderin deposition, may see osteoid

A

central giant cell granuloma

27
Q

rare autosomal dominant condition of the jaws, children, painless bilateral expansion, usually involves the posterior mandible

A

cherubism

28
Q

“eyes turned up to heaven” appearance, multilocular, expansile radiolucencies, Noonan-like syndrome

A

cherubism

29
Q

giant cell granuloma with more loosely arranged stroma, giant cells are focally aggregated, eosinophilic hyaline angiopathy

A

cherubism

30
Q

benign empty or fluid-filled cavity of uncertain pathogenesis; actually not a true cyst (no epithelial lining); trauma-hemorrhage theory is probably the most popular of the potential explanations; others include ischemic necrosis, growth disturbances

A

traumatic bone cyst (simple bone cyst)

31
Q

M>F, most involve the mandible; typically asymptomatic; radiolucency with sharply or ill-defined margins; scalloping between roots; thin lining of fibrovascular connective tissue along the bony wall; no epithelial lining

A

traumatic bone cyst

32
Q

nonspecific term used to describe a number of processes that are characterized by fibrous connective tissue and mineralized tissue; due to similarity in histopathologic features, radiographic and/or clinical correlation is necessary to establish a definitive diagnosis

A

benign fibro-osseous lesions of the jaws

33
Q

All of theses processes are _: fibrous dysplasia, cemento-osseous dysplasia, ossifying (cemento-ossifying) fibroma

A

benign fibro-osseous lesions of the jaws

34
Q

developmental process secondary to a postzygotic mutation in the GNAS 1 gene; three froms; typically affects children during the first or second decade; M=F

A

fibrous dysplasia

35
Q

_ fibrous dysplasia: slowly growing enlargement of a single bone; frequently involves the jaws; “ground glass” radiograph

A

monostotic

36
Q

_ of fibrous dysplasia: typically involves the long bones; pathologic fracture, pain, deformity; cafe au lait pigmentation

A

jaffe-lichtenstein

37
Q

_ of fibrous dysplasia: polyostotic features; cafe au lait pigmentation; multiple endocrinopathies (sexual precocity, gigantism, etc)

A

McCune-Albright syndrome

38
Q

cellular fibrous stroma; irregular shaped trabeculae of woven bone (chinese script writing); skull and jaw lesions mature differently

A

fibrous dysplasia

39
Q

african-american females; mandibular anterior area, asymptomatic; radiolucent to mixed appearance

A

periapical cemental dysplasia

40
Q

F>M; whites>blacks; posterior mandible; solitary; asymptomatic

A

focal cemento-osseous dysplasia

41
Q

adult black females; often symmetric involvement of all four quadrants

A

florid cemento-osseous dysplasia

42
Q

Neoplasm of fibro-osseous differentiation; amount of cementum-like and osseous-like is variable from lesion to lesion and can be used to determine the terminology

A

ossifying fibroma

43
Q

F>M; adults; mandibular molar-premolar area; typically an asymptomatic swelling

A

ossifying fibroma

44
Q

unilocular; varying degrees of opacity; bowing of inferior cortex

A

ossifying fibroma

45
Q

benign tumor of compact or cancellous bone; predominantly restricted to the bones of the craniofacial skeleton; may occur on the surface (periosteal) or within medullary bone (endosteal)

A

osteoma

46
Q

young adults; asymptomatic; most commonly affect the mandible or condyle; circumscribed, sclerotic mass; sinus lesions- sinusitis, headache, exopthalmos

A

osteoma

47
Q

autosomal dominant condition characterized by colorectal polyps (adenomatous), osteomas, epidermoid cysts of the skin, and desmoid tumors; chief significance lies in the potential for adenocarcinoma of the colon

A

gardner syndrome

48
Q

osteomas, particularly of the jaws and bones of the skull; epidermoid cysts; multiple odontomas and impacted, supernumerary teeth

A

gardner syndrome

49
Q

Without appropriate treatment of gardner syndrome, the incidence of colorectal carcinoma approaches _% in the elderly

A

100

50
Q

Benign lesion of bone arising from osteoblasts; significant radiographic and histopathologic similarities with cementoblastoma

A

osteoblastoma

51
Q

M

A

osteoblastoma

52
Q

odontogenic neoplasm; probably the only true neoplasm of cementum; many similarities to osteoblastoma, warranting discussion with bone pathology

A

cementoblastoma

53
Q

mandibular molar region; variable pain; expansile; calcified mass with radiolucent rim associated with the root of a tooth

A

cementoblastoma

54
Q

similar to osteoblastoma, but fused to the tooth root; sheets or trabeculae of mineralized material; uncalcified matrix arranged in radiating columns at the periphery

A

cementoblastoma

55
Q

malignancy of mesenchymal cells that are characterized by the ability to produce osteoid or bone; most common malignant tumor of bone; increased prevalence associated with Paget’s disease or previous radiation

A

osteosarcoma

56
Q

M>F; avg. age 33 for jaw lesions; most occur in the area of the knee; swelling, pain, parasthesia, loosening of teeth; variable radiographic appearance; spiking root resorption; “sunburst or sunray” appearance; early widening of PDL

A

osteosarcoma

57
Q

Osteosarcoma: Direct production of _ by mesenchymal cells

A

osteoid

58
Q

variant of osteosarcoma that arises from the surface of bone; much better prognosis than intramedullary osteosarcoma; parosteal and periosteal trypes

A

peripheral (juxtacortical) osteosarcoma

59
Q

malignant tumor of cartilage formation; about half as common as osteosarcoma; rarely affects the jaws

A

chondrosarcoma

60
Q

M=F; avg. age ?; painless mass or swelling; separation or loosening of teeth; poorly defined radiolucency; scattered radiopaque flecks; may see the sunburst pattern

A

chondrosarcoma

61
Q

controversial lesion of bone, probably neuroectodermal in origin; distinct genetic translocation - t(11;22); uncommon tumor of the jaws

A

ewing’s sarcoma

62
Q

M>F; children and adolescents; swelling with intermittent pain; parasthesia and loosening of teeth; lytic bone destruction with ill-defined margins; “onion-skin” periosteal reaction; fever, leukocytosis; “blue cell tumor”

A

ewings sarcoma

63
Q

most common malignancy involving bone; hematogenous spread; uncommon in the jaws?; breast, lung, thyroid, prostate, and kidney

A

metastatic tumors to the jaws

64
Q

older patients; mandible>maxilla; pain, swelling, loosening of teeth, parasthesia; may mimic periodontal disease; moth-eaten radiographic appearance; breast and prostate may show mixed radiolucent/opaque pattern

A

metastatic tumors to the jaws

Dental Pathology (22 decks)

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